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AACN CCRN-Adult Dumps

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Total 150 questions

CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Questions and Answers

Question 1

A nurse has responded to a rapid response call on a medical-surgical floor in the hospital. The nurse finds the patient with the following data:

BP72/30

HR132

RR24

T102.3° F (39.0° C)

SpO295%

Ph7.13

PaCO234 mm Hg

PaO288 mm Hg

HCO3 14 mEq/L

Na+ 142 mEq/L

The nurse should anticipate an order to administer which of the following?

Options:

A.

8.4% sodium bicarbonate

B.

phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)

C.

0.9% sodium chloride

D.

amiodarone (Cordarone)

Question 2

When caring for a patient with septic shock secondary to osteomyelitis, which of the following laboratory tests will best monitor response to therapy?

Options:

A.

basic metabolic panel

B.

complete blood count

C.

erythrocyte sedimentation rate

D.

blood cultures

Question 3

A patient has been declared brain dead. A nurse would like the family to consider organ donation but has never requested this from a family before. The best initial action by the nurse is to

Options:

A.

consult the organ donation liaison.

B.

directly ask the patient's family members if they would consider organ donation.

C.

find out if the patient has an organ donor card.

D.

request that the physician discuss the issue with the family.

Question 4

A patient with end-stage COPD who has failed multiple mechanical ventilation weaning trials communicates a desire to discontinue mechanical ventilation and be extubated. Which of the following is a nurse's best response?

Options:

A.

Advocate with the care team for a withdrawal of treatment plan.

B.

Encourage the patient to continue with current medications and attempts to wean.

C.

Explore the patient's reasons for the request and understanding of potential consequences.

D.

Refer the patient's request to the healthcare facility's ethics committee for review.

Question 5

Which of the following should the nurse expect in a patient with papillary muscle dysfunction?

Options:

A.

mitral insufficiency

B.

aortic stenosis

C.

mitral stenosis

D.

aortic insufficiency

Question 6

The first priority in management of an acute GI hemorrhage is

Options:

A.

monitoring of serial Hgb and Hct.

B.

fluid resuscitation.

C.

pain relief.

D.

Sengstaken-Blakemore tube insertion.

Question 7

A patient who sustained acute head trauma exhibited intermittent unconsciousness prior to admission. The patient is disoriented initially and exhibits rapid deterioration in neurological status shortly after admission. X-rays reveal a right temporal bone fracture, and a diagnosis of epidural hematoma is made. The deterioration in the patient's condition is most likely associated with

Options:

A.

arterial bleeding.

B.

venous bleeding.

C.

clot formation.

D.

intracranial aneurysm.

Question 8

The primary pathophysiology underlying acute respiratory failure in a patient with head trauma involves

Options:

A.

hypercapnia related to decreased minute ventilation.

B.

shifting of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left.

C.

increased arterial oxygenation related to increased intrapulmonary shunt.

D.

dehydration related to diabetes insipidus.

Question 9

A patient who was admitted after an open aortofemoral bypass for claudication at rest has a hemoglobin A1C of 8.9. The patient admits having poor control of blood glucose levels and is scared to use insulin as directed because of a few episodes of hypoglycemia. Which of the following should the nurse initially request to be consulted?

Options:

A.

endocrinology

B.

diabetes educator

C.

hospital pharmacist

D.

vascular surgeon

Question 10

A patient with history of hypothyroidism is admitted with severe confusion and nonpitting edema. The nurse should anticipate which order?

Options:

A.

insulin drip

B.

3% saline 150 mL/hour

C.

diuretics

D.

forced air warming blanket

Question 11

A patient is admitted with Gl bleeding. During the assessment, the nurse notes the patient to be tremulous, anxious, and startles every time he is touched by the nurse. Which of the following is the most pertinent part of the patient's history to obtain?

Options:

A.

last alcohol intake

B.

medication history

C.

time of last meal

D.

psychiatric history

Question 12

Examination of a patient exhibiting Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs indicates which of the following?

Options:

A.

autonomic hyperreflexia

B.

adrenal insufficiency

C.

meningeal irritation

D.

increased intracranial pressure

Question 13

A consistent prolongation of the P-R interval beyond 0.20 sec indicates which of the following types of AV block?

Options:

A.

second-degree, Mobitz Type II

B.

first-degree

C.

second-degree, Mobitz Type I (Wenckebach)

D.

third-degree (complete)

Question 14

Which of the following ECG changes is expected in a patient with a potassium concentration of 3.0 mEq/L?

Options:

A.

ST segment depression, flattened and inverted T wave, and a U wave

B.

tall peaked T wave, prolonged PR interval, and prolonged QRS complex

C.

shortened QT interval and complete atrioventricular block

D.

inverted P wave, elevated T wave, and prolonged QT interval

Question 15

The spouse of a critically ill patient is indecisive, withdrawn, and tells the nurse, "I feel so helpless." Appropriate nursing interventions include

Options:

A.

offering solutions to problems identified by the spouse.

B.

encouraging other family members to make necessary decisions.

C.

providing reassurance that visiting is not always necessary.

D.

identifying and reinforcing the spouse's support systems.

Question 16

A patient is admitted with hypotension, tachycardia, and intermittent confusion. Upon arrival, the patient asks to walk to the bathroom. Which of the

following is a nurse's best action?

Options:

A.

Assess the patient's vital signs and ask the physician for an order for activity.

B.

Conduct a fall risk assessment and institute appropriate interventions.

C.

Encourage the patient to walk independently to the bathroom to enhance early mobility.

D.

Situate the patient in bed and provide a bed pan.

Question 17

A patient who is confused and dyspneic is admitted with ABG values that reveal hypoxemia. Results from insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter are:

PAP 38/18 mm Hg

PAOP10 mm Hg

CI 3.5 L/min/m2

These values are most indicative of

Options:

A.

hypovolemia.

B.

hypervolemia.

C.

pulmonary dysfunction.

D.

left ventricular failure.

Question 18

In a patient with a chest tube, an air leak in the pleural space is indicated by which of the following conditions in the water-seal chamber?

Options:

A.

fluctuation increases

B.

bubbling increases

C.

fluctuation is absent

D.

bubbling stops

Question 19

Patients in end-stage cardiomyopathy often exhibit which of the following symptoms of right-sided heart failure?

Options:

A.

hypotension and oliguria

B.

JVD and hepatomegaly

C.

hypertension and polyuria

D.

pulmonary edema and restlessness

Question 20

A patient with a history of asthma presents with acute onset of dyspnea, a non-productive cough, and tachypnea. He is very anxious, restless, and tachycardic. Which of the following is a first-line drug for these symptoms?

Options:

A.

leukotriene inhibitor

B.

anticholinergic

C.

mast cell stabilizer

D.

beta-agonist

Question 21

The underlying pathophysiology of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is best explained as

Options:

A.

depression of platelet aggregation.

B.

inactivation of tissue thromboplastin.

C.

depletion of clotting factors.

D.

fragmentation of erythrocytes.

Question 22

A patient is experiencing lower left quadrant pain with guarding, as well as abdominal distention and rigidity. KUB reveals free air in the abdominal

cavity. Vital signs are:

BP76/40

HR130

RR32

T101.7° F (38.7°C)

A nurse would suspect

Options:

A.

perforated bowel.

B.

paralytic ileus.

C.

appendicitis.

D.

acute pancreatitis.

Question 23

A patient with a C5 spinal cord injury calls the nurse every 15 minutes with requests for juice, water, and repositioning. Which of the following is the nurse's best response?

Options:

A.

"You need to be repositioned only every 2 hours."

B.

"You are safe. Nothing will happen to you."

C.

"I will check on you every 30 minutes."

D.

"I will get someone to sit with you."

Question 24

For a patient who sustained blunt renal trauma and a crush injury to the leg, monitoring should include observing for

Options:

A.

a shortened PR interval.

B.

tall peaked T waves.

C.

ST segment depression.

D.

a prolonged PR interval.

Question 25

An older adult patient is admitted with acute exacerbation of congestive heart failure. An echocardiogram indicates that EF is unchanged at 50%. The patient is most likely experiencing

Options:

A.

heart failure with reduced EF.

B.

heart failure with preserved EF.

C.

left ventricular failure.

D.

advanced heart failure.

Question 26

A nurse is precepting an experienced critical care nurse who is new to the facility. To develop the orientation plan, which of the following should the preceptor do first?

Options:

A.

Determine the knowledge and skills the new nurse needs to learn.

B.

Teach the new nurse about unit routines and practices.

C.

Explain patient care policies and procedures to the new nurse.

D.

Introduce the new nurse to staff and team members on the unit.

Question 27

A patient with hypertension received tPA for an acute embolic stroke with complete resolution of symptoms. Twenty-four hours after tPA administration, the nurse should anticipate an order for

Options:

A.

diuretics.

B.

beta blockers.

C.

antiplatelet agents.

D.

calcium channel blockers.

Question 28

An unconscious patient in hepatic failure secondary to alcoholism becomes acutely hypoglycemic. Glucagon administration is contraindicated for this patient because glucagon

Options:

A.

interferes with lactulose (Cephulac) therapy.

B.

produces additional sedative effects.

C.

is ineffective when hepatocytes are damaged.

D.

causes rebound hyperglycemia.

Question 29

Which of the following is the most common prerenal cause of acute tubular necrosis?

Options:

A.

shock

B.

blood transfusion reaction

C.

crush injury

D.

beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection

Question 30

A patient underwent bariatric surgery for weight loss 3 days ago. The patient appears anxious, restless, and reports increased abdominal pain over the last 24 hours. The nurse palpates mild subcutaneous crepitus over the neck. Vital signs are:

BP 106/64

HR 128

RR 27

T 100.4° F (38°C)

Which action should the nurse anticipate?

Options:

A.

Obtain labs.

B.

Administer a 1000 mL bolus of normal saline.

C.

Provide broad spectrum antibiotics.

D.

Prepare the patient for surgery.

Question 31

A nurse admits a patient awaiting surgery for an unstable pelvic fracture following a fall in which no other injuries were sustained. The nurse should prioritize

Options:

A.

transportation to radiology for an MRI.

B.

type and crossmatch PRBC prior to surgery.

C.

placement of a binder across the patient's hips.

D.

administration of a sedative to reduce movement.

Question 32

A patient with acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. The most appropriate immediate intervention for this patient is

Options:

A.

3% NS infusion.

B.

Kayexalate in sorbitol.

C.

hemodialysis.

D.

50% dextrose and insulin.

Question 33

A patient is receiving therapeutic hypothermia post-cardiac arrest. Which of the following orders should a nurse clarify?

Options:

A.

chemistry labs every day

B.

ABGs every 4 hours and with any ventilator changes

C.

hourly intake and output

D.

sequential compression devices

Question 34

The goal of PEEP therapy in acute lung injury (ALI) is to

Options:

A.

decrease PAP.

B.

decrease airway resistance.

C.

increase cardiac output.

D.

reduce physiologic shunting.

Question 35

Following a splenectomy, a patient is most at risk for

Options:

A.

sepsis.

B.

pulmonary embolism.

C.

hypertension.

D.

wound dehiscence.

Question 36

Pulsus paradoxus is defined as

Options:

A.

a decrease in systolic BP of greater than 10 mm Hg during normal expiration.

B.

a decrease in systolic BP of greater than 10 mm Hg during normal inspiration.

C.

a decrease in diastolic BP of greater than 10 mm Hg during normal expiration.

D.

an increase in systolic BP of greater than 10 mm Hg during normal inspiration.

Question 37

A terminally ill patient is deteriorating. The patient's family states, "We don't want him to suffer any more." The most appropriate response is

Options:

A.

"I have given him the medication that was ordered."

B.

"Do you feel he is suffering now?"

C.

"He probably isn't feeling anything right now."

D.

"I will make a referral to the chaplain."

Question 38

A 22-year-old trauma patient sustained multiple fractures after a fall. The patient fell 50 feet from a cliff while rock climbing without a harness. The patient is intubated and sedated with casts to bilateral lower extremities. The nurse should recognize that young adults are

Options:

A.

more likely to engage in risk-taking behaviors.

B.

developmentally vulnerable to peer pressure in extreme sports.

C.

working through trust issues that cause them to test limits.

D.

influenced by long-time intervals spent in virtual reality.

Question 39

Assessment of a patient with a head injury reveals increased muscle tone and contractured positioning of the upper extremities. A nurse should

Options:

A.

use wrist restraints to maintain upper extremity extension.

B.

obtain an order for a muscle relaxer.

C.

recognize that contractures are an expected response after a head injury.

D.

consult a physical therapist regarding appropriate positioning.

Question 40

A patient is admitted with an acute anterior wall MI. Initial hemodynamic readings are:

as

The nurse anticipates initiating a plan of care for

Options:

A.

pulmonary hypertension.

B.

cardiogenic shock.

C.

volume overload.

D.

right ventricular infarct.

Question 41

After the administration of haloperidol (Haldol), a nurse should monitor closely for

Options:

A.

prolonged QT interval and cardiac dysrhythmias.

B.

respiratory failure and cardiac failure.

C.

widened QRS complex.

D.

increased agitation.

Question 42

A patient develops the dysrhythmia shown below:

as

Blood pressure is 83/40. The patient is pale, diaphoretic, lethargic, and disoriented. The most appropriate treatment is

Options:

A.

defibrillation at 200 J.

B.

adenosine (Adenocard), 6 mg rapid IV bolus.

C.

lidocaine (Xylocaine), 1.5 mg/kg IV.

D.

cardioversion at 100 J.

Question 43

A patient in septic shock is treated with a dopamine (Intropin) infusion of 10 mcg/kg/min. Which of the following indicates that this intervention has been effective?

Options:

A.

decreased systemic vascular resistance and decreased MAP

B.

increased systemic vascular resistance and decreased MAP

C.

decreased systemic vascular resistance and increased MAP

D.

increased systemic vascular resistance and increased MAP

Question 44

A nurse is performing medication reconciliation during a patient's admission. To determine the patient's current understanding of the medication furosemide (Lasix), which of the following is the best statement by the nurse?

Options:

A.

"Can you explain to me what furosemide (Lasix) does for you?"

B.

"Do you take the furosemide (Lasix) for your hypertension?"

C.

"Which of your medications help to remove extra fluid?"

D.

"When is the best time of day to take furosemide (Lasix)?"

Question 45

A family member asks permission to visit a patient after work at 12:30 AM. On previous visits, the family member has been disruptive. To address the situation, a nurse should

Options:

A.

ask the family member to visit during scheduled visiting hours.

B.

ask the family member to visit before work.

C.

not allow the visit, as the patient will be sleeping.

D.

allow the family member to visit after setting behavioral limits.

Page: 1 / 15
Total 150 questions