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ACAMS Advanced-CAMS-Audit Dumps

Advanced CAMS-Audit Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which key risk indicator should the internal auditor consider when reviewing correspondent banking activities?

Options:

A.

Volume of transaction activity referred by the respondent bank.

B.

Size and stature of a respondent bank's operations in its home country.

C.

Number of respondent banks located in higher risk jurisdictions.

D.

Number of correspondent banking relations terminated.

Question 2

Which set of activities describes the planning phase of an audit?

Options:

A.

Request data regarding financials, schedule planning meeting and perform sample testing

B.

Request the scheduling of preliminary discussions with management and request a walk-through of key processes

C.

Request organizational charts, assess data for sample testing and provide an initial report

D.

Request management overview of the organization conduct analytical review of processes and issue findings

Question 3

Following completion of testing and tuning of the parameters and thresholds of the transaction monitoring model which final step should the team recommend as necessary to verify effective model functioning?

Options:

A.

Model validation

B.

Audit continuous monitoring

C.

Data validation

D.

Regulatory approvals

Question 4

What conclusion should the auditor make regarding AML training for outsourced AML providers?

Options:

A.

The approach outlined by the Dank is deficient, as the service providers are not pan of the Dank s AML training during its staff onboarding.

B.

The approach outlined by the Dank is appropriate as the Dank can rely on a professional service provider to deliver the AML training program for the Dank s staff.

C.

The approach outlined by the Dank is deficient, as it does not provide controls for the Dank to verify training delivered by outsourced providers to the bank's staff is appropriate.

D.

The approach outlined by the bank Is appropriate as it considers practical issues such as time zone differences and availability of both classroom and online sessions.

Question 5

If a final audit communication contains a significant error, the chief audit executive must:

Options:

A.

recall the audit report assess the error and resubmit the correct one.

B.

report the error to the local AML regulator.

C.

reevaluate the item(s) and resubmit findings for discussion on factualaccuracy.

D.

tell those who received the communication of the error and corrections.

Question 6

A retail banking small and medium-sized enterprise (SME) customer launches a charity and requests a Corporate-SME account to receive donations and make disbursements. Which scenarios would most likely identify activity related to a charity account?(Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Scenario 1

B.

Scenario 4

C.

Scenario 5

D.

Scenario 6

E.

Scenario 7

Question 7

Which are key responsibilities of internal auditors? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Implementing controls and other safeguards

B.

Determining appropriate risk appetite of the entity

C.

Evaluating the management of risk

D.

Acting as a catalyst for improvement

E.

Mitigating the risks facing the organization

Question 8

Which products/services increase the risk level for money laundering for XYZ Bank?

Options:

A.

Payable through accounts

B.

International fund transfers

C.

Letters of credit

D.

Foreign exchange services

Question 9

Review of client files reveals that staff members have been performing negative media searches for clients only when they recognize the client name. When an interesting story is identified a print of the results is inserted in the client file. There are no clear procedures on adverse media screening. Which should the auditor recommend? {Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Evidence of negative media screening retained in client files must comprise negative reports only.

B.

All staff members should be provided with additional training to ensure they adhere to standard procedures.

C.

Identification of relevant reports via adverse media searches must be escalated for an assessment for materiality.

D.

Privacy regulation requires that clients who have a print copy of the adverse media m their files should be notified.

E.

Procedures should be enhanced to require that all clients are subject to regular negative media screening.

Question 10

Which can be excluded from an audit report?

Options:

A.

The risk or control framework or other criteria used as a basis for the overall opinion

B.

The scope, including the time period to which the opinion pertains

C.

Overall opinions, judgments or conclusions reached in prior audit reports

D.

The overall opinion judgment, or conclusion reached

Question 11

The scoping and planning process of an AML audit of a bank is best guided by review of which document?

Options:

A.

Independent model validation and testing report of the bank's transaction surveillance systems

B.

Information technology security risk assessment of the bank's COD risk rating solution

C.

Report of independent audit conducted the previous year

D.

A document prepared to identify the inherent risk associated with a bank's products and services

Question 12

Which are methods to test internal controls related to the CDD and KYC process? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Ask the account officers whether the CDD and KYC information provided is correct.

B.

Confirm with client onboarding teams whether or not high-risk customers exist.

C.

Review the accuracy of the gap analysis of the CDD and KYC policies and procedures against local regulations.

D.

Evaluate the results of the sample testing of new and existing customer relationships for adherence to the CDD and KYC process.

E.

Confirm if suspicious activity reports were filed following escalation for non-compliance with the CDD and KYC process.

Question 13

The auditor reviews the AML compliance program and after a walk-through, determines that AML-related reports to the board could be useful to test the governance and management oversight. The AML reports vary in content and complexity. Which sampling method should the auditor select?

Options:

A.

Risk-based

B.

Judgmental

C.

Statistical

D.

Proportional

Question 14

When reviewing an entity's sanctions compliance program, the auditor should ensure who is exempt from the Office of Foreign Assets Control's regulations?

Options:

A.

US entities having branches outside the US

B.

Non-US entities having branches outside the US

C.

US citizens residing outside the

D.

Non-US citizens residing in the US

Question 15

Which is the most significant risk associated with KYC requirements being considered a low priority not designed into processes and subsequently implemented after the products are already launched?

Options:

A.

Product launches may not be adequately prepared.

B.

Client experience improves as accounts can be opened more quickly.

C.

Product launches will motivate frontline to get more customers.

D.

Frontline will not complete adequate CDD.

Question 16

The mam characteristics of an AML program testing are:

Options:

A.

tailored and risk-based.

B.

standard and focused.

C.

innovative and evaluative.

D.

remedial and interdependent.

Question 17

Audits are designed to provide assurance that what key aspect of risk management framework is adequately designed and functioning effectively?

Options:

A.

Procedures

B.

Controls

C.

Reporting

D.

Risks

Question 18

What should the auditor look for to assess the adequacy of controls for non-profit organizations that are vulnerable to terrorist financing (TF) abuse? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Ongoing due diligence on the business relationship and scrutiny of transactions undertaken throughout the course of that relationship

B.

Exploitation of legitimate entities as conduits for TF for the purpose of escaping asset-freezing measures

C.

Concealing of the secretive diversion of funds intended for legitimate purposes to terrorist organizations

D.

Testing of the customer's identifying information using reliable and independent source documents

E.

The overall volume of cash deposit reporting for the quarter

Question 19

Suspicious activity report testing in the last three audits did not identify any metrics to indicate that volume vanes dramatically each month. Which step should the auditor take next?

Options:

A.

Assign to continuous monitoring.

B.

Include the lack of metrics as a deficiency in the reporting.

C.

Escalate the finding regarding the lack of metrics to the board of directors.

D.

Review within the IT audit.

Question 20

Which is considered a minimum requirement in a customer identification program?

Options:

A.

Transaction reporting procedures used to report suspicious transactions to the regulator

B.

Transaction monitoring procedures that specify the information that will be retained in each transaction

C.

Account opening procedures that specify the information that will be obtained from each customer

D.

Customer enhanced due diligence procedures used to identify unusual transactions

Question 21

The standard audit report format requires that an executive summary of the findings is included. Which statement is most appropriate for summarizing detailed findings'?

Options:

A.

Although the evidence of enhanced due diligence performed was not available audit was satisfied that the risk of higher risk clients has been appropriately mitigated.

B.

Deletion of transaction records for completed occasional transactions is operationally an efficient practice.

C.

The dealers have assured they are able to identify long-standing regular clients that are typically collectors and customers for occasional transactions.

D.

Evidence indicated inconsistent application of the client risk rating procedures and lack of evidence of enhanced due diligence measures for higher risk clients.

Question 22

Which is a true statement about the computer-assisted audit tool (CAAT)?

Options:

A.

Both CAAT and traditional methods of auditing allow auditors to build conclusions based upon a limited sample of a population.

B.

KYC data that have been incorporated into the warehouse could still be changed if need be from using CAAT.

C.

Auditors using CAAT could have all customer addresses from the past 10 years while auditors using traditional methods of auditing could only have a sample of these customer addresses.

D.

CAAT cannot be customized to scrutinize huge volumes of data and produce specific procedures that could replace the requirement for the auditor's own procedures.

Question 23

Which finding must be first remediated in order to understand is risks the organization is exposed to?

Options:

A.

Finding 1

B.

Finding 3

C.

Finding 5

D.

Finding 8

Question 24

When testing the operational effectiveness of an institution's customer risk rating model an auditor finds that the risk rating is not in accordance with the model specification in some cases.After interviewing developers andofficers,the auditor learns the specification document is inaccurate and has not been updated in a timely manner.Which are appropriate corrective action plans'? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Alert the person incharge of releasing the model that me release must comply with the specifications.

B.

Check periodically if released rules are operating as per the specifications.

C.

Set up a checkpoint before release to make sure that the release is in accordance with the specifications.

D.

Tram KYC personnel to recognize errors in the customer risk rating model.

E.

Report this matter to the board of directors.

Question 25

During the ongoing due diligence process the company becomes aware that the customer is holding personal assets for a politically exposed person (PEP). What should the auditor recommend to enhance the control environment for this customer relationship? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

File a suspicious activity report as the previous riskrating was not correct.

B.

Deploy automated monitoring toots to efficiently peruse the customer's KYC information and assure that the customer's KYC risk rating is correct.

C.

Designate the account as a PEP-account.

D.

Conduct enhanced due diligence and enhanced ongoing monitoring of the customer relationship.

E.

Review and document the details of the customer s asset-holding arrangement.

F.

Review the customer risk profile every two years as with any other customers.

Question 26

An audit determines that an important control is not being performed. The operational manager responds to the audit comment stating that they do not have adequate resources in the department to accomplish this task. The audit item discussion between the auditor and the operational manager is a(n):

Options:

A.

general license authorizing a transaction for an entity, and a specific license authorizing a transaction for an individual.

B.

internal control test.

C.

sustainability assessment.

D.

root cause analysis

Question 27

Which scenarios should be used to monitor for potential elder abuse? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Scenarios 1

B.

Scenarios 2

C.

Scenarios 5

D.

Scenarios 7

E.

Scenarios 8

Page: 1 / 9
Total 90 questions