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ACFE CFE-Law Dumps

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Total 212 questions

Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) - Law Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is a red flag that might be indicative of an entity operating a security business without the proper license or registration?

Options:

A.

There are justified gaps in the work history of promoters at the entity.

B.

The entity is known to have a history of regulatory problems.

C.

There is a lack of customer complaints against the entity.

D.

The entity ' s website contains detailed background information.

Question 2

Nora, a health care provider b convicted of health care fraud in criminal court After her conviction, the national health agency begins a proceeding to prohibit Nora from seeking reimbursement from government health care programs for five years Which type of administrative penalty is the national health agency seeking?

Options:

A.

License suspension

B.

Debarment

C.

License revocation

D.

Disenfranchisement

Question 3

Each day, Rachel purchases $14 500 in bearer instruments with cash from a bank where all currency transactions above 515,000 must be reported to the government Rachets actions are a red flag of which of the following schemes ' ?

Options:

A.

Channel stuffing

B.

Alternative remittance system

C.

Structuring

D.

Real estate laundering

Question 4

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about the litigation privilege in common law jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

The primary purpose of the litigation privilege is to protect confidential communications between a client and the client ' s legal representative

B.

The litigation privilege only protects documents and materials prepared by an attorney

C.

The litigation privilege applies only while a trial is underway

D.

The litigation privilege applies only to documents and materials prepared in anticipation of litigation

Question 5

Which of the following statements regarding the qualifications of expert witnesses in most adversarial jurisdictions is correct?

Options:

A.

The qualification of an expert is primarily based on educational accomplishments.

B.

An expert is not qualified to testify unless all parties involved in the litigation approve.

C.

Certification in a specific field is not usually a factor that would help qualify an expert.

D.

A person can be qualified to testify based on special training or experience.

Question 6

Cora, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE), wants to ensure that the authenticity of the evidence she collected during her investigation is not compromised. Her main objective should be to:

Options:

A.

Only release the evidence to the judge who will be presiding over the case.

B.

Establish a clear chain of custody to show that the evidence has not been changed.

C.

Require opposing parties to present a court order to access any physical evidence.

D.

Prevent all other parties from obtaining physical control of the evidence.

Question 7

A company files a civil lawsuit against one of its directors for insider trading. At the end of the trial, a court orders the director to refrain from purchasing or obtaining the stock of a particular corporation. Which of the following BEST describes this type of remedy?

Options:

A.

Punitive damages

B.

Declaratory relief

C.

Injunction

D.

Monetary relief

Question 8

__________ insurance is a type of insurance under which an insured entity is covered against losses caused by the dishonest or fraudulent acts of its employees.

Options:

A.

Fidelity

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Opportunity

D.

Residual risk

Question 9

The MOST COMMON bankruptcy fraud scheme is:

Options:

A.

Forged filing

B.

A planned bustcut

C.

A credit card bustout

D.

Concealment of assets

Question 10

During a trial in an adversarial system an attorney calls an expert witness to the stand and asks " Could you please describe the procedures you performed in your examination? ' ' Based on this question, which type of testimony is MOST LIKELY being presented ' ?

Options:

A.

Impeachment

B.

Direct exam Ml mi

C.

Cross-examination

D.

Request for admission

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the European Union ' s (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)?

Options:

A.

An organization must delete a data subject ' s personal data automatically when the data are no longer m use.

B.

An organization must have a documented lawful basis for collecting or processing personal data.

C.

An organization generally must notify all affected data subjects without undue delay when a high-risk data breach occurs

D.

An organization must confirm or deny that it possesses a data subject ' s personal data upon that individual ' s request

Question 12

Which of the following, if available, would help an organization recover losses from an instance of internal fraud?

Options:

A.

Privilege insurance

B.

Customer liability policy

C.

Fidelity insurance

D.

Deposition

Question 13

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about the different types of alternative dispute resolution ' ?

Options:

A.

The agreements reached in mediations are generally nonbinding.

B.

In a mediation session, the mediator decides who should win the dispute at issue

C.

The decisions reached in all arbitrations are always binding

D.

In an arbitration proceeding the arbitrator acts as a judge or jury by deciding the dispute at issue on its merits

Question 14

Tatiana is the chief executive officer (CEO) of Mattress World Warehouse, a retail mattress store that has been struggling financially A week before Mattress World Warehouse files for bankruptcy Tatiana sets ten mattresses to her husband at 80% below market value Which type of fraud scheme has Tatiana MOST LIKELY committed?

Options:

A.

A fraudulent bankruptcy

B.

A fraudulent conveyance

C.

A planned bustout

D.

A concealed transfer

Question 15

Bob owns a struggling business called Luxury Rentals that has ten luxury vehicles. A week before Luxury Rentals files for bankruptcy, Bob transfers ownership of one of the vehicles to his wife. Which type of fraud scheme has Bob most likely committed?

Options:

A.

A fraudulent conveyance

B.

A fraudulent bankruptcy

C.

A concealed transfer

D.

A planned bustout

Question 16

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the litigation privilege in common law jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

The litigation privilege only protects documents and materials prepared in anticipation of litigation.

B.

The litigation privilege only protects documents and materials prepared after litigation commences.

C.

The litigation privilege does not protect documents and materials prepared by third-party agents, such as fraud examiners.

D.

The primary purpose of the litigation privilege is to protect confidential communications between a client and the client ' s legal representative.

Question 17

Which of the following is an element that must be proven to establish a perjury offense?

Options:

A.

The defendant made a false statement in a court of law.

B.

The defendant made a false statement that influenced the fact finder’s decision.

C.

The defendant made a false statement to a judge.

D.

The defendant made a false statement that was material to the proceeding.

Question 18

Which of the following statements concerning examinations of expert witnesses in most inquisitorial jurisdictions is accurate?

Options:

A.

The parties determine the scope of the expert’s testimony and the expert’s authority to access certain items of evidence.

B.

Only the judge is permitted to question the expert’s methods or analysis.

C.

The parties are usually allowed to raise objections regarding the expert’s biases.

D.

Both the judge and the parties determine how much consideration should be given to the expert’s testimony.

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT a right of the accused under the United Nations ' (UN) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)?

Options:

A.

Right of the accused to be informed of criminal charges

B.

Right to be presumed innocent until proven guilty

C.

Right to a trial by jury

D.

Freedom from arbitrary arrests

Question 20

Which of the following statements concerning judgments involving parties that are in multiple jurisdictions is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Whether a foreign judgment is enforceable is not affected by the law where the judgment is enforced.

B.

Whether a foreign judgment is enforceable always depends on where the defendant ' s assets are located.

C.

If a party obtains a judgment against a defendant in one jurisdiction, then that judgment is effective automatically and recognized in all jurisdictions throughout the world.

D.

If a party obtains a judgment against a defendant in one jurisdiction, then that judgment might not be effective in other jurisdictions where the defendant resides.

Question 21

Which of the following statements is MOST ACCURATE regarding cross-examination of witnesses in adversarial systems?

Options:

A.

If opposing counsel asks an overly complex question during cross-examination, witnesses should ask for the question to be rephrased

B.

If an expert witness ' s opinion is at risk of being distorted during cross-examination, the expert should avoid answering the question

C.

The primary purpose of cross-examination is for opposing counsel to discover information previously unknown to opposing counsel.

D.

The general rule is for opposing counsel to cross-examine all witnesses to ensure that important details are not missed by the fact finder

Question 22

Before her criminal trial for embezzlement Monique contacts witnesses against her and offers to pay them if they change their stories Based on her actions the government would MOST LIKELY bring additional charges against Monique for:

Options:

A.

Obstruction of justice

B.

Fraudulent misrepresentation

C.

Conspiracy to influence the court

D.

Judicial extortion

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT an element that is generally required to establish a claim alleging the common law civil wrong for intentional infliction of emotional distress?

Options:

A.

The victim ' s distress occurred for at least two years.

B.

The victim suffered distress due to the defendant ' s conduct.

C.

The defendant engaged in extreme and outrageous conduct.

D.

The defendant acted intentionally or recklessly.

Question 24

Which of the following examples of judicial systems would BEST be described as a civil law system?

Options:

A.

The courts are allowed to consider both codified statutes and previous court decisions but are bound by neither

B.

The courts are bound by both previous court decisions and codified principles or statutes

C.

The courts are bound primarily by previous court decisions to reserve legal issues

D.

The courts are bound by codified principles or statures but are not bound by previous court decisions

Question 25

Leslie, a business owner, submits tax information regarding her company ' s finances to her country ' s taxing authority. The taxing authority allows companies to subtract the cost of production from their gross sales to determine the taxable income. To reduce her tax liability, Leslie inflates the costs of production on her tax forms. Which of the following schemes has Leslie MOST LIKELY committed?

Options:

A.

A value-added tax evasion scheme

B.

A falsified tax deduction scheme

C.

A sales tax scheme

D.

A tax credit evasion scheme

Question 26

Which of the following is required for a contract, transaction, or scheme to qualify as an investment contract?

Options:

A.

The investment must not have been made with expectations of making a profit.

B.

The investment must be made in cash.

C.

The investment is in a common enterprise.

D.

The investment activity is managed solely by the efforts of the investor and no others.

Question 27

Which of the following statements concerning the appointment of expert witnesses at that is accurate?

Options:

A.

Generally, the court appoints the primary expert witnesses in inquisitorial jurisdictions.

B.

Generally, only the parties may select expert witnesses in inquisitional jurisdictions.

C.

Generally the court selects the primary expert witnesses in adversarial jurisdictions.

D.

Generally, only the parties may select experts to introduce testimony in adversarial jurisdictions

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT an element generally required to establish a claim alleging the common law civil wrong for intentional infliction of emotional distress?

Options:

A.

The defendant acted intentionally or recklessly

B.

The victim was an employee of the defendant

C.

The victim suffered distress as a result of the defendants conduct

D.

The defendant engaged in extreme and outrageous conduct

Question 29

Which of the following statements about the different types of alternative dispute resolutions is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

In a mediation session, the mediator tries to help the parties reach a settlement.

B.

In an arbitration proceeding, the arbitrator tries to help the parties reach a settlement.

C.

In an arbitration proceeding that is nonbinding, issues are final and cannot later be determined by a court in a trial.

D.

In a mediation session, the mediator decides the outcome of a case by deciding who should win the dispute.

Question 30

Which of the following situations would constitute a violation of the US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA)

Options:

A.

A private U.S company pays a S2.000 foreign corporation fee that is required in order to do business within the country

B.

A private UK company transfers $25,000 to a Chilean public official to influence the award of lucrative overseas contracts.

C.

A private U S company transfers $45,000 to a foreign official to influence the award of a public construction contract.

D.

A private U.S company transfers $100,000 to the sole proprietor of a Brazilian company to influence the award of a commercial imports contract.

Question 31

The same customer comes into a casino each day and deposits a large amount of cash into an account but after very little gambling the customer withdraws the funds The casino employees suspect that the customer may be engaged in money laundering activity Assuming that the anti-money laundering (AML) regulations that govern the casino’s activities correspond to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations the casino:

Options:

A.

May, but is not required to file a report of suspicious transactions related to possible money laundering with appropriate authorities

B.

May not file a report of suspicious transactions related to potential criminal activity with appropriate authorities

C.

Is required to file a report of suspicious transactions with appropriate authorities because the employees suspect money laundering violations

D.

Is required to file a cash transaction report for possible criminal activity with appropriate authorities because cash was involved

Question 32

A business files for bankruptcy with the goal of obtaining relief from creditors so that it can rearrange its financial affairs and continue as a going concern. Which of the following describes this type of bankruptcy proceeding?

Options:

A.

Reorganization bankruptcy

B.

Debt adjustment bankruptcy

C.

Debt dismissal bankruptcy

D.

Liquidation bankruptcy

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a legal element that must be shown to prove a claim for fraudulent misrepresentation of material facts?

Options:

A.

The victim relied on the misrepresentation

B.

The defendant acted negligently

C.

The defendant made a false statement (i, e., a misrepresentation of fact)

D.

The victim suffered damages as a result of the misrepresentation

Question 34

In most civil law systems, which of the following parties typically serves as the fact finder in criminal proceedings?

Options:

A.

judge

B.

A jury

C.

A panel comprised of laypersons

D.

A panel of court-appointed attorneys

Question 35

When perpetrating a bustout scheme, an individual or business typically performs which of the following actions?

Options:

A.

Files a bankruptcy petition under the name of an uninvolved person

B.

Obtains a business insurance policy using illicit assets

C.

Uses credit to purchase a considerable amount of goods

D.

Colludes with inventory suppliers to conceal assets

Question 36

IBC Manufacturing is a private company in a jurisdiction in which the public has the legal right to be free from unreasonable search and seizure by government authorities. An investigator at IBC searches the desk of Denise an IBC employee and finds illegal narcotics. The investigator seizes the narcotics and turns them over to members of law enforcement. The investigator violated Denises rights by failing to obtain a search warrant before conducting the search

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 37

Ethan a U S resident, is running a Ponzi scheme As part of the scheme, he uses the U S mail system to send promotional materials to potential victims in France If the US government decides to prosecute Ethan, which of the following would provide the MOST LIKELY basis for the charges?

Options:

A.

Mail fraud

B.

Wire fraud

C.

Insider trading fraud

D.

Communications fraud

Question 38

Which of the following is generally one of the goals of deferred prosecution agreements?

Options:

A.

To help reduce the risk of future illegal practices by an organization accused of misconduct.

B.

To save trial resources by getting the defendant to plead guilty to a less serious offense.

C.

To postpone prosecution until a company conducts an adequate internal investigation.

D.

To increase the likelihood of conviction if a company is accused of subsequent misconduct.

Question 39

Allison works for a government contractor She informs the government that her employer has been submitting false claims to the government for payment Later it is discovered that Allison has misappropriated more than $50,000 of her employer ' s money Alison qualifies as a whistleblower entitled to anti-retaliation protection under the law because of her report to the government Which of the following statements about Allison is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Allison cannot be fired for misappropriating funds from her employer

B.

Allison cannot be fired for any reason

C.

Alison cannot be fired for informing the government of her employee’s fraud

D.

None of the above

Question 40

Before Monique’s criminal trial for embezzlement, she contacts witnesses against her and offers to pay them if they change their stories regarding the embezzlement. Monique’s actions would MOST LIKELY cause the government to bring additional charges against her for:

Options:

A.

Obstruction of justice

B.

Conspiracy to influence the court

C.

Fraudulent misrepresentation

D.

Judicial extortion

Question 41

Which of the following is true regarding the authentication of evidence in most common law systems?

Options:

A.

The purpose of authentication is to show that the evidence is what the party claims it is.

B.

Digital records cannot be authenticated through a written certification by the custodian of records.

C.

For evidence to be authenticated, it must be reviewed and voted on by a jury.

D.

A party can introduce authenticated exhibits as evidence at trial even if the items are not relevant.

Question 42

Which of the following statements concerning money services businesses (MSBs) is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

MSBs tend to have a tower money laundering risk than other financial institutions.

B.

MSBs are generally less strictly regulated than traditional financial institutions.

C.

A check cashing company is classified as an MSB.

D.

A currency exchange is classified as an MSB.

Question 43

Greta obtained money from illegal activities, which she deposited into a domestic bank account. Next, she moved the funds to several foreign accounts in the form of fake loans and transactions to make the audit trail difficult to follow. Finally, she transferred the funds back to a domestic account that she controlled and then spent the money. In which of the following stages of money laundering did Greta engage when she first deposited the money into a domestic account?

Options:

A.

Integration

B.

Placement

C.

Implementation

D.

Layering

Question 44

Which of the following statements concerning alternative remittance systems is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

The systems are not necessarily illegal.

B.

Funds are sent and received without the use of traditional financial institutions.

C.

The systems are characterized by a lack of physical or digital transfer of currency between payers and payees.

D.

The ledgers used typically contain information regarding payers and payees, such as names and account numbers.

Question 45

Which of the following typically does NOT have to be present for communications between an attorney and the attorney ' s client to be protected by a legal professional privilege?

Options:

A.

Purpose of the communications was to seek or provide legal advice

B.

A lawsuit has been filed

C.

Intent to keep the communications confidential

D.

Communication between a legal advisor and a client

Question 46

Cindi, a U.S. resident, is conducting an advance-fee fraud scheme. As part of the scheme, Cindi uses the U.S. mail system to send advertisements to potential victims in China. If the U.S. government prosecutes Cindi, which of the following would most likely be the basis for the charges?

Options:

A.

Wire fraud

B.

Mail fraud

C.

Communications fraud

D.

Interstate fraud

Question 47

Which of the following statements about the appeals process in cranial cases is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

In common law jurisdictions, appellate courts are generally not permitted to make their own factual determinations when reviewing a case

B.

In civil law jurisdictions appellate courts are generally not permitted to make their own legal conclusions when reviewing a case

C.

Appellate courts will usually hear an appeal even if the petition was not filed in a timely manner

D.

Appellate courts will usually reverse a conviction even if the trial court ' s error did not affect the outcome of the case

Question 48

Robert, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE), wants to ensure that the authenticity of the evidence he collected during his investigation is not compromised. His main objective should be to:

Options:

A.

Limit access to the evidence to judicial officials prior to trial proceedings.

B.

Prevent all other parties from obtaining physical control of the evidence.

C.

Establish a clear chain of custody to show that the evidence has not been altered.

D.

Only alter or materially change the evidence himself if absolutely necessary.

Question 49

Nancy is testifying as an expert witness during cross-examination. The questioning party asks Nancy whether she agrees with questions involving basic facts of the case to which both parties have already agreed. Nancy says she agrees with all the questions. Which of the following best describes the questioning party’s method?

Options:

A.

Myopic vision

B.

Sounding board

C.

Contradiction

D.

Bias

Question 50

Evidence that tends to make some fact that is in dispute more or less likely than it would be without the evidence is called:

Options:

A.

Circumstantial evidence

B.

Relevant evidence

C.

Testamentary evidence

D.

Demonstrative evidence

Question 51

In most countries employers must provide notice to their employees before they implement an employee monitoring program

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 52

Which of the following is a red flag that an entity is operating a security business without the proper license or registration?

Options:

A.

The entity ' s website contains detailed background information.

B.

There is an unexplained absence of customer complaints against the entity.

C.

There are justified gaps in the work history of promoters at the entity

D.

The agents working at the entity have criminal records.

Question 53

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding criminal proceedings and discovery in adversarial jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Most criminal proceedings are divided into pretrial, investigative and trial phases

B.

Parties typically cannot request evidence from each other until after the trial begins.

C.

The majority of criminal discovery usually occurs before the trial begins.

D.

The judge is the primary driver of the discovery process in criminal proceedings.

Question 54

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about serf-regulatory organizations (SROs) in the securities industry?

Options:

A.

An SRO generally has sole regulatory authority over the securities industry in the jurisdiction in which it operates

B.

In most jurisdictions. SROs are prohibited from participating in the resolution of disputes related to securities transactions

C.

An SRO is a governmental entity that exercises regulatory authority over the securities industry in its jurisdiction

D.

In some jurisdictions SROs establish the standards and rules under which members of the securities industry operate

Question 55

The MAIN PURPOSE for maintaining the chain of custody on an item of evidence is to

Options:

A.

Establish that the evidence has not been altered or changed from the time it was collected through its production in court

B.

Verify that the item of evidence has only been handled by court officials prior to its production m court.

C.

event opposing parties from accessing evidence without a court order

D.

Eliminate re need to authenticate the item of evidence in court

Question 56

All of the following are common legal defenses for tax evasion EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Mental illness of the taxpayer

B.

Death of the taxpayer

C.

The taxpayer s reliance on an attorney or accountant

D.

The actions were tax avoidance not tax evasion

Question 57

Company A sued Company B to recover damages tor the breach of a contract. In the same proceeding Company B sought damages for an allegation that Company A fraudulently induced Company B into entering the contract In this case what would Company B ' s claim against Company A be called?

Options:

A.

Cross-claim

B.

Collateral attack

C.

Reversal

D.

Counterclaim

Question 58

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations suggest that countries should do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Use a risk-based approach when creating and establishing their anti-money laundering policies.

B.

Require financial institutions to monitor their customers ' social media activity for signs of money laundering.

C.

Only conduct business with other countries that comply with the anti-money laundering recommendations.

D.

Impose a sentence of five years of imprisonment for all money laundering and terrorist financing convictions.

Question 59

Lorna is an employee at Victorian Inc., a private company in a jurisdiction in which the public has the legal right to be free from unreasonable search and seizure by government authorities. Management suspects that Lorna is misappropriating funds from the company, so it instructs Charlie, an investigator employed by Victorian, to search Lorna’s company-issued laptop. Charlie finds incriminating evidence on Lorna’s laptop and gives it to law enforcement. However, by failing to obtain a search warrant before conducting his search, Charlie violated Lorna’s rights.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 60

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about the circumstances under which a conflict of interest claim would be actionable against an agent?

Options:

A.

The agent must have purported to act on behalf of or as an agent for an identified principal

B.

The agent must have had an undisclosed interest m a matter that could influence their professional role

C.

The agent must have informed the principal of their actions

D.

The agent must have been authorized by someone with actual authority to carry out the transaction at issue

Question 61

Each of the following is a common legal defense for tax evasion EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The taxpayer relied on an attorney or accountant.

B.

The taxpayer has filed for bankruptcy.

C.

The taxpayer has a mental illness.

D.

There is no tax deficiency.

Question 62

Which of the following choices is a method of pretrial civil discovery that is often found in common law jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Injunctions

B.

Production writs

C.

Indictments

D.

Affidavits of documents

Question 63

In systems using adversarial processes, an attorney may impeach an opposing party ' s witness by showing that the witness:

Options:

A.

Testified from personal knowledge

B.

Has a reputation for being truthful

C.

Made prior inconsistent statements

D.

Possesses a strong ability to observe

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Total 212 questions