BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles V9.0 Questions and Answers
For which security-related reason SHOULD staff monitoring critical CCTV systems be rotated regularly during each work session?
Options:
To reduce the chance of collusion between security staff and those being monitored.
To give experience to monitoring staff across a range of activities for training purposes.
Health and Safety regulations demand that staff are rotated to prevent posture and vision related harm.
The human attention span during intense monitoring sessions is about 20 minutes.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Regular rotation of staff monitoring critical CCTV systems is recommended primarily to address the limitations of the human attention span. Research suggests that the average human attention span during intense monitoring tasks is approximately 20 minutes. After this period, vigilance and alertness can significantly decrease, leading to a potential lapse in monitoring effectiveness. Rotating staff helps to ensure that individuals are always at their most attentive when observing the CCTV feeds, which is crucial for maintaining security and safety standards. This practice also helps to mitigate risks associated with fatigue and the potential for missing critical events or details.
References: = The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles emphasizes the importance of procedural/people security controls, which includes the management of human factors in security monitoring. The principles suggest that understanding human behavior and limitations is key to designing effective security systems and protocols12.
Select the document that is MOST LIKELY to contain direction covering the security and utilisation of all an organisation's information and IT equipment, as well as email, internet and telephony.
Options:
Cryptographic Statement.
Security Policy Framework.
Acceptable Usage Policy.
Business Continuity Plan.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The Acceptable Usage Policy (AUP) is the document most likely to contain directives on the security and utilization of an organization’s information and IT equipment, including email, internet, and telephony. An AUP outlines the acceptable and unacceptable behaviors for users of the organization’s IT systems and services. It typically includes rules and guidelines on the proper use of IT resources, security practices, and the consequences of non-compliance. The AUP is designed to protect both the organization and its users by mitigating risks associated with the misuse of IT resources and ensuring that the use of these resources aligns with the organization’s security policies and objectives123.
References := The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles discusses the importance of having clear policies and procedures in place to manage information security risks, including the development and enforcement of an Acceptable Usage Policy1. This is further supported by industry best practices andguidelines on information security management, such as those provided by IT governance experts and ISO standards23.
Which of the following types of organisation could be considered the MOST at risk from the theft of electronic based credit card data?
Options:
Online retailer.
Traditional market trader.
Mail delivery business.
Agricultural producer.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Online retailers are the most at risk for the theft of electronic-based credit card data due to the nature of their business, which involves processing a large volume of transactions over the internet. This exposes them to various cyber threats, includinghacking, phishing, and other forms of cyber-attacks that can compromise credit card information. Traditional market traders, mail delivery businesses, and agricultural producers typically do not handle credit card transactions to the same extent or in the same electronic manner as online retailers, making them less likely targets for this specific type of data theft.
The principles of Information Security Management emphasize the importance of protecting sensitive data, such as credit card information, through technical security controls and risk management practices. Online retailers must implement robust security measures, including encryption, secure payment gateways, and regular security audits, to mitigate the risks associated with electronic transactions12.
References :=
- BCS Information Security Management Principles, particularly the sections on Technical Security Controls and Information Risk, provide guidance on protecting electronic data and managing the associated risks1.
- Additional insights can be found in the Information Security Management Principles, 3rd Edition by Andy Taylor, David Alexander, Amanda Finch, David Sutton2.
What does a penetration test do that a Vulnerability Scan does NOT?
Options:
A penetration test seeks to actively exploit any known or discovered vulnerabilities.
A penetration test looks for known vulnerabilities and reports them without further action.
A penetration test is always an automated process - a vulnerability scan never is.
A penetration test never uses common tools such as Nrnap, Nessus and Metasploit.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A penetration test, unlike a vulnerability scan, is an in-depth process where security professionals actively attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in a system. The goal is to simulate a real-world attack to understand how an attacker could exploit vulnerabilities and to determine the potential impact. This involves not just identifying vulnerabilities, as a scan does, but also attempting to exploit them to understand the full extent of the risk. Penetration tests are typically manual or semi-automated and involve a variety of tools and techniques to uncover and exploit security weaknesses, which can include common tools like Nmap, Nessus, and Metasploit.
References: The distinction between penetration testing and vulnerability scanning is well-documented in cybersecurity literature and aligns with industry best practices. Penetration testing is a critical component of an organization’s security strategy, providing a realistic assessment of security defenses12
Which of the following is an accepted strategic option for dealing with risk?
Options:
Correction.
Detection.
Forbearance.
Acceptance
Answer:
DExplanation:
In the context of Information Security Management Principles, risk acceptance is a strategic option where an organization decides to accept the potential cost of a risk without taking any actions to mitigate it. This decision is typically made when the cost ofmitigating the risk exceeds the cost of the risk’s potential impact. Acceptance is part of the risk management process, which also includes risk identification, assessment, and treatment. When accepting a risk, it is crucial to document the decision and the rationale behind it, ensuring that it aligns with the organization’s risk appetite and overall security policy.
References := The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles outlines the need for an understanding of risk management within the scope of information security management. It emphasizes the importance of recognizing the various strategic options for dealing with risks, including acceptance12. Additionally, industry standards like ISO 27001 provide guidance on risk treatment options, including acceptance3.
Which term is used to describe the set of processes that analyses code to ensure defined coding practices are being followed?
Options:
Quality Assurance and Control
Dynamic verification.
Static verification.
Source code analysis.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Static verification refers to the set of processes that analyze code without executing it to ensure that defined coding practices are being followed. This method involves reviewing the code to detect errors, enforce coding standards, and identify security vulnerabilities. It is a crucial part of the software development lifecycle and helps maintain code quality and reliability. Static verification can be performed manually through code reviews or automatically using static analysis tools.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles includes the understanding of technical security controls, which encompasses static verification as a means to ensure the integrity and security of software code1.
Which of the following uses are NOT usual ways that attackers have of leveraging botnets?
Options:
Generating and distributing spam messages.
Conducting DDOS attacks.
Scanning for system & application vulnerabilities.
Undertaking vishing attacks
Answer:
DExplanation:
Botnets are typically used by attackers for a variety of malicious activities, most commonly for:
- Generating and distributing spam messages: Botnets can send out large volumes of spam emails to promote products or services, or to distribute malware.
- Conducting DDoS attacks: Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks are often carried out using botnets to overwhelm a target’s servers with traffic.
- Scanning for system & application vulnerabilities: Botnets can be used to scan a large number of systems for vulnerabilities that can be exploited in further attacks.
However, vishing attacks, which involve voice phishing through phone calls, are not commonly associated with the use of botnets. Vishing typically involves direct voice communication to trick individuals into divulging sensitive information and does not leverage the distributed computing power of botnets, which is central to their usual applications such as spam distribution, DDoS attacks, and vulnerability scanning123.
References: The answer is informed by the common uses of botnets as outlined in various cybersecurity resources, including the BCS Information Security Management Principles, which emphasize the importance of understanding botnet capabilities in the context of information security management12
In software engineering, what does 'Security by Design” mean?
Options:
Low Level and High Level Security Designs are restricted in distribution.
All security software artefacts are subject to a code-checking regime.
The software has been designed from its inception to be secure.
All code meets the technical requirements of GDPR.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Security by Design’ in software engineering refers to the practice of integrating security measures into the software development process from the very beginning. This approach ensures that security is not an afterthought but a fundamental component of the system’s architecture and design. It involves continuous testing, authentication safeguards, and adherence to best programming practices to make systems as free of vulnerabilities and impervious to attack as possible1. By incorporating security early in the design process, potential flaws can be identified and mitigated early on, significantly reducing the cost and complexity of addressing security issues later in the development lifecycle23.
References: The concept of ‘Security by Design’ is well-documented in software engineering literature and aligns with the principles outlined in the BCS Information Security Management Principles, which advocate for proactive and integrated security measures throughout the software development process231.
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be described as a consequential loss?
Options:
Reputation damage.
Monetary theft.
Service disruption.
Processing errors.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Consequential loss in the context of information security refers to secondary or indirect damage that occurs as a result of a primary event or incident. It is not the immediate direct loss, such as theft of money or service disruption, but rather the subsequent impact that may not be immediately apparent. Reputation damage is a prime example of consequential loss because it is a secondary effect that can occur after a security breach or incident. The loss of trust by customers, partners, and stakeholders can have long-term negative effects on a business’s financial health and market position. This type of loss is often more significant and lasting than the immediate direct costs associated with an incident.
References: The understanding of consequential loss aligns with the principles outlined in the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles, which emphasizes the importance of considering both direct and indirect impacts of security incidents12.
Which security concept provides redundancy in the event a security control failure or the exploitation of a vulnerability?
Options:
System Integrity.
Sandboxing.
Intrusion Prevention System.
Defence in depth.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Defence in depth is a security concept that involves implementing multiple layers of security controls throughout an information system. The idea is that if one control fails or a vulnerability is exploited, other controls will provide redundancy and continue to protect the system. This approach is analogous to a physical fortress with multiple walls; if an attacker breaches one wall, additional barriers exist to stop them from progressing further. In the context of information security, this could include a combination of firewalls, intrusion detection systems, antivirus software, and strict access controls, among others. Defence in depth is designed to address security vulnerabilities not only in technology but also in processes and people, acknowledging that human error or negligence can often lead to security breaches.
References: The concept of defence in depth aligns with the Information Security Management Principles as outlined by BCS, particularly under the domains of Technical Security Controls and Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Management. It is alsosupported by various industry sources that describe defence in depth as a strategy that leverages multiple security measures to protect an organization’s assets12345.
Online retailers are the most at risk for the theft of electronic-based credit card data due to the nature of their business, which involves processing a large volume of transactions over the internet. This exposes them to various cyber threats, including hacking, phishing, and other forms of cyber-attacks that can compromise credit card information. Traditional market traders, mail delivery businesses, and agricultural producers typically do not handle credit card transactions to the same extent or in the same electronic manner as online retailers, making them less likely targets for this specific type of data theft.
The principles of Information Security Management emphasize the importance of protecting sensitive data, such as credit card information, through technical security controls and risk management practices. Online retailers must implement robust security measures, including encryption, secure payment gateways, and regular security audits, to mitigate the risks associated with electronic transactions12.
References :=
- BCS Information Security Management Principles, particularly the sections on Technical Security Controls and Information Risk, provide guidance on protecting electronic data and managing the associated risks1.
- Additional insights can be found in the Information Security Management Principles, 3rd Edition by Andy Taylor, David Alexander, Amanda Finch, David Sutton2.
The policies, processes, practices, and tools used to align the business value of information with the most appropriate and cost-effective infrastructure from the time information is conceived through its final disposition.
Which of the below business practices does this statement define?
Options:
Information Lifecycle Management.
Information Quality Management.
Total Quality Management.
Business Continuity Management.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The statement defines Information Lifecycle Management (ILM), which is a set of policies, processes, practices, and tools that manage the flow of an organization’s information throughout its life cycle. ILM is concerned with aligning the business value of information with the most appropriate and cost-effective infrastructure from the moment the information is created until its final disposition. This includes how information is created, stored, used, archived, and eventually disposed of. An effective ILM strategy helps organizations manage their data in compliance with business requirements, regulatory obligations, and cost constraints.
References: The definition and explanation of ILM align with the information provided by TechTarget1, which describes ILM as a comprehensive approach to managing an organization’s data and associated metadata. It also matches the insights from Digital Guardian2, which explains that ILM oversees data throughout its lifecycle, optimizing storage systems and lowering associated costs while dealing with security, compliance, and regulatory issues.
What Is the PRIMARY reason for organisations obtaining outsourced managed security services?
Options:
Managed security services permit organisations to absolve themselves of responsibility for security.
Managed security services are a de facto requirement for certification to core security standards such as ISG/IEC 27001
Managed security services provide access to specialist security tools and expertise on a shared, cost-effective basis.
Managed security services are a powerful defence against litigation in the event of a security breach or incident
Answer:
CExplanation:
The primary reason organizations opt for outsourced managed security services is to gain access to specialized security tools and expertise that may not be feasible to maintain in-house due to cost or resource constraints. Managed Security Service Providers (MSSPs) offer a range of security services that can be tailored to an organization’s needs, allowing them to benefit from advanced security measures without the need for significant capital investment or the hiring of specialized staff. This shared service model is cost-effective and enables organizations to focus on their core business activities while ensuring robust security measures are in place. MSSPs can provide continuous monitoring, management of security devices and systems, incident response, and compliance support, which are crucial for maintaining a strong security posture in the face of evolving threats and complex regulatory environments.
References: The answer aligns with the knowledge provided by the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles, which emphasizes the importance of cost-effective access to specialized tools and expertise through managed security services. Additionally, the benefits of MSSPs are supported by industry sources1234.
When undertaking disaster recovery planning, which of the following would NEVER be considered a "natural" disaster?
Options:
Arson.
Electromagnetic pulse
Tsunami.
Lightning Strike
Answer:
AExplanation:
Arson is an act of intentionally setting fire to property for malicious reasons. It is a criminal act and is not classified as a natural disaster. Natural disasters are events that occur due to natural processes of the Earth, such as tsunamis, lightning strikes, and other weather-related events. An electromagnetic pulse can be a natural event if it is caused by solar flares or a man-made event if it is the result of a nuclear explosion. However, arson is always the result of human activity and is not caused by natural processes1.
References := The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles provides a clear understanding of IS management issues, including risk management, security standards, legislation, and business continuity, which are relevant to identifying and classifying the nature of disasters in the context of disaster recovery planning1.
Which of the following is often the final stage in the information management lifecycle?
Options:
Disposal.
Creation.
Use.
Publication.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The final stage in the information management lifecycle is often disposal. This stage involves the secure deletion or destruction of information that is no longer needed or has reached the end of its retention period. Proper disposal is crucial to prevent unauthorized access or recovery of sensitive data. It ensures compliance with data protection regulations and organizational policies regarding the retention and destruction of data.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles highlights the importance of managing information throughout its lifecycle, including the final stage of disposal. This aligns with industry best practices and standards such as ISO/IEC 27001, which includes requirements for the secure disposal of information1. Additionally, the Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) framework also identifies disposal as a key phase, emphasizing the need for policies and procedures to manage the end-of-life of information assets1.
What type of diagram used in application threat modeling includes malicious users as well as descriptions like mitigates and threatens?
Options:
Threat trees.
STRIDE charts.
Misuse case diagrams.
DREAD diagrams.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Misuse case diagrams are a type of diagram used in application threat modeling that includes malicious users (also known as threat actors) and describes how their potential actions could threaten the system, as well as how the system mitigates those threats. These diagrams are an adaptation of use case diagrams, which are commonly used in software engineering to specify the required usages of a system. Misuse case diagrams, on the other hand, focus on the negative scenarios, illustrating how a system can be used improperly and what measures are in place to prevent or mitigate these actions12.
References: The explanation utilizes the knowledge of misuse case diagrams as a tool in threat modeling to understand and communicate about potential security threats12.
Why have MOST European countries developed specific legislation that permits police and security services to monitor communications traffic for specific purposes, such as the detection of crime?
Options:
Under the European Convention of Human Rights, the interception of telecommunications represents an interference with the right to privacy.
GDPR overrides all previous legislation on information handling, so new laws were needed to ensure authorities did not inadvertently break the law.
Police could previously intercept without lawful authority any communications in the course of transmission through a public post or telecoms system.
Surveillance of a conversation or an online message by law enforcement agents was previously illegal due to the 1950 version of the Human Rights Convention.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The European Convention on Human Rights (ECHR) protects the right to privacy, which includes the security of personal data and protection against surveillance1. This right is not absolute and can be limited under certain conditions, such as for the protection of national security or public safety. Most European countries have developed specific legislation that allows police and security services to monitor communications traffic, but this must be done within the boundaries set by the ECHR and subsequent legislation like the GDPR. The GDPR itself does not override the ECHR but complements it by providing detailed regulations on the processing of personal data, including provisions for law enforcement authorities to process data for criminal investigations in a way that respects fundamental rights23.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles emphasizes the importance of understanding legal frameworks like the ECHR and GDPR that impact information security management. These frameworks guide the development of policies and procedures to ensure that the monitoring of communications by law enforcement is conducted lawfully and respects individuals’ right to privacy45. Additionally, the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 in the UK, for example, sets out the legal authority for police to intercept communications, ensuring compliance with the ECHR6.
A security analyst has been asked to provide a triple A service (AAA) for both wireless and remote access network services in an organization and must avoid using proprietary solutions.
What technology SHOULD they adapt?
Options:
TACACS+
RADIUS.
Oauth.
MS Access Database.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The AAA service, which stands for Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting, is essential for managing user access to network resources. When it comes to providing AAA services for both wireless and remote access network services in a non-proprietarymanner, RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is the most suitable technology.
RADIUS is an open standard protocol widely used for network access authentication and accounting. It is supported by a variety of network vendors and devices, making it a non-proprietary solution that can be easily integrated into different network environments. RADIUS provides a centralized way to authenticate users, authorize their access levels, and keep track of their activity on the network1.
- TACACS+ is a Cisco proprietary protocol and therefore does not meet the requirement of avoiding proprietary solutions.
- OAuth is a framework for authorization and is not typically used for network access control in the same way that RADIUS is.
- MS Access Database is not a network authentication protocol and would not provide the necessary AAA services for network security.
References: The information provided here is based on the principles of AAA services as outlined in the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles and supported by industry-standard practices for non-proprietary network security solutions.
When seeking third party digital forensics services, what two attributes should one seek when making a choice of service provider?
Options:
Appropriate company accreditation and staff certification.
Formal certification to ISO/IEC 27001 and alignment with ISO 17025.
Affiliation with local law enforcement bodies and local government regulations.
Clean credit references as well as international experience.
Answer:
AExplanation:
When selecting a third-party digital forensics service provider, it is crucial to ensure that the company has the appropriate accreditations and the staff hold relevant certifications. This ensures that the service provider adheres to recognized standards and best practices in digital forensics, which is essential for the integrity and admissibility of evidence. Company accreditation provides assurance that the organization follows industry-recognized quality standards, while staff certification demonstrates that the individuals handling the forensic process are qualified and competent. This combination is vital for maintaining the credibility of the forensic investigation and the security of the data handled.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles emphasizes the importance of management issues, including risk management, security standards, and legislation, which are relevant when considering third-party services1.
What physical security control would be used to broadcast false emanations to mask the presence of true electromagentic emanations from genuine computing equipment?
Options:
Faraday cage.
Unshielded cabling.
Copper infused windows.
White noise generation.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The use of white noise generation is a countermeasure to protect against the threat of eavesdropping on electromagnetic emanations from computing equipment. This method involves broadcasting random electromagnetic signals, which are referred to as‘white noise’, to mask the genuine signals emitted by electronic devices. This makes it significantly more difficult for unauthorized parties to intercept and decipher the information being processed by the genuine equipment.
A Faraday cage (A) is designed to block external electromagnetic fields but does not specifically broadcast false signals to mask emanations. Unshielded cabling (B) would actually increase the risk of emanation interception rather than protect against it. Copper infused windows © can shield against electromagnetic signals but, like the Faraday cage, do not broadcast false emanations.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles outlines the importance of protecting against the leakage of information through electromagnetic emanations and suggests countermeasures like white noise generation as part of physical security controls1.
One traditional use of a SIEM appliance is to monitor for exceptions received via syslog.
What system from the following does NOT natively support syslog events?
Options:
Enterprise Wireless Access Point.
Windows Desktop Systems.
Linux Web Server Appliances.
Enterprise Stateful Firewall.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Syslog is a standard for message logging and allows devices to send event notification messages across IP networks to event message collectors - also known as Syslog servers or SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) systems. Native support for syslog is commonly found in various network devices and Unix/Linux-based systems.
- Enterprise Wireless Access Points, Linux Web Server Appliances, and Enterprise Stateful Firewalls typically have built-in capabilities to generate and send syslog messages to a SIEM system for monitoring and analysis.
- Windows Desktop Systems, on the other hand, do not natively support syslog because Windows uses its own event logging system known as Windows Event Log. While it is possible to configure Windows systems to send logs to a SIEM appliance, this usually requires additional software or agents to translate Windows Event Log messages into syslog format before they can be sent1.
References: The information provided here is based on common knowledge of system logging protocols and SIEM system capabilities, which are part of the foundational knowledge of Information Security Management Principles as outlined by BCS and supported by industry insights12.
Why might the reporting of security incidents that involve personal data differ from other types of security incident?
Options:
Personal data is not highly transient so its 1 investigation rarely involves the preservation of volatile memory and full forensic digital investigation.
Personal data is normally handled on both IT and non-IT systems so such incidents need to be managed in two streams.
Data Protection legislation normally requires the reporting of incidents involving personal data to a Supervisory Authority.
Data Protection legislation is process-oriented and focuses on quality assurance of procedures and governance rather than data-focused event investigation
Answer:
CExplanation:
The reporting of security incidents involving personal data is distinct from other types of incidents primarily due to the legal obligations imposed by data protection legislation. Such laws typically mandate that organizations report certain types of breaches involving personal data to a Supervisory Authority within a specified timeframe. This requirement is in place to ensure prompt and appropriate response to potential privacy risks affecting individuals’ rights and freedoms. Failure to comply can result in significant penalties for the organization. The reporting process also often includes notifying affected individuals, especially if there is a high risk of adverse effects on their rights and freedoms12.
References :=
- The UK GDPR and the Data Protection Act 2018 outline the duty of organizations to report certain personal data breaches to the relevant supervisory authority, such as the ICO, within 72 hours of becoming aware of the breach1.
- The ICO’s guide on personal data breaches provides detailed instructions on how to recognize a breach, the reporting process, and the importance of having robust breach detection, investigation, and internal reporting procedures12.
Which of the following is NOT an information security specific vulnerability?
Options:
Use of HTTP based Apache web server.
Unpatched Windows operating system.
Confidential data stored in a fire safe.
Use of an unlocked filing cabinet.
Answer:
CExplanation:
In the context of information security vulnerabilities, we are typically referring to weaknesses that can be exploited by threats to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an information system. Options A, B, and D all represent potential vulnerabilities:
- A: Use of HTTP for an Apache web server could allow for interception of data due to lack of encryption.
- B: An unpatched Windows operating system could have known security flaws that can be exploited.
- D: An unlocked filing cabinet could lead to unauthorized physical access to sensitive documents.
Option C, however, refers to the storage of confidential data in a fire safe, which is a protective measure rather than a vulnerability. A fire safe is designed to protect physical assets from damage or destruction, particularly in the event of a fire, and does not inherently contain a weakness that could be exploited by a cyber threat. Therefore, it is not considered an information security specific vulnerability.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles provides a framework for understanding the various aspects of information security, including the identification and mitigation of vulnerabilities. The principles outlined in the certification materials emphasize the importance of protecting information assets from a wide range of threats, which includes securing both digital systems and physical data storage12345.
Which of the following cloud delivery models is NOT intrinsically "trusted" in terms of security by clients using the service?
Options:
Public.
Private.
Hybrid.
Community
Answer:
AExplanation:
In the context of cloud delivery models, the term “trusted” typically refers to the level of security control and assurance that clients can expect. Among the options provided, the Public cloud delivery model is generally considered to be the least “trusted” in terms of security by clients using the service. This is because public clouds are shared environments where the infrastructure and services are owned and operated by a third-party provider and shared among multiple tenants. The multi-tenant nature of public clouds can introduce risks such as data breaches or other security incidents that might not be as prevalent in more controlled environments.
In contrast, Private clouds are dedicated to a single organization, providing more control over data, security, and compliance. Hybrid clouds combine both public and private elements, offering a balance of control and flexibility. Community clouds are shared between organizations with common goals and compliance requirements, offering a level of trust tailored to the group’s needs.
Therefore, while all cloud models come with their own security considerations and potential risks, the public cloud model is typically the one where clients have to place more trust in the provider’s security measures, as they have less control over the environment.
References: The information provided here is based on common cloud computing frameworks and security considerations, which are part of the foundational knowledge of Information Security Management Principles as outlined by BCS and supported by industry insights12.
In order to maintain the currency of risk countermeasures, how often SHOULD an organisation review these risks?
Options:
Once defined, they do not need reviewing.
A maximum of once every other month.
When the next risk audit is due.
Risks remain under constant review.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Maintaining the currency of risk countermeasures is a continuous process due to the ever-changing nature of risks. Organizations should regularly review and update their risk assessments and countermeasures to ensure they are effective against current threats. This is because new vulnerabilities can emerge, and threat actors can develop new techniques, making previously effective countermeasures obsolete. Therefore, risks should remain under constant review to adapt to the dynamic security landscape, ensuring that the organization’s security posture is resilient and responsive to new information or changes in the environment.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles emphasizes the importance of ongoing risk management and the need for regular reviews of security controls and countermeasures1. It aligns with best practices in information security management, which advocate for a proactive and adaptive approach to risk management1.
How does the use of a "single sign-on" access control policy improve the security for an organisation implementing the policy?
Options:
Password is better encrypted for system authentication.
Access control logs are centrally located.
Helps prevent the likelihood of users writing down passwords.
Decreases the complexity of passwords users have to remember.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Single sign-on (SSO) is an access control policy that allows users to authenticate with multiple applications and services by logging in only once. This approach improves security by reducing the number of credentials users must manage, which in turn decreases the likelihood of users writing down passwords. When users have to remember multiple complex passwords, they are more likely to write them down, use simple passwords, or repeat the same password across different services, all of which are security risks. SSO simplifies the login process, which can lead to stronger, unique passwords and reduce the risk of password-related breaches.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles provides a comprehensive overview of information security management, including the effectiveness of different types of controls, which supports the understanding of how SSO can enhance an organization’s security posture1.
When an organisation decides to operate on the public cloud, what does it lose?
Options:
The right to audit and monitor access to its information.
Control over Intellectual Property Rights relating to its applications.
Physical access to the servers hosting its information.
The ability to determine in which geographies the information is stored.
Answer:
CExplanation:
When an organization opts for public cloud services, it relinquishes direct control over many aspects of security and privacy. While the cloud service provider maintains the physical servers, the organization loses the ability to physically access these servers. This is a significant shift from traditional on-premises data centers where the organization would have complete control over and access to the physical infrastructure. In the context of the public cloud, the organization must rely on the cloud provider’s security measures and protocols to protect its data. However, it’s important to note that while physical access is lost, cloud providers typically offer robust security features and compliance certifications that can compensate for this loss12.
References: The information provided aligns with the principles outlined in the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles, which emphasizes the importance of understanding the security controls and risks associated with different types of information security management environments3. Additionally, the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) provides guidelines on security and privacy in public cloud computing, which discuss the shared responsibility model and the implications of losing physical control over servers2.
Which of the following is considered to be the GREATEST risk to information systems that results from deploying end-to-end Internet of Things (IoT) solutions?
Options:
Use of 'cheap" microcontroller based sensors.
Much larger attack surface than traditional IT systems.
Use of proprietary networking protocols between nodes.
Use of cloud based systems to collect loT data.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The deployment of end-to-end Internet of Things (IoT) solutions significantly increases the attack surface compared to traditional IT systems. This is due to the vast number of connected devices, each potentially introducing new vulnerabilities. The heterogeneity of these devices, often with varying levels of security, can lead to more entry points for cyberattacks. Additionally, the complexity of managing and securing these numerous devices, especially when they use different communication protocols and standards, exacerbates the risk. Therefore, the expansion of the attack surface is considered the greatest risk because it amplifies the potential for unauthorized access and compromises the integrity, availability, and confidentiality of information systems.
References: = This concept is supported by the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles, which emphasizes the importance of understanding the risks associated with the security of information systems, particularly in the context of emerging technologies like IoT1. Further, industry research and reports highlight the challenges and risks posed by the expanding IoT attack surface23.
What Is the PRIMARY difference between DevOps and DevSecOps?
Options:
Within DevSecOps security is introduced at the end of development immediately prior to deployment.
DevSecOps focuses solely on iterative development cycles.
DevSecOps includes security on the same level as continuous integration and delivery.
DevOps mandates that security is integrated at the beginning of the development lifecycle.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The primary difference between DevOps and DevSecOps lies in the integration of security practices. DevOps is a methodology that emphasizes collaboration between development and operations teams to automate the software development process, including continuous integration (CI) and continuous delivery (CD). However, DevOps does not inherently prioritize security as part of the development process.
DevSecOps, on the other hand, extends the DevOps principles by integrating security into every aspect of the software development lifecycle. This approach is often summarized by the term “shift-left,” which means incorporating security from the beginning and throughout the development process, rather than treating it as an afterthought or a final step before deployment. In DevSecOps, security is considered a shared responsibility among all team members, and it is addressed through continuous security processes that are as integral as CI/CD in the DevOps culture.
References: The distinction between DevOps and DevSecOps is well-documented in various sources that discuss their methodologies and the importance of integrating security into the development lifecycle12345.
What Is the first yet MOST simple and important action to take when setting up a new web server?
Options:
Change default system passwords.
Fully encrypt the hard disk.
Apply hardening to all applications.
Patch the OS to the latest version
Answer:
AExplanation:
Changing default system passwords is a fundamental step in securing a new web server. Default passwords are often well-known and can be easily found in public documentation or through internet searches, making systems with unchanged default passwords highly vulnerable to unauthorized access. By changing these passwords, an administrator immediately reduces the risk of simple, automated attacks that exploit default credentials.
While the other options listed are also important security measures, they are not typically the first action taken. Encrypting the hard disk (B) is a good practice for protecting data at rest, but it does not protect against unauthorized access via default passwords. Hardening applications © and patching the OS (D) are critical for reducing the attack surface and protecting against known vulnerabilities, but they are generally performed after ensuring that the system is not accessible with default passwords.
References: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles emphasizes the importance of initial access control measures, such aschanging default passwords, as part of establishing a secure baseline before implementing further technical controls1.
In a security governance framework, which of the following publications would be at the HIGHEST level?
Options:
Procedures.
Standards
Policy.
Guidelines
Answer:
CExplanation:
In a security governance framework, the policy is typically at the highest level because it defines the overall direction and principles that govern the security posture of an organization. Policies are high-level statements that provide guidance to all members of an organization and form the foundation upon which standards, procedures, and guidelines are built. They are approved by the highest levels of management and are meant to be more stable over time, providing a consistent framework for security across the organization.
References: The information aligns with the principles outlined in the BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles, which emphasizes the importance of policy in establishing the security governance framework. Additionally, sources like the NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) 2.01 and literature on informationsecurity governance234 support the notion that policy is the cornerstone of a security governance framework.