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Checkpoint 156-215.81 Dumps

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Total 400 questions

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 Questions and Answers

Question 1

You have discovered suspicious activity in your network. What is the BEST immediate action to take?

Options:

A.

Create a policy rule to block the traffic.

B.

Create a suspicious action rule to block that traffic.

C.

Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.

D.

Contact ISP to block the traffic.

Question 2

When configuring LDAP with User Directory integration, changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Options:

A.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

B.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

C.

Reflected for ail users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

D.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using that template.

Question 3

Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?

Options:

A.

Application Control rule

B.

Manual NAT rule

C.

IPS bypass rule

D.

Firewall rule

Question 4

Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?

Options:

A.

Active Directory Query

B.

User Directory Query

C.

Account Unit Query

D.

UserCheck

Question 5

You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config -f

C.

save config -o

D.

save configuration

Question 6

In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT ________.

Options:

A.

Upgrade the software version

B.

Open WebUI

C.

Open SSH

D.

Open service request with Check Point Technical Support

Question 7

What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.

B.

Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.

C.

To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

D.

Used to better optimize a policy.

Question 8

You can see the following graphic:

as

What is presented on it?

Options:

A.

Properties of personal. p12 certificate file issued for user John.

B.

Shared secret properties of John’s password.

C.

VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.

D.

Expired. p12 certificate properties for user John.

Question 9

Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Application Control

C.

Anti-spam and Email Security

D.

Anti-Virus

Question 10

By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

Options:

A.

8080

B.

80

C.

4434

D.

443

Question 11

Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

Options:

A.

Gateway and Servers

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Manage Seeting

D.

Security Policies

Question 12

Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

snapshot

C.

Database Revision

D.

migrate export

Question 13

Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Internal Certificate Authority

B.

Token

C.

One-time Password

D.

Certificate

Question 14

How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.

Options:

A.

By using IPSEC

B.

By using SIC

C.

By using ICA

D.

By using 3DES

Question 15

Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?

Options:

A.

Quick Mode Complete

B.

Aggressive Mode Complete

C.

Main Mode Complete

D.

IKE Mode Complete

Question 16

Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

Options:

A.

Log server; Security Gateway

B.

Log server; security management server

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

Question 17

Fill in the blank When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management it is then referred to as_____

Options:

A.

User Center

B.

User Administration

C.

User Directory

D.

UserCheck

Question 18

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

Anti-Virus

C.

Anti-Spam

D.

Anti-bot

Question 19

Fill in the blank: Back up and restores can be accomplished through_________.

Options:

A.

SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI

B.

WebUI, CLI, or SmartUpdate

C.

CLI, SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

D.

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup, or SmartConsole

Question 20

To provide updated malicious data signatures to all Threat Prevention blades, the Threat Prevention gateway does what with the data?

Options:

A.

Cache the data to speed up its own function.

B.

Share the data to the ThreatCloud for use by other Threat Prevention blades.

C.

Log the traffic for Administrator viewing.

D.

Delete the data to ensure an analysis of the data is done each time.

Question 21

What are the two elements of address translation rules?

Options:

A.

Original packet and translated packet

B.

Manipulated packet and original packet

C.

Translated packet and untranslated packet

D.

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

Question 22

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Question 23

When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

Options:

A.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT)

B.

Static NAT

C.

Static Route

D.

HTTPS Inspection

Question 24

Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

Options:

A.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

B.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

C.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

D.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

Question 25

From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Verify a Security Policy

B.

Open a terminal shell

C.

Add a static route

D.

View Security Management GUI Clients

Question 26

A layer can support different combinations of blades What are the supported blades:

Options:

A.

Firewall. URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

B.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering. Content Awareness and Mobile Access

C.

Firewall. NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

D.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness

Question 27

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and

Options:

A.

add users to your Gaia system.

B.

assign privileges to users.

C.

assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

D.

edit the home directory of the user.

Question 28

How would you determine the software version from the CLI?

Options:

A.

fw ver

B.

fw stat

C.

fw monitor

D.

cpinfo

Question 29

How can the changes made by an administrator before publishing the session be seen by a superuser administrator?

Options:

A.

By impersonating the administrator with the ‘Login as…’ option

B.

They cannot be seen

C.

From the SmartView Tracker audit log

D.

From Manage and Settings > Sessions, right click on the session and click ‘View Changes…’

Question 30

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

Options:

A.

Tracking

B.

Log

C.

None

D.

Alert

Question 31

Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?

Options:

A.

Publish database

B.

Save changes

C.

Install policy

D.

Activate policy

Question 32

Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?

Options:

A.

Security zones will not work in Automatic NAT rules

B.

Security zone will not work in Manual NAT rules

C.

Security zones will not work in firewall policy layer

D.

Security zones cannot be used in network topology

Question 33

Which Check Point Software Wade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Identity Awareness

C.

Application Control

D.

URL Filtering

Question 34

CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.

The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

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How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.

B.

Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.

C.

The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.

D.

Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

Question 35

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

Options:

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall's interfaces.

Question 36

One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Question 37

Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

Options:

A.

Object Browser

B.

Object Editor

C.

Object Navigator

D.

Object Explorer

Question 38

When should you generate new licenses?

Options:

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After a device upgrade.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address associated with the license changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

Question 39

You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

Options:

A.

show unsaved

B.

show save-state

C.

show configuration diff

D.

show config-state

Question 40

To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.

Revisions

B.

Gateway installations

C.

Installation history

D.

Gateway history

Question 41

What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

Options:

A.

inform, ask, and block

B.

block, action, and warn

C.

action, inform, and ask

D.

ask, block, and notify

Question 42

Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

Options:

A.

AES-GCM-256

B.

AES-CBC-256

C.

AES-GCM-128

Question 43

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

SmartEvent

Question 44

To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.

Protections

B.

IPS Protections

C.

Profiles

D.

ThreatWiki

Question 45

Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

Options:

A.

Basic – Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance

B.

Optimized – Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks

C.

Strict – Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance

D.

Recommended – Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

Question 46

In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Display policies and logs on the administrator's workstation.

B.

Processing and sending alerts such as SNMP traps and email notifications.

C.

Verify and compile Security Policies.

D.

Store firewall logs to hard drive storage.

Question 47

What is the order of NAT priorities?

Options:

A.

IP pool NAT static NAT. hide NAT

B.

Static NAT hide NAT, IP pool NAT

C.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT hide NAT

D.

Static NAT automatic NAT hide NAT

Question 48

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

Question 49

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

Options:

A.

Location

B.

Payload

C.

Destination

D.

Identity

Question 50

Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Central

C.

Corporate

D.

Local

Question 51

In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?

Options:

A.

Different computers or appliances.

B.

The same computer or appliance.

C.

Both on virtual machines or both on appliances but not mixed.

D.

In Azure and AWS cloud environments.

Question 52

A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?

Options:

A.

The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.

B.

Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.

C.

The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.

D.

The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.

Question 53

Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the BEST answer

Options:

A.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.

B.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.

C.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server's Mgmt-interface and has no dependency

on the gateway.

D.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server

dependency.

Question 54

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

Options:

A.

Admin and Default

B.

Expert and Clish

C.

Control and Monitor

D.

Admin and Monitor

Question 55

Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

Check Point password

C.

Security questions

D.

SecurID

Question 56

Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?

Options:

A.

Anti-spoofing is not needed when IPS software blade is enabled

B.

It is more secure to create anti-spoofing groups manually

C.

It is BEST Practice to have anti-spoofing groups in sync with the routing table

D.

With dynamic routing enabled, anti-spoofing groups are updated automatically whenever there is a routing change

Question 57

Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Central

B.

Corporate

C.

Local

D.

Formal

Question 58

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Options:

A.

Common Name

B.

Country

C.

User container

D.

Organizational Unit

Question 59

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

Question 60

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:

as

Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

Question 61

Core Protections are installed as part of what Policy?

Options:

A.

Access Control Policy.

B.

Desktop Firewall Policy

C.

Mobile Access Policy.

D.

Threat Prevention Policy.

Question 62

The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Options:

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

Question 63

In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.

Options:

A.

Hide; source

B.

Static; source

C.

Simple; source

D.

Hide; destination

Question 64

True or False: More than one administrator can log into the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with write permission at the same time.

Options:

A.

True, every administrator works on a different database that Is independent of the other administrators

B.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

C.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission

Question 65

What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

Options:

A.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

Question 66

URL Filtering cannot be used to:

Options:

A.

Control Bandwidth issues

B.

Control Data Security

C.

Improve organizational security

D.

Decrease legal liability

Question 67

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Options:

A.

Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart

B.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway

C.

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

D.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy

Question 68

View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?

as

Options:

A.

Those rules have been published in the current session.

B.

Rules have been edited by the logged in administrator, but the policy has not been published yet.

C.

Another user has currently locked the rules for editing.

D.

The configuration lock is present. Click the pen symbol in order to gain the lock.

Question 69

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

Question 70

Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

Question 71

How do you manage Gaia?

Options:

A.

Through CLI and WebUI

B.

Through CLI only

C.

Through SmartDashboard only

D.

Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

Question 72

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

Options:

A.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install

B.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results

C.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway

D.

The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions

Question 73

Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.

Options:

A.

User Center

B.

Package repository

C.

Download Center Web site

D.

License and Contract repository

Question 74

Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.

Options:

A.

Upper; Application

B.

First two; Internet

C.

Lower; Application

D.

First two; Transport

Question 75

What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate installation

B.

DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

C.

USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

D.

Cloud based installation

Question 76

Which one of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy

B.

One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both

C.

Inline layer can be defined as a rule action

D.

Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers

Question 77

Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent

C.

Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication

D.

RADIUS and Account Logon

Question 78

A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?

Options:

A.

In the system SMEM memory pool.

B.

In State tables.

C.

In the Sessions table.

D.

In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.

Question 79

What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

Options:

A.

Source

B.

Static

C.

Hide

D.

Destination

Question 80

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

Options:

A.

Shared Secret Passwords

B.

Unique Passwords

C.

Shared User Certificates

D.

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

Question 81

If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to "First", what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?

Options:

A.

Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base.

B.

Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log.

C.

Track log column is set to none.

D.

Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties.

Question 82

Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

Options:

A.

Client machine IP address.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Log server IP address.

D.

Gateway proxy IP address.

Question 83

Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients?

Options:

A.

cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.

B.

In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

C.

WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.

D.

Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

Question 84

Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?

Options:

A.

Connection Cache

B.

State Cache

C.

State Table

D.

Network Table

Question 85

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Browser-Based Authentication

C.

Identity Agents

D.

Terminal Servers Agent

Question 86

An administrator can use section titles to more easily navigate between large rule bases. Which of these statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Section titles are not sent to the gateway side.

B.

These sections are simple visual divisions of the Rule Base and do not hinder the order of rule enforcement.

C.

A Sectional Title can be used to disable multiple rules by disabling only the sectional title.

D.

Sectional Titles do not need to be created in the SmartConsole.

Question 87

Which of the following is NOT a role of the SmartCenter:

Options:

A.

Status monitoring

B.

Policy configuration

C.

Certificate authority

D.

Address translation

Question 88

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

Question 89

R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:

Options:

A.

Windows only

B.

Gaia only

C.

Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows

D.

SecurePlatform only

Question 90

Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

as

What is the most likely reason?

Options:

A.

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

B.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

C.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

D.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

Question 91

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or__________.

Options:

A.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.

On specific tunnels in the community

D.

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

Question 92

Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

Options:

A.

NAT

B.

Firewall

C.

Global Properties

D.

Object Explorer

Question 93

Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

B.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

C.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

D.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

Question 94

Which Check Point supported authentication scheme typically requires a user to possess a token?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

Check Point password

C.

TACACS

D.

SecurlD

Question 95

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

Options:

A.

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

Question 96

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

Options:

A.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

B.

Upon creation of a certificate

C.

When an administrator decides to create one

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

Question 97

What is UserCheck?

Options:

A.

Messaging tool user to verify a user’s credentials

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created

Question 98

What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

Options:

A.

Application Control, DLP

B.

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.

C.

ACL, SandBlast, MPT

D.

IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

Question 99

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Options:

A.

clish

B.

Monitor

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

Question 100

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

Options:

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

Question 101

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

Options:

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

Question 102

When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

Options:

A.

Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

B.

Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

C.

There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.

D.

SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

Question 103

Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

Options:

A.

Cloud/data Center

B.

perimeter

C.

Sandbox

D.

Guest Network

Question 104

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

Question 105

Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Remote Access

B.

UserCheck

C.

AD Query

D.

RADIUS

Question 106

The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh. How do you change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell to run Linux commands?

Options:

A.

Execute the command 'enable' in the cli.sh shell

B.

Execute the 'conf t' command in the cli.sh shell

C.

Execute the command 'expert' in the cli.sh shell

D.

Execute the 'exit' command in the cli.sh shell

Question 107

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

Identity Collector

B.

Endpoint VPN client

C.

SmartConsole

D.

Proxy Server

Question 108

In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in the "Actions" column of a rule?

Options:

A.

"Inspect", "Bypass"

B.

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Categorize"

C.

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Block"

D.

"Detect", "Bypass"

Question 109

A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are ______ types of Software Containers: ________.

Options:

A.

Two; Security Management and Endpoint Security

B.

Two; Endpoint Security and Security Gateway

C.

Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

D.

Three; Security Gateway, Endpoint Security, and Gateway Management

Question 110

URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on web usage policy in real time. What is the name of that technology?

Options:

A.

WebCheck

B.

UserCheck

C.

Harmony Endpoint

D.

URL categorization

Question 111

Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared secret

B.

Diffie-Hellman Public Key

C.

Symmetrical IPSec key

D.

Diffie-Hellman Private Key

Question 112

Which information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?

Options:

A.

file attributes

B.

application information

C.

destination port

D.

data type information

Question 113

Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility. Which statement is true?

Options:

A.

Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT.

B.

Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.

C.

Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.

D.

Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NAT.

Question 114

Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ____________.

Options:

A.

User groups

B.

Users using UserCheck

C.

Individual users

D.

All users in the database

Question 115

Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awareness for acquiring identity?

Options:

A.

Remote Access

B.

Cloud IdP (Identity Provider)

C.

Active Directory Query

D.

RADIUS

Question 116

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

Options:

A.

Command line interface; WebUI

B.

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

C.

WebUI; Gaia Interface

D.

GaiaUI; command line interface

Question 117

Which of the following Windows Security Events will NOT map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

Question 118

Which Security Blade needs to be enabled in order to sanitize and remove potentially malicious content from files, before those files enter the network?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Anti-Malware

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

Threat Extraction

Question 119

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

B.

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

C.

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

D.

PKI Certificates and DynamiciD OTP

Question 120

Fill in the blank: By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the ____________ algorithm.

Options:

A.

SHA-256

B.

SHA-200

C.

MD5

D.

SHA-128

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Total 400 questions