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Checkpoint 156-215.81 Dumps

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Total 411 questions

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

Options:

A.

CPM

B.

HTTPS

C.

FWD

D.

CPD

Question 2

For Automatic Hide NAT rules created by the administrator what is a TRUE statement?

Options:

A.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is enabled by default

B.

Automate NAT rules are supported for Network objects only.

C.

Automatic NAT rules are supported for Host objects only.

D.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is disabled by default

Question 3

Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Management container

C.

Management server

D.

Security Gateway container

Question 4

What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?

Options:

A.

In R80 all Network Address Translation is done automatically and there is no need for manually defined NAT-rules.

B.

Network Address Translation of RFC1918-compliant networks is needed to access the Internet.

C.

Network Address Translation is desired for some services, but not for others.

D.

The public IP-address is different from the gateway’s external IP

Question 5

How can the changes made by an administrator before publishing the session be seen by a superuser administrator?

Options:

A.

By impersonating the administrator with the ‘Login as…’ option

B.

They cannot be seen

C.

From the SmartView Tracker audit log

D.

From Manage and Settings > Sessions, right click on the session and click ‘View Changes…’

Question 6

Which Check Point supported authentication scheme typically requires a user to possess a token?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

Check Point password

C.

TACACS

D.

SecurlD

Question 7

Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

Options:

A.

Pencil

B.

Padlock

C.

Book

D.

Eyeglasses

Question 8

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctl miltik pq enable

Question 9

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

Question 10

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the status of processes

B.

Sending and receiving logs

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

D.

Generating and modifying certificates

Question 11

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Options:

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

Question 12

When configuring LDAP with User Directory integration, changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Options:

A.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

B.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

C.

Reflected for ail users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

D.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using that template.

Question 13

When a gateway requires user information for authentication, what order does it query servers for user information?

Options:

A.

First - Internal user database, then LDAP servers in order of priority, finally the generic external user profile

B.

First the Internal user database, then generic external user profile, finally LDAP servers in order of priority.

C.

First the highest priority LDAP server, then the internal user database, then lower priority LDAP servers, finally the generic external profile

D.

The external generic profile, then the internal user database finally the LDAP servers in order of priority.

Question 14

Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

Question 15

When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

Options:

A.

Access Role

B.

User Group

C.

SmartDirectory Group

D.

Group Template

Question 16

Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup. or SmartConsole

B.

WebUI. CLI. or SmartUpdate

C.

CLI. SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

D.

SmartConsole, WebUI. or CLI

Question 17

Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the BEST answer

Options:

A.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.

B.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.

C.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server's Mgmt-interface and has no dependency

on the gateway.

D.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server

dependency.

Question 18

What is a role of Publishing?

Options:

A.

The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public

B.

The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways

C.

The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security Gateways

D.

Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base

Question 19

If an administrator wants to restrict access to a network resource only allowing certain users to access it, and only when they are on a specific network what is the best way to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Create an inline layer where the destination is the target network resource Define sub-rules allowing only specific sources to access the target resource

B.

Use a "New Legacy User at Location", specifying the LDAP user group that the users belong to, at the desired location

C.

Create a rule allowing only specific source IP addresses access to the target network resource.

D.

Create an Access Role object, with specific users or user groups specified, and specific networks defined Use this access role as the "Source" of an Access Control rule

Question 20

You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

Options:

A.

show unsaved

B.

show save-state

C.

show configuration diff

D.

show config-state

Question 21

When should you generate new licenses?

Options:

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

Question 22

Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Token

C.

Username/password or Kerberos Ticket

D.

Certificate

Question 23

Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _____.

Options:

A.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

B.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

C.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

D.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

Question 24

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer

Options:

A.

Save and install the Policy

B.

Delete older versions of database

C.

Revert the session.

D.

Publish or discard the session

Question 25

In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

Options:

A.

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

B.

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

C.

Analyze log entries and identify events.

D.

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

Question 26

What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?

Options:

A.

ifconfig -a

B.

show interfaces

C.

show interfaces detail

D.

show configuration interface

Question 27

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members? Choose the best answer.

Options:

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int fwha vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

Question 28

Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility. Which statement is true?

Options:

A.

Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT.

B.

Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.

C.

Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.

D.

Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NAT.

Question 29

Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Options:

A.

Only when there is Multicast solution set up

B.

There is Load Sharing solution set up

C.

Only when there is Unicast solution set up

D.

There is High Availability solution set up

Question 30

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n) ___________ Server.

Options:

A.

SecurID

B.

LDAP

C.

NT domain

D.

SMTP

Question 31

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Options:

A.

Common Name

B.

Country

C.

User container

D.

Organizational Unit

Question 32

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

Question 33

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

Options:

A.

in R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

in R80, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

in R80, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

in R80, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

Question 34

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

Options:

A.

System backup

B.

Save Configuration

C.

Migrate

D.

snapshot

Question 35

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

SmartEvent

Question 36

Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

Options:

A.

Centos Linux

B.

Gaia embedded

C.

Gaia

D.

Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 5

Question 37

The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Options:

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

Question 38

Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

Options:

A.

hostname myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Question 39

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Options:

A.

Clish

B.

Admin

C.

Normal

D.

Expert

Question 40

Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

Options:

A.

Log server; Security Gateway

B.

Log server; security management server

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

Question 41

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

Options:

A.

Location

B.

Payload

C.

Destination

D.

Identity

Question 42

In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Display policies and logs on the administrator's workstation.

B.

Processing and sending alerts such as SNMP traps and email notifications.

C.

Verify and compile Security Policies.

D.

Store firewall logs to hard drive storage.

Question 43

When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to _______________ to enforce changes.

Options:

A.

Publish database

B.

Activate policy

C.

Install policy

D.

Save changes

Question 44

If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

Options:

A.

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

B.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

C.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

D.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

Question 45

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

CloudGuard

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

Question 46

From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Verify a Security Policy

B.

Open a terminal shell

C.

Add a static route

D.

View Security Management GUI Clients

Question 47

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

Options:

A.

Automatic Static NAT

B.

Manual Hide NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Manual Static NAT

Question 48

What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?

Options:

A.

Static NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

B.

Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing connections.

C.

Static NAT only allows outgoing connections. Hide NAT allows incoming and outgoing connections.

D.

Hide NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

Question 49

What is the default shell for the Gaia command line interface?

Options:

A.

Admin

B.

Clish

C.

Expert

D.

Bash

Question 50

In order to modify Security Policies, the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)

Options:

A.

SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.

B.

SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

C.

Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.

D.

mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.

Question 51

Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Application Control

C.

Anti-spam and Email Security

D.

Anti-Virus

Question 52

Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.

Options:

A.

Upper; Application

B.

First two; Internet

C.

Lower; Application

D.

First two; Transport

Question 53

What are the two elements of address translation rules?

Options:

A.

Original packet and translated packet

B.

Manipulated packet and original packet

C.

Translated packet and untranslated packet

D.

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

Question 54

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

Options:

A.

cat $FWDlR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

Question 55

Can you use the same layer in multiple policies or rulebases?

Options:

A.

Yes - a layer can be shared with multiple policies and rules.

B.

No - each layer must be unique.

C.

No - layers cannot be shared or reused, but an identical one can be created.

D.

Yes - but it must be copied and pasted with a different name.

Question 56

What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

Options:

A.

Server, Username, Password, Path, Version

B.

Username, Password, Path, Version

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path

D.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

Question 57

Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

snapshot

C.

Database Revision

D.

migrate export

Question 58

Which of the following commands is used to verify license installation?

Options:

A.

Cplic verify license

B.

Cplic print

C.

Cplic show

D.

Cplic license

Question 59

What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

Options:

A.

Clustered Protocol

B.

Synchronized Cluster Protocol

C.

Control Cluster Protocol

D.

Cluster Control Protocol

Question 60

Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

Manage and Command Line

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Security Policies

D.

Gateway and Servers

Question 61

Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code?

Options:

A.

Both License (.lic) and Contract (.xml) files

B.

cp.macro

C.

Contract file (.xml)

D.

license File (.lie)

Question 62

Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

Application Control and URL Filtering

C.

Threat Emulation

D.

Anti-virus

Question 63

Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:

Options:

A.

Application database

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application-Forensic Database

D.

Application Library

Question 64

Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

B.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

C.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

D.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

Question 65

Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

Options:

A.

Basic – Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance

B.

Optimized – Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks

C.

Strict – Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance

D.

Recommended – Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

Question 66

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

Question 67

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

Question 68

What are the advantages of a “shared policy” in R80?

Options:

A.

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway

B.

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security Management Server

C.

Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package

D.

Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another managed Security Gateway

Question 69

What are the types of Software Containers?

Options:

A.

Smart Console, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.

Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

C.

Security Management, Log & Monitoring, and Security Policy

D.

Security Management, Standalone, and Security Gateway

Question 70

URL Filtering cannot be used to:

Options:

A.

Control Bandwidth issues

B.

Control Data Security

C.

Improve organizational security

D.

Decrease legal liability

Question 71

What SmartEvent component creates events?

Options:

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

Question 72

Which command shows the installed licenses?

Options:

A.

cplic print

B.

print cplic

C.

fwlic print

D.

show licenses

Question 73

Consider the Global Properties following settings:

as

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

Options:

A.

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

B.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

C.

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

D.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

Question 74

Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?

Options:

A.

Central and Local.

B.

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

C.

On-premise and Public Cloud.

D.

Security Gateway and Security Management.

Question 75

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

Question 76

The SIC Status “Unknown” means

Options:

A.

There is connection between the gateway and Security Management Server but it is not trusted.

B.

The secure communication is established.

C.

There is no connection between the gateway and Security Management Server.

D.

The Security Management Server can contact the gateway, but cannot establish SIC.

Question 77

One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Question 78

R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:

Options:

A.

Windows only

B.

Gaia only

C.

Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows

D.

SecurePlatform only

Question 79

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway

Options:

A.

Antivirus

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

NAT

D.

Application Control

Question 80

What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.

B.

Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.

C.

To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

D.

Used to better optimize a policy.

Question 81

To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection ‘Host Port Scan’ from ‘Medium’ to ‘High’ Predefined Sensitivity. Which Policy should the administrator install after Publishing the changes?

Options:

A.

The Access Control and Threat Prevention Policies.

B.

The Access Control Policy.

C.

The Access Control & HTTPS Inspection Policy.

D.

The Threat Prevention Policy.

Question 82

Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

Question 83

Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

Options:

A.

Formal; corporate

B.

Local; formal

C.

Local; central

D.

Central; local

Question 84

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

B.

Proactively detects threats

C.

Delivers file with original content

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

Question 85

To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.

Protections

B.

IPS Protections

C.

Profiles

D.

ThreatWiki

Question 86

When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?

Options:

A.

Log, send snmp trap, email

B.

Drop packet, alert, none

C.

Log, alert, none

D.

Log, allow packets, email

Question 87

Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

Question 88

Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE online upgrade

C.

CPUSE offline upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

Question 89

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

Question 90

When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate. where is the package or license stored?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole installed device

B.

Check Point user center

C.

Security Management Server

D.

Security Gateway

Question 91

A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefit?

Options:

A.

Allow security audits.

B.

Handle traffic as defined in the policy.

C.

Monitor sequence activity.

D.

Block suspicious activity.

Question 92

You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

logswitch

C.

Database Revision

D.

snapshot

Question 93

Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Management servers can acquire and share identities with Security Gateways

B.

Users can share identities with other users

C.

Security Gateways can acquire and share identities with other Security Gateways

D.

Administrators can share identifies with other administrators

Question 94

Fill in the blank: Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least ___________ interfaces.

Options:

A.

Five

B.

Two

C.

Three

D.

Four

Question 95

In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

Options:

A.

Limit

B.

Resource

C.

Custom Application / Site

D.

Network Object

Question 96

How do logs change when the "Accounting" tracking option is enabled on a traffic rule?

Options:

A.

Involved traffic logs will be forwarded to a log server.

B.

Provides log details view email to the Administrator.

C.

Involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection.

D.

Provides additional information to the connected user.

Question 97

What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

B.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

D.

IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing

Question 98

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

Options:

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall's interfaces.

Question 99

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

Question 100

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management interface and default gateway are incorrect. Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

Options:

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

Question 101

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

Question 102

The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

B.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

C.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

D.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

Question 103

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

Log server

C.

SmartEvent

D.

Multi-domain management server

Question 104

What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

Options:

A.

It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.

B.

It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application.

C.

It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer.

D.

It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

Question 105

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

Options:

A.

cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

Question 106

Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

Options:

A.

cpconfig

B.

Management Command Line

C.

SmartConsole

D.

SmartUpdate

Question 107

Name the pre-defined Roles included in Gaia OS.

Options:

A.

AdminRole, and MonitorRole

B.

ReadWriteRole, and ReadyOnly Role

C.

AdminRole, cloningAdminRole, and Monitor Role

D.

AdminRole

Question 108

Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

as

What is the most likely reason?

Options:

A.

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

B.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

C.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

D.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

Question 109

Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

Options:

A.

Down

B.

No Response

C.

Inactive

D.

Failed

Question 110

Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

B.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

C.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

D.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

Question 111

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

Question 112

Which application is used for the central management and deployment of licenses and packages?

Options:

A.

SmartProvisioning

B.

SmartLicense

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

Deployment Agent

Question 113

What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

Options:

A.

It manages user permission in SmartConsole

B.

It provides remote access to SmartConsole

C.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources

D.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

Question 114

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

Options:

A.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

B.

Upon creation of a certificate

C.

When an administrator decides to create one

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

Question 115

Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Logging and Status

D.

Monitoring

Question 116

True or False: More than one administrator can log into the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with write permission at the same time.

Options:

A.

True, every administrator works on a different database that Is independent of the other administrators

B.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

C.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission

Question 117

While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain Why does it not detect the windows domain?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain

B.

Security Gateway is not part of the Domain

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

D.

Security Management Server is not part of the domain

Question 118

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

Options:

A.

Tracking

B.

Log

C.

None

D.

Alert

Question 119

When dealing with policy layers, what two layer types can be utilized?

Options:

A.

Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers

B.

Ordered Layers and Inline Layers

C.

Structured Layers and Overlap Layers

D.

R81.X does not support Layers.

Question 120

Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

Options:

A.

Pentagon, star, and combination

B.

Star, octagon, and combination

C.

Combined and star

D.

Meshed, star, and combination

Question 121

Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

Options:

A.

SmartDashboard

B.

SmartEvent

C.

SmartView Monitor

D.

SmartUpdate

Question 122

Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Internal Certificate Authority

B.

Token

C.

One-time Password

D.

Certificate

Question 123

Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

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