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ECCouncil 712-50 Dumps

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Total 461 questions

EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following functions implements and oversees the use of controls to reduce risk when creating an information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk Assessment

B.

Incident Response

C.

Risk Management

D.

Network Security administration

Question 2

A person in your security team calls you at night and informs you that one of your web applications is potentially under attack from a cross-site scripting vulnerability. What do you do?

Options:

A.

tell him to shut down the server

B.

tell him to call the police

C.

tell him to invoke the incident response process

D.

tell him to analyze the problem, preserve the evidence and provide a full analysis and report

Question 3

When selecting a security solution with reoccurring maintenance costs after the first year, the CISO should: (choose the BEST answer)

Options:

A.

The CISO should cut other essential programs to ensure the new solution’s continued use

B.

Communicate future operating costs to the CIO/CFO and seek commitment from them to ensure the new solution’s continued use

C.

Defer selection until the market improves and cash flow is positive

D.

Implement the solution and ask for the increased operating cost budget when it is time

Question 4

How often should the Statements of Standards for Attestation Engagements-16 (SSAE16)/International Standard on Assurance Engagements 3402 (ISAE3402) report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Bi-annually

D.

Annually

Question 5

An international organization is planning a project to implement encryption technologies to protect company confidential information. This organization has data centers on three continents. Which of the following would be considered a MAJOR constraint for the project?

Options:

A.

Time zone differences

B.

Compliance to local hiring laws

C.

Encryption import/export regulations

D.

Local customer privacy laws

Question 6

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to the concepts of how hardware and software is implemented and managed within the organization. Which of the following principles does this best demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Alignment with the business

B.

Effective use of existing technologies

C.

Leveraging existing implementations

D.

Proper budget management

Question 7

Which of the following are not stakeholders of IT security projects?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Third party vendors

C.

CISO

D.

Help Desk

Question 8

An application vulnerability assessment has identified a security flaw in an application. This is a flaw that was previously identified and remediated on a prior release of the application. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recurring issue?

Options:

A.

Ineffective configuration management controls

B.

Lack of change management controls

C.

Lack of version/source controls

D.

High turnover in the application development department

Question 9

A CISO sees abnormally high volumes of exceptions to security requirements and constant pressure from business units to change security processes. Which of the following represents the MOST LIKELY cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Poor audit support for the security program

B.

A lack of executive presence within the security program

C.

Poor alignment of the security program to business needs

D.

This is normal since business units typically resist security requirements

Question 10

When entering into a third party vendor agreement for security services, at what point in the process is it BEST to understand and validate the security posture and compliance level of the vendor?

Options:

A.

At the time the security services are being performed and the vendor needs access to the network

B.

Once the agreement has been signed and the security vendor states that they will need access to the network

C.

Once the vendor is on premise and before they perform security services

D.

Prior to signing the agreement and before any security services are being performed

Question 11

A stakeholder is a person or group:

Options:

A.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative regardless of budget implications.

B.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative and is tied to the project budget.

C.

That has budget authority.

D.

That will ultimately use the system.

Question 12

Which of the following represents the BEST method for obtaining business unit acceptance of security controls within an organization?

Options:

A.

Allow the business units to decide which controls apply to their systems, such as the encryption of sensitive data

B.

Create separate controls for the business units based on the types of business and functions they perform

C.

Ensure business units are involved in the creation of controls and defining conditions under which they must be applied

D.

Provide the business units with control mandates and schedules of audits for compliance validation

Question 13

In effort to save your company money which of the following methods of training results in the lowest cost for the organization?

Options:

A.

Distance learning/Web seminars

B.

Formal Class

C.

One-One Training

D.

Self –Study (noncomputerized)

Question 14

The security team has investigated the theft/loss of several unencrypted laptop computers containing sensitive corporate information. To prevent the loss of any additional corporate data it is unilaterally decided by the CISO that all existing and future laptop computers will be encrypted. Soon, the help desk is flooded with complaints about the slow performance of the laptops and users are upset. What did the CISO do wrong? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

Failed to identify all stakeholders and their needs

B.

Deployed the encryption solution in an inadequate manner

C.

Used 1024 bit encryption when 256 bit would have sufficed

D.

Used hardware encryption instead of software encryption

Question 15

An organization has a stated requirement to block certain traffic on networks. The implementation of controls will disrupt a manufacturing process and cause unacceptable delays, resulting in sever revenue disruptions. Which of the following is MOST likely to be responsible for accepting the risk until mitigating controls can be implemented?

Options:

A.

The CISO

B.

Audit and Compliance

C.

The CFO

D.

The business owner

Question 16

Which of the following is MOST beneficial in determining an appropriate balance between uncontrolled innovation and excessive caution in an organization?

Options:

A.

Define the risk appetite

B.

Determine budget constraints

C.

Review project charters

D.

Collaborate security projects

Question 17

Your company has a “no right to privacy” notice on all logon screens for your information systems and users sign an Acceptable Use Policy informing them of this condition. A peer group member and friend comes to you and requests access to one of her employee’s email account. What should you do? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

Grant her access, the employee has been adequately warned through the AUP.

B.

Assist her with the request, but only after her supervisor signs off on the action.

C.

Reset the employee’s password and give it to the supervisor.

D.

Deny the request citing national privacy laws.

Question 18

Which of the following is a major benefit of applying risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk management governance becomes easier since most risks remain low once mitigated

B.

Resources are not wasted on risks that are already managed to an acceptable level

C.

Risk budgets are more easily managed due to fewer identified risks as a result of using a methodology

D.

Risk appetite can increase within the organization once the levels are understood

Question 19

How often should the SSAE16 report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Annually

D.

Bi-annually

Question 20

Your incident response plan should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Procedures for litigation

B.

Procedures for reclamation

C.

Procedures for classification

D.

Procedures for charge-back

Question 21

Which of the following represents the best method of ensuring business unit alignment with security program requirements?

Options:

A.

Provide clear communication of security requirements throughout the organization

B.

Demonstrate executive support with written mandates for security policy adherence

C.

Create collaborative risk management approaches within the organization

D.

Perform increased audits of security processes and procedures

Question 22

In order for a CISO to have true situational awareness there is a need to deploy technology that can give a real-time view of security events across the enterprise. Which tool selection represents the BEST choice to achieve situational awareness?

Options:

A.

Vmware, router, switch, firewall, syslog, vulnerability management system (VMS)

B.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS), firewall, switch, syslog

C.

Security Incident Event Management (SIEM), IDS, router, syslog

D.

SIEM, IDS, firewall, VMS

Question 23

You manage a newly created Security Operations Center (SOC), your team is being inundated with security alerts and don’t know what to do. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?

Options:

A.

Tell the team to do their best and respond to each alert

B.

Tune the sensors to help reduce false positives so the team can react better

C.

Request additional resources to handle the workload

D.

Tell the team to only respond to the critical and high alerts

Question 24

A system was hardened at the Operating System level and placed into the production environment. Months later an audit was performed and it identified insecure configuration different from the original hardened state. Which of the following security issues is the MOST likely reason leading to the audit findings?

Options:

A.

Lack of asset management processes

B.

Lack of change management processes

C.

Lack of hardening standards

D.

Lack of proper access controls

Question 25

What oversight should the information security team have in the change management process for application security?

Options:

A.

Information security should be informed of changes to applications only

B.

Development team should tell the information security team about any application security flaws

C.

Information security should be aware of any significant application security changes and work with developer to test for vulnerabilities before changes are deployed in production

D.

Information security should be aware of all application changes and work with developers before changes are deployed in production

Question 26

A severe security threat has been detected on your corporate network. As CISO you quickly assemble key members of the Information Technology team and business operations to determine a modification to security controls in response to the threat. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Business continuity planning

C.

Security Incident Response

D.

Thought leadership

Question 27

Which of the following will be MOST helpful for getting an Information Security project that is behind schedule back on schedule?

Options:

A.

Upper management support

B.

More frequent project milestone meetings

C.

More training of staff members

D.

Involve internal audit

Question 28

Which one of the following BEST describes which member of the management team is accountable for the day-to-day operation of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Security administrators

B.

Security mangers

C.

Security technicians

D.

Security analysts

Question 29

Which of the following are necessary to formulate responses to external audit findings?

Options:

A.

Internal Audit, Management, and Technical Staff

B.

Internal Audit, Budget Authority, Management

C.

Technical Staff, Budget Authority, Management

D.

Technical Staff, Internal Audit, Budget Authority

Question 30

When an organization claims it is secure because it is PCI-DSS certified, what is a good first question to ask towards assessing the effectiveness of their security program?

Options:

A.

How many credit card records are stored?

B.

How many servers do you have?

C.

What is the scope of the certification?

D.

What is the value of the assets at risk?

Question 31

Which of the following reports should you as an IT auditor use to check on compliance with a service level agreement’s requirement for uptime?

Options:

A.

Systems logs

B.

Hardware error reports

C.

Utilization reports

D.

Availability reports

Question 32

Who in the organization determines access to information?

Options:

A.

Legal department

B.

Compliance officer

C.

Data Owner

D.

Information security officer

Question 33

The effectiveness of social engineering penetration testing using phishing can be used as a Key Performance Indicator (KPI) for the effectiveness of an organization’s

Options:

A.

Risk Management Program.

B.

Anti-Spam controls.

C.

Security Awareness Program.

D.

Identity and Access Management Program.

Question 34

When creating a vulnerability scan schedule, who is the MOST critical person to communicate with in order to ensure impact of the scan is minimized?

Options:

A.

The asset owner

B.

The asset manager

C.

The data custodian

D.

The project manager

Question 35

Regulatory requirements typically force organizations to implement

Options:

A.

Mandatory controls

B.

Discretionary controls

C.

Optional controls

D.

Financial controls

Question 36

When would it be more desirable to develop a set of decentralized security policies and procedures within an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

When there is a need to develop a more unified incident response capability.

B.

When the enterprise is made up of many business units with diverse business activities, risks profiles and regulatory requirements.

C.

When there is a variety of technologies deployed in the infrastructure.

D.

When it results in an overall lower cost of operating the security program.

Question 37

Creating a secondary authentication process for network access would be an example of?

Options:

A.

Nonlinearities in physical security performance metrics

B.

Defense in depth cost enumerated costs

C.

System hardening and patching requirements

D.

Anti-virus for mobile devices

Question 38

Payment Card Industry (PCI) compliance requirements are based on what criteria?

Options:

A.

The types of cardholder data retained

B.

The duration card holder data is retained

C.

The size of the organization processing credit card data

D.

The number of transactions performed per year by an organization

Question 39

A security manager regualrly checks work areas after buisness hours for security violations; such as unsecured files or unattended computers with active sessions. This activity BEST demonstrates what part of a security program?

Options:

A.

Audit validation

B.

Physical control testing

C.

Compliance management

D.

Security awareness training

Question 40

When you develop your audit remediation plan what is the MOST important criteria?

Options:

A.

To remediate half of the findings before the next audit.

B.

To remediate all of the findings before the next audit.

C.

To validate that the cost of the remediation is less than the risk of the finding.

D.

To validate the remediation process with the auditor.

Question 41

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its mission is known as

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Risk acceptance

Question 42

Creating good security metrics is essential for a CISO. What would be the BEST sources for creating security metrics for baseline defenses coverage?

Options:

A.

Servers, routers, switches, modem

B.

Firewall, exchange, web server, intrusion detection system (IDS)

C.

Firewall, anti-virus console, IDS, syslog

D.

IDS, syslog, router, switches

Question 43

Which of the following is of MOST importance when security leaders of an organization are required to align security to influence the culture of an organization?

Options:

A.

Poses a strong technical background

B.

Understand all regulations affecting the organization

C.

Understand the business goals of the organization

D.

Poses a strong auditing background

Question 44

Which of the following is a MAJOR consideration when an organization retains sensitive customer data and uses this data to better target the organization’s products and services?

Options:

A.

Strong authentication technologies

B.

Financial reporting regulations

C.

Credit card compliance and regulations

D.

Local privacy laws

Question 45

An organization licenses and uses personal information for business operations, and a server containing that information has been compromised. What kind of law would require notifying the owner or licensee of this incident?

Options:

A.

Data breach disclosure

B.

Consumer right disclosure

C.

Security incident disclosure

D.

Special circumstance disclosure

Question 46

A security officer wants to implement a vulnerability scanning program. The officer is uncertain of the state of vulnerability resiliency within the organization’s large IT infrastructure. What would be the BEST approach to minimize scan data output while retaining a realistic view of system vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Scan a representative sample of systems

B.

Perform the scans only during off-business hours

C.

Decrease the vulnerabilities within the scan tool settings

D.

Filter the scan output so only pertinent data is analyzed

Question 47

The mean time to patch, number of virus outbreaks prevented, and number of vulnerabilities mitigated are examples of what type of performance metrics?

Options:

A.

Risk metrics

B.

Management metrics

C.

Operational metrics

D.

Compliance metrics

Question 48

As the new CISO at the company you are reviewing the audit reporting process and notice that it includes only detailed technical diagrams. What else should be in the reporting process?

Options:

A.

Executive summary

B.

Penetration test agreement

C.

Names and phone numbers of those who conducted the audit

D.

Business charter

Question 49

An organization information security policy serves to

Options:

A.

establish budgetary input in order to meet compliance requirements

B.

establish acceptable systems and user behavior

C.

define security configurations for systems

D.

define relationships with external law enforcement agencies

Question 50

The establishment of a formal risk management framework and system authorization program is essential. The LAST step of the system authorization process is:

Options:

A.

Contacting the Internet Service Provider for an IP scope

B.

Getting authority to operate the system from executive management

C.

Changing the default passwords

D.

Conducting a final scan of the live system and mitigating all high and medium level vulnerabilities

Question 51

Which of the following is MOST likely to be discretionary?

Options:

A.

Policies

B.

Procedures

C.

Guidelines

D.

Standards

Question 52

The executive board has requested that the CISO of an organization define and Key Performance Indicators (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security awareness program provided to call center employees. Which of the following can be used as a KPI?

Options:

A.

Number of callers who report security issues.

B.

Number of callers who report a lack of customer service from the call center

C.

Number of successful social engineering attempts on the call center

D.

Number of callers who abandon the call before speaking with a representative

Question 53

Many times a CISO may have to speak to the Board of Directors (BOD) about their cyber security posture. What would be the BEST choice of security metrics to present to the BOD?

Options:

A.

All vulnerabilities found on servers and desktops

B.

Only critical and high vulnerabilities on servers and desktops

C.

Only critical and high vulnerabilities that impact important production servers

D.

All vulnerabilities that impact important production servers

Question 54

You are the Chief Information Security Officer of a large, multinational bank and you suspect there is a flaw in a two factor authentication token management process. Which of the following represents your BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Validate that security awareness program content includes information about the potential vulnerability

B.

Conduct a thorough risk assessment against the current implementation to determine system functions

C.

Determine program ownership to implement compensating controls

D.

Send a report to executive peers and business unit owners detailing your suspicions

Question 55

A security professional has been promoted to be the CISO of an organization. The first task is to create a security policy for this organization. The CISO creates and publishes the security policy. This policy however, is ignored and not enforced consistently. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the policy shortcomings?

Options:

A.

Lack of a formal security awareness program

B.

Lack of a formal security policy governance process

C.

Lack of formal definition of roles and responsibilities

D.

Lack of a formal risk management policy

Question 56

What role should the CISO play in properly scoping a PCI environment?

Options:

A.

Validate the business units’ suggestions as to what should be included in the scoping process

B.

Work with a Qualified Security Assessor (QSA) to determine the scope of the PCI environment

C.

Ensure internal scope validation is completed and that an assessment has been done to discover all credit card data

D.

Complete the self-assessment questionnaire and work with an Approved Scanning Vendor (ASV) to determine scope

Question 57

The process of identifying and classifying assets is typically included in the

Options:

A.

Threat analysis process

B.

Asset configuration management process

C.

Business Impact Analysis

D.

Disaster Recovery plan

Question 58

Your penetration testing team installs an in-line hardware key logger onto one of your network machines. Which of the following is of major concern to the security organization?

Options:

A.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t require physical access

B.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t comply to industry regulations

C.

In-line hardware keyloggers are undetectable by software

D.

In-line hardware keyloggers are relatively inexpensive

Question 59

Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Hot site

C.

Warm site

D.

Mobile backup site

Question 60

As a CISO you need to understand the steps that are used to perform an attack against a network. Put each step into the correct order.

1.Covering tracks

2.Scanning and enumeration

3.Maintaining Access

4.Reconnaissance

5.Gaining Access

Options:

A.

4, 2, 5, 3, 1

B.

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

C.

4, 5, 2, 3, 1

D.

4, 3, 5, 2, 1

Question 61

Physical security measures typically include which of the following components?

Options:

A.

Physical, Technical, Operational

B.

Technical, Strong Password, Operational

C.

Operational, Biometric, Physical

D.

Strong password, Biometric, Common Access Card

Question 62

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

Question 63

Your incident handling manager detects a virus attack in the network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus. Which of the following phases in the incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this incident?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Identification

D.

Eradication

Question 64

The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods. Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling. What is the most likely reason for such broad access?

Options:

A.

The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.

B.

The requirement to post entries for a closed accounting period.

C.

The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.

D.

The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.

Question 65

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

MD5

C.

ECC

D.

RSA

Question 66

Which of the following is MOST important when tuning an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Options:

A.

Trusted and untrusted networks

B.

Type of authentication

C.

Storage encryption

D.

Log retention

Question 67

What type of attack requires the least amount of technical equipment and has the highest success rate?

Options:

A.

War driving

B.

Operating system attacks

C.

Social engineering

D.

Shrink wrap attack

Question 68

Which of the following is the MAIN security concern for public cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Unable to control physical access to the servers

B.

Unable to track log on activity

C.

Unable to run anti-virus scans

D.

Unable to patch systems as needed

Question 69

One of your executives needs to send an important and confidential email. You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following keys should be used to encrypt the message?

Options:

A.

Your public key

B.

The recipient's private key

C.

The recipient's public key

D.

Certificate authority key

Question 70

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

Options:

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

Question 71

Security related breaches are assessed and contained through which of the following?

Options:

A.

The IT support team.

B.

A forensic analysis.

C.

Incident response

D.

Physical security team.

Question 72

The ability to hold intruders accountable in a court of law is important. Which of the following activities are needed to ensure the highest possibility for successful prosecution?

Options:

A.

Well established and defined digital forensics process

B.

Establishing Enterprise-owned Botnets for preemptive attacks

C.

Be able to retaliate under the framework of Active Defense

D.

Collaboration with law enforcement

Question 73

In terms of supporting a forensic investigation, it is now imperative that managers, first-responders, etc., accomplish the following actions to the computer under investigation:

Options:

A.

Secure the area and shut-down the computer until investigators arrive

B.

Secure the area and attempt to maintain power until investigators arrive

C.

Immediately place hard drive and other components in an anti-static bag

D.

Secure the area.

Question 74

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

Question 75

What is the term describing the act of inspecting all real-time Internet traffic (i.e., packets) traversing a major Internet backbone without introducing any apparent latency?

Options:

A.

Traffic Analysis

B.

Deep-Packet inspection

C.

Packet sampling

D.

Heuristic analysis

Question 76

You are having a penetration test done on your company network and the leader of the team says they discovered all the network devices because no one had changed the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings from the defaults. Which of the following is a default community string?

Options:

A.

Execute

B.

Read

C.

Administrator

D.

Public

Question 77

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

Options:

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

Question 78

An anonymity network is a series of?

Options:

A.

Covert government networks

B.

War driving maps

C.

Government networks in Tora

D.

Virtual network tunnels

Question 79

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

Options:

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

Question 80

While designing a secondary data center for your company what document needs to be analyzed to determine to how much should be spent on building the data center?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Assessment

B.

Disaster recovery strategic plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Application mapping document

Question 81

SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:

Options:

A.

‘ o 1=1 - -

B.

/../../../../

C.

“DROPTABLE USERNAME”

D.

NOPS

Question 82

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 83

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

Question 84

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from web applications?

Options:

A.

Session encryption

B.

Removing all stored procedures

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Library control

Question 85

An organization recently acquired a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution, and two months after the implementation, it was found that sensitive data was posted to numerous Dark Web sites. The DLP application was checked, and there are no apparent malfunctions and no errors.

What is the MOST likely reason why the sensitive data was posted?

Options:

A.

The DLP Solution was not integrated with mobile device anti-malware

B.

Data classification was not properly performed on the assets

C.

The sensitive data was not encrypted while at rest

D.

A risk assessment was not performed after purchasing the DLP solution

Question 86

When reviewing a Solution as a Service (SaaS) provider’s security health and posture, which key document should you review?

Options:

A.

SaaS provider’s website certifications and representations (certs and reps)

B.

SOC-2 Report

C.

Metasploit Audit Report

D.

Statement from SaaS provider attesting their ability to secure your data

Question 87

What are the common data hiding techniques used by criminals?

Options:

A.

Unallocated space and masking

B.

Website defacement and log manipulation

C.

Disabled Logging and admin elevation

D.

Encryption, Steganography, and Changing Metadata/Timestamps

Question 88

To make sure that the actions of all employees, applications, and systems follow the organization’s rules and regulations can BEST be described as which of the following?

Options:

A.

Compliance management

B.

Asset management

C.

Risk management

D.

Security management

Question 89

An organization has decided to develop an in-house BCM capability. The organization has determined it is best to follow a BCM standard published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

The BEST ISO standard to follow that outlines the complete lifecycle of BCM is?

Options:

A.

ISO 22318 Supply Chain Continuity

B.

ISO 27031 BCM Readiness

C.

ISO 22301 BCM Requirements

D.

ISO 22317 BIA

Question 90

What is the THIRD state of the Tuckman Stages of Group Development?

Options:

A.

Performing

B.

Norming

C.

Storming

D.

Forming

Question 91

Who should be involved in the development of an internal campaign to address email phishing?

Options:

A.

Business unit leaders, CIO, CEO

B.

Business Unite Leaders, CISO, CIO and CEO

C.

All employees

D.

CFO, CEO, CIO

Question 92

Which of the following BEST mitigates ransomware threats?

Options:

A.

Phishing exercises

B.

Use immutable data storage

C.

Blocking use of wireless networks

D.

Application of multiple endpoint anti-malware solutions

Question 93

You are the CISO for an investment banking firm. The firm is using artificial intelligence (AI) to assist in approving clients for loans.

Which control is MOST important to protect AI products?

Options:

A.

Hash datasets

B.

Sanitize datasets

C.

Delete datasets

D.

Encrypt datasets

Question 94

When evaluating a Managed Security Services Provider (MSSP), which service(s) is/are most important:

Options:

A.

Patch management

B.

Network monitoring

C.

Ability to provide security services tailored to the business’ needs

D.

24/7 tollfree number

Question 95

Devising controls for information security is a balance between?

Options:

A.

Governance and compliance

B.

Auditing and security

C.

Budget and risk tolerance

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

Question 96

A CISO must conduct risk assessments using a method where the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) receives impact data in financial terms to use as input to select the proper level of coverage in a new cybersecurity insurance policy.

What is the MOST effective method of risk analysis to provide the CFO with the information required?

Options:

A.

Conduct a quantitative risk assessment

B.

Conduct a hybrid risk assessment

C.

Conduct a subjective risk assessment

D.

Conduct a qualitative risk assessment

Question 97

A university recently hired a CISO. One of the first tasks is to develop a continuity of operations plan (COOP).

In developing the business impact assessment (BIA), which of the following MOST closely relate to the data backup and restoral?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Mean Time to Delivery (MTD)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

Question 98

Which level of data destruction applies logical techniques to sanitize data in all user-addressable storage locations?

Options:

A.

Purge

B.

Clear

C.

Mangle

D.

Destroy

Question 99

A company wants to fill a Chief Information Security Officer position. Which of the following qualifications and experience would be MOST desirable in a candidate?

Options:

A.

Multiple certifications, strong technical capabilities and lengthy resume

B.

Industry certifications, technical knowledge and program management skills

C.

College degree, audit capabilities and complex project management

D.

Multiple references, strong background check and industry certifications

Question 100

A Security Operations Manager is finding it difficult to maintain adequate staff levels to monitor security operations during off-hours. To reduce the impact of staff shortages and increase coverage during off-hours, the SecOps manager is considering outsourcing off-hour coverage.

What Security Operations Center (SOC) model does this BEST describe?

Options:

A.

Virtual SOC

B.

In-house SOC

C.

Security Network Operations Center (SNOC)

D.

Hybrid SOC

Question 101

A key cybersecurity feature of a Personal Identification Verification (PIV) Card is:

Options:

A.

Inability to export the private certificate/key

B.

It can double as physical identification at the DMV

C.

It has the user’s photograph to help ID them

D.

It can be used as a secure flash drive

Question 102

What key technology can mitigate ransomware threats?

Options:

A.

Use immutable data storage

B.

Phishing exercises

C.

Application of multiple end point anti-malware solutions

D.

Blocking use of wireless networks

Question 103

In defining a strategic security plan for an organization, what should a CISO first analyze?

Options:

A.

Reach out to a business similar to yours and ask for their plan

B.

Set goals that are difficult to attain to drive more productivity

C.

Review business acquisitions for the past 3 years

D.

Analyze the broader organizational strategic plan

Question 104

When managing a project, the MOST important activity in managing the expectations of stakeholders is:

Options:

A.

To force stakeholders to commit ample resources to support the project

B.

To facilitate proper communication regarding outcomes

C.

To assure stakeholders commit to the project start and end dates in writing

D.

To finalize detailed scope of the project at project initiation

Question 105

Which of the following provides the BEST approach to achieving positive outcomes while preserving savings?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Economic impact analysis

D.

Return on Investment

Question 106

Which of the following statements below regarding Key Performance indicators (KPIs) are true?

Options:

A.

Development of KPI’s are most useful when done independently

B.

They are a strictly quantitative measure of success

C.

They should be standard throughout the organization versus domain-specific so they are more easily correlated

D.

They are a strictly qualitative measure of success

Question 107

When performing a forensic investigation, what are the two MOST common data sources for obtaining evidence from a computer and mobile devices?

Options:

A.

RAM and unallocated space

B.

Unallocated space and RAM

C.

Slack space and browser cache

D.

Persistent and volatile data

Question 108

You have been hired as the Information System Security Officer (ISSO) for a US federal government agency. Your role is to ensure the security posture of the system is maintained. One of your tasks is to develop and maintain the system security plan (SSP) and supporting documentation.

Which of the following is NOT documented in the SSP?

Options:

A.

The controls in place to secure the system

B.

Name of the connected system

C.

The results of a third-party audits and recommendations

D.

Type of information used in the system

Question 109

When information security falls under the Chief Information Officer (CIO), what is their MOST essential role?

Options:

A.

Oversees the organization’s day-to-day operations, creating the policies and strategies that govern operations

B.

Enlisting support from key executives the information security program budget and policies

C.

Charged with developing and implementing policies designed to protect employees and customers’ data from unauthorized access

D.

Responsible for the success or failure of the IT organization and setting strategic direction

Question 110

You have been promoted to the CISO of a retail store. Which of the following compliance standards is the MOST important to the organization?

Options:

A.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

B.

ISO 27002

C.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

D.

The Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

Question 111

What is an approach to estimating the strengths and weaknesses of alternatives used to determine options, which provide the BEST approach to achieving benefits while preserving savings called?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Economic Impact analysis

C.

Return on Investment

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

Question 112

Many successful cyber-attacks currently include:

Options:

A.

Phishing Attacks

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

All of these

D.

Social engineering

Question 113

If a competitor wants to cause damage to your organization, steal critical secrets, or put you out of business,

they just have to find a job opening, prepare someone to pass the interview, have that person hired, and they

will be in the organization. How would you prevent such type of attacks?

Options:

A.

Conduct thorough background checks before you engage them

B.

Hire the people through third-party job agencies who will vet them for you

C.

Investigate their social networking profiles

D.

It is impossible to block these attacks

Question 114

Which of the following provides an independent assessment of a vendor’s internal security controls and overall posture?

Options:

A.

Alignment with business goals

B.

ISO27000 accreditation

C.

PCI attestation of compliance

D.

Financial statements

Question 115

The Annualized Loss Expectancy (Before) minus Annualized Loss Expectancy (After) minus Annual Safeguard Cost is the formula for determining:

Options:

A.

Safeguard Value

B.

Cost Benefit Analysis

C.

Single Loss Expectancy

D.

Life Cycle Loss Expectancy

Question 116

As the CISO, you have been tasked with the execution of the company’s key management program. You

MUST ensure the integrity of encryption keys at the point of generation. Which principal of encryption key

control will ensure no single individual can constitute or re-constitute a key?

Options:

A.

Dual Control

B.

Separation of Duties

C.

Split Knowledge

D.

Least Privilege

Question 117

Which of the following is the MOST effective method for discovering common technical vulnerabilities within the

IT environment?

Options:

A.

Reviewing system administrator logs

B.

Auditing configuration templates

C.

Checking vendor product releases

D.

Performing system scans

Question 118

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to the concepts of how

hardware and software is implemented and managed within the organization. Which of the following principles

does this best demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Effective use of existing technologies

B.

Create a comprehensive security awareness program and provide success metrics to business units

C.

Proper budget management

D.

Leveraging existing implementations

Question 119

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

Which of the following is the FIRST action the CISO will perform after receiving the audit report?

Options:

A.

Inform peer executives of the audit results

B.

Validate gaps and accept or dispute the audit findings

C.

Create remediation plans to address program gaps

D.

Determine if security policies and procedures are adequate

Question 120

Scenario: An organization has recently appointed a CISO. This is a new role in the organization and it signals the increasing need to address security consistently at the enterprise level. This new CISO, while confident with skills and experience, is constantly on the defensive and is unable to advance the IT security centric agenda.

From an Information Security Leadership perspective, which of the following is a MAJOR concern about the CISO’s approach to security?

Options:

A.

Lack of risk management process

B.

Lack of sponsorship from executive management

C.

IT security centric agenda

D.

Compliance centric agenda

Question 121

Which of the following conditions would be the MOST probable reason for a security project to be rejected by the executive board of an organization?

Options:

A.

The Net Present Value (NPV) of the project is positive

B.

The NPV of the project is negative

C.

The Return on Investment (ROI) is larger than 10 months

D.

The ROI is lower than 10 months

Question 122

Annual Loss Expectancy is derived from the function of which two factors?

Options:

A.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Asset Value

B.

Single Loss Expectancy and Exposure Factor

C.

Safeguard Value and Annual Rate of Occurrence

D.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Single Loss Expectancy

Question 123

Which type of physical security control scan a person’s external features through a digital video camera before

granting access to a restricted area?

Options:

A.

Iris scan

B.

Retinal scan

C.

Facial recognition scan

D.

Signature kinetics scan

Question 124

If the result of an NPV is positive, then the project should be selected. The net present value shows the present

value of the project, based on the decisions taken for its selection. What is the net present value equal to?

Options:

A.

Net profit – per capita income

B.

Total investment – Discounted cash

C.

Average profit – Annual investment

D.

Initial investment – Future value

Question 125

Bob waits near a secured door, holding a box. He waits until an employee walks up to the secured door and

uses the special card in order to access the restricted area of the target company. Just as the employee opens

the door, Bob walks up to the employee (still holding the box) and asks the employee to hold the door open so

that he can enter. What is the best way to undermine the social engineering activity of tailgating?

Options:

A.

Post a sign that states, “no tailgating” next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

B.

Issue special cards to access secure doors at the company and provide a one-time only brief description of

use of the special card

C.

Educate and enforce physical security policies of the company to all the employees on a regular basis

D.

Setup a mock video camera next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

Question 126

SCENARIO: Critical servers show signs of erratic behavior within your organization’s intranet. Initial information indicates the systems are under attack from an outside entity. As the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), you decide to deploy the Incident Response Team (IRT) to determine the details of this incident and take action according to the information available to the team.

During initial investigation, the team suspects criminal activity but cannot initially prove or disprove illegal actions. What is the MOST critical aspect of the team’s activities?

Options:

A.

Regular communication of incident status to executives

B.

Eradication of malware and system restoration

C.

Determination of the attack source

D.

Preservation of information

Question 127

Which of the following terms is used to describe countermeasures implemented to minimize risks to physical

property, information, and computing systems?

Options:

A.

Security frameworks

B.

Security policies

C.

Security awareness

D.

Security controls

Question 128

Scenario: You are the newly hired Chief Information Security Officer for a company that has not previously had a senior level security practitioner. The company lacks a defined security policy and framework for their Information Security Program. Your new boss, the Chief Financial Officer, has asked you to draft an outline of a security policy and recommend an industry/sector neutral information security control framework for implementation.

Your Corporate Information Security Policy should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Information security theory

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Incident response contacts

D.

Desktop configuration standards

Question 129

Which of the following is a primary method of applying consistent configurations to IT systems?

Options:

A.

Audits

B.

Administration

C.

Patching

D.

Templates

Question 130

The total cost of security controls should:

Options:

A.

Be equal to the value of the information resource being protected

B.

Be greater than the value of the information resource being protected

C.

Be less than the value of the information resource being protected

D.

Should not matter, as long as the information resource is protected

Question 131

Involvement of senior management is MOST important in the development of:

Options:

A.

IT security implementation plans.

B.

Standards and guidelines.

C.

IT security policies.

D.

IT security procedures.

Question 132

Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates.

What is one proven method to account for common elements found within separate regulations and/or standards?

Options:

A.

Hire a GRC expert

B.

Use the Find function of your word processor

C.

Design your program to meet the strictest government standards

D.

Develop a crosswalk

Question 133

Scenario: An organization has made a decision to address Information Security formally and consistently by adopting established best practices and industry standards. The organization is a small retail merchant but it is expected to grow to a global customer base of many millions of customers in just a few years.

Which of the following frameworks and standards will BEST fit the organization as a baseline for their security program?

Options:

A.

NIST and Privacy Regulations

B.

ISO 27000 and Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards

C.

NIST and data breach notification laws

D.

ISO 27000 and Human resources best practices

Question 134

A system is designed to dynamically block offending Internet IP-addresses from requesting services from a secure website. This type of control is considered

Options:

A.

Zero-day attack mitigation

B.

Preventive detection control

C.

Corrective security control

D.

Dynamic blocking control

Question 135

Scenario: You are the newly hired Chief Information Security Officer for a company that has not previously had a senior level security practitioner. The company lacks a defined security policy and framework for their Information Security Program. Your new boss, the Chief Financial Officer, has asked you to draft an outline of a security policy and recommend an industry/sector neutral information security control framework for implementation.

Which of the following industry / sector neutral information security control frameworks should you recommend for implementation?

Options:

A.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53

B.

Payment Card Industry Digital Security Standard (PCI DSS)

C.

International Organization for Standardization – ISO 27001/2

D.

British Standard 7799 (BS7799)

Question 136

A large number of accounts in a hardened system were suddenly compromised to an external party. Which of

the following is the MOST probable threat actor involved in this incident?

Options:

A.

Poorly configured firewalls

B.

Malware

C.

Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

D.

An insider

Question 137

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

The CISO has implemented remediation activities. Which of the following is the MOST logical next step?

Options:

A.

Validate the effectiveness of applied controls

B.

Validate security program resource requirements

C.

Report the audit findings and remediation status to business stake holders

D.

Review security procedures to determine if they need modified according to findings

Question 138

During the last decade, what trend has caused the MOST serious issues in relation to physical security?

Options:

A.

Data is more portable due to the increased use of smartphones and tablets

B.

The move from centralized computing to decentralized computing

C.

Camera systems have become more economical and expanded in their use

D.

The internet of Things allows easy compromise of cloud-based systems

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Total 461 questions