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IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Dumps

Practice of Internal Auditing Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following should management action plans include at a minimum?

Options:

A.

An implementer for the action plan

B.

An owner of the action plan

C.

The internal auditor's next review date of the action plan

D.

Detailed procedures for the action plan

Question 2

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements best justifies a chief audit executive's request for external consultants to complement internal audit activity (IAA) resources?

Options:

A.

The organization's audit universe is extensive and diverse.

B.

There has been an increase in unanticipated requests for advisory work.

C.

Previous work provided by the external service provider has been of great quality and value.

D.

A recent benchmarking study found that using external service providers is a common practice of similarly-sized IAAs in other organizations.

Question 3

Which of the following internal audit procedures commonly involves sampling?

Options:

A.

Confirmation and financial statement analysis

B.

Reperformance and inspection

C.

Vouching and tracing

D.

Trend analysis and benchmarking

Question 4

Management requested internal audit consulting services. During fieldwork significant control issues were identified by the internal audit team. Which of the following is an appropriate response from the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

End the consulting engagement and report the results to management as planned

B.

Report the significant control issues to senior management and the board and recommend corrective action

C.

Mutually agree with the engagement client on corrective actions

D.

Focus on the consulting engagement and schedule an assurance engagement next to address the control issues

Question 5

As part of internal audit's assistance with an annual external audit, the internal auditors are required to do a preliminary analytical review of an bank account balances. This involves verifying the current year end balances as web as comparing the current year end balances with previous year end balances to highlight significant changes. Which of the following is the most reliable source for verification of the current year end bank balances?

Options:

A.

Bank confirmations

B.

Internal bonk statements

C.

Bank reconciliations as of the end of the year

D.

Bank account general ledger balancer as of the end of the year

Question 6

When forming an opinion on the adequacy of management's systems of internal control, which of the following findings would provide the most reliable assurance to the chief audit executive?

• During an audit of the hiring process in a law firm, it was discovered that potential employees' credentials were not always confirmed sufficiently. This process remained unchanged at the following audit.

• During an audit of the accounts payable department, auditors calculated that two percent of accounts were paid past due. This condition persisted at a follow up audit.

• During an audit of the vehicle fleet of a rental agency, it was determined that at any given time, eight percent of the vehicles were not operational. During the next audit, this figure had increased.

• During an audit of the cash handling process in a casino, internal audit discovered control deficiencies in the transfer process between the slot machines and the cash counting area. It was corrected immediately.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

Question 7

The final internal audit report should be distributed to which of the following individuals?

Options:

A.

Audit client management only

B.

Executive management only

C.

Audit client management, executive management, and others approved by the chief audit executive.

D.

Audit client management, executive management, and any those who request a copy.

Question 8

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?

1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.

2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.

3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

Question 9

An internal auditor used a risk and control matrix to prepare a work program for testing a software release. During the engagement planning stage, he tested the design of

the release procedure as a key control and concluded that the control was not designed well. During the performance stage, he tested the operation of this control and

concluded that it was implemented as designed. Which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

The test of the control design should have occurred at the performance stage.

B.

The test of the operating effectiveness of the control was not necessary.

C.

A risk and control matrix is not appropriate for this type of engagement.

D.

The test of the operating effectiveness of the control should have occurred at the planning stage.

Question 10

Which of the following actives is an internal auditor most likely to perform when establishing the objectives of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Discuss the internal audit risk assessment including applicable risks and objectives with internal audit management

B.

Perform a walk-through of the process under review to determine whether control wore operating, effectively

C.

Identify when controls will be tested and the sampling method to be used based on control risk

D.

Meet with operational management to team about any areas of concern and to agree on the engagement objectives

Question 11

An audit client responded to recommendations from a recent consulting engagement. The client indicated that several recommended process improvements would not be implemented. Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take in response?

Options:

A.

Escalate the unresolved issues to the board, because they could pose significant risk exposures to the organization.

B.

Confirm the decision with management and document this decision in the audit file.

C.

Document the issue in the audit file and follow up until the issues are resolved.

D.

Initiate an assurance engagement on the unresolved issues.

Question 12

Which of the following statements regarding the risk management process' support of the internal audit activity is true?

Options:

A.

The risk management process can provide more extensive internal audit services to the organization if it does not have an internal audit department

B.

The risk management process supports internal audit by evaluating whether critical controls are adequate and effective.

C.

The risk management process can determine whether all significant risks have been identified and are being treated.

D.

The risk management process establishes an organization-specific documented risk management framework.

Question 13

What is the primary objective of an engagement supervisor's review of key activities performed during the engagement?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the engagement is completed on time and within budget

B.

To ensure that all work performed meets acceptable quality standards

C.

To ensure that management has provided suitable responses to all observations

D.

To ensure that management is satisfied with the progress of the engagement

Question 14

Which of the following statements about internal audit's follow-up process is true?

Options:

A.

The nature, timing, and extent of follow-up for assurance engagements is standardized to ensure quality performance.

B.

The actions of external auditors and other external assurance providers is not encompassed by internal audit's follow-up process.

C.

Internal auditors have responsibility for determining if management and the board have implemented the recommended action or otherwise accepted the risk.

D.

The follow-up process must be complete and documented in the working papers in order to conclude the engagement.

Question 15

Which of the following is not an outcome of control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Informal, soft controls are omitted, and greater focus is placed on hard controls.

B.

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructure of an organization is subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvement.

C.

Internal auditors become involved in and knowledgeable about the self-assessment process.

D.

Nonaudit employees become experienced in assessing controls and associating control processes with managing risks.

Question 16

A senior IT auditor is performing an audit of inventory valuation. The auditor misinterprets the sampling results. Which of the following best describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Control risk.

C.

Nonsampling risk.

D.

Residual risk.

Question 17

Which type of assurance engagement is conducted to determine whether a process or area is performing as intended, accomplishing its objectives, and doing so in an efficient and economical way?

Options:

A.

Compliance audit.

B.

Operational audit.

C.

Financial audit.

D.

Provider audit.

Question 18

An internal auditor is planning an engagement at a financial institution. Toe engagement objective is to identify whether loans were granted in accordance with the organization's policies. When of the following approaches would provide the auditor with the best information?

Options:

A.

Randomly select 30 cases of loans and verify whether they were repaid timely and in full

B.

Randomly select 30 cases of loans and validate them against applicable underwriting guidelines

C.

Randomly select 30 employees to complete a survey regarding whether policies and standards are followed

D.

Randomly select several months obtain ageing reports for these months and compare them with the poor year

Question 19

Which of the following recommendation types is most likely to propose the most long-term solutions?

Options:

A.

Condition-based recommendations

B.

Cause-based recommendations

C.

Effect-based recommendations

D.

Root cause-based recommendations

Question 20

According to IIA guidance, organizations have the most influence on which element of fraud?

Options:

A.

Opportunity.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Incentives.

Question 21

Which of the following statements is true regarding the final assurance engagement report issued to management?

Options:

A.

Ratings are only used to assess the condition of an observation made by an internal auditor.

B.

Audit findings may be communicated to management prior to issuance of the final approved audit report.

C.

Communications must be relevant logical, and free from errors before they are disseminated.

D.

The audit report must present the information in the following order (1) audit scope, (2) engagement objectives, and (3) engagement results

Question 22

Following an IT systems audit, management agreed to implement a specific control in one of the IT systems. After a period, the internal auditor followed up and learned that management had not implemented the agreed management action due to the decision to move to another IT system that has built-in controls, which may address the risks highlighted by the internal audit. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to address the outstanding audit recommendation?

Options:

A.

The auditor examines the system documentation of the new system to verify that the risk has been addressed in the new system, then reports to senior management the closure of the issue.

B.

The auditor accepts management's explanation that the previously identified issue is adequately addressed by the new IT system, as management understands the concern and is most knowledgeable about the new system, and closes the outstanding issue.

C.

The auditor advises management that replacing the IT system does not dismiss the prior obligation to implement the agreed action plan, and escalates the issue to senior management and the board.

D.

The auditor requires management to provide details regarding the process for selecting the new IT system and whether other systems were evaluated, and closure of the issue would depend on the new information provided.

Question 23

An engagement work program o of greatest value to audit management when which of the following is true?

Options:

A.

The work program provides more detailed support for the audit report

B.

The work program helps determined the required amount of audit resources

C.

The work program helps ensure tie achievement of the engagement objectives

D.

The work program assists the auditor n developing and managing audit tests

Question 24

An internal auditor wants to compare performance information from one quarter to another. Which analytics procedure would the auditor use?

Options:

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Vertical analysis

D.

Benchmarking analysis

Question 25

A chief audit executive (CAE) a developing a work program for an upcoming engagement that will review an organization’s small contracting services. When of the following would the CAT need to consider most when developing the work program?

Options:

A.

The contracting department's staffing changes within the last year

B.

The certifications held by the internal auditors assigned to the engagement

C.

The internal audit activity's increase n budget and staffing for the year

D.

The organization's recent changes to how it processes payments

Question 26

Internal auditors map a process by documenting the steps in the process, which provides a framework for understanding. Which of the following is a reason to use narrative memoranda?

Options:

A.

To create a detailed risk assessment.

B.

To identify individuals who perform key roles.

C.

To explain a simple process.

D.

To document which outputs support other activities.

Question 27

A chief audit executive (CAE) reviews the supervision of an internal audit engagement Which of the following would most likely assure the CAE that the engagement had adequate supervision?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor has an open door pokey for audit team members to discuss concerns

B.

The supervisor reviews weekly progress reports from the audit team members

C.

The supervisor reviews and initials internal audit workpapers for the engagement

D.

The supervisor meets periodically with management in the reviewed area to get feedback during the engagement.

Question 28

Which of The following best describes a risk that is deemed "unacceptable" to the organization?

Options:

A.

A risk where likelihood and impact are high

B.

A risk where inherent risk exceeds its residual risk

C.

A risk where inherent risk exceeds the tolerance level

D.

A risk where residual risk exceeds the tolerance level

Question 29

Management has taken immediate action to address an observation received during an audit of the organization's manufacturing process Which of the following is true regarding the validity of the observation closure?

Options:

A.

Valid closure requires evidence that ensures the corrected process will function as expected in the future

B.

Valid closure requires the client lo address not only the condition, but also the cause of the condition

C.

Valid closure of an observation ensures it will be included in the final engagement report

D.

Valid closure requires assurance from management that the original problem will not recur in the future

Question 30

The chief audit executive (CAE) should determine whether the internal audit activity has confirmed the status of all of management's corrective actions Doing so would help the CAE assess which of the following?

Options:

A.

Disclosure risk.

B.

Residual risk

C.

Compliance risk

D.

Inherent risk

Question 31

According to the Standards, which of the following is true regarding the auditor's inclusion of management's satisfactory performance in the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Acknowledgement of satisfactory performance is encouraged but not required.

B.

There are no standards to address the inclusion of satisfactory performance.

C.

Satisfactory performance should only be acknowledged with the advice of corporate counsel.

D.

Auditors must include satisfactory performance with the approval of the board.

Question 32

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors and other assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Assurance providers who report to management and/or are part of management cannot provide control serf-assessments services

B.

Internal auditors should always reperform and validate audit work completed by external assurance providers

C.

Internal auditors may rely on the work of internal compliance teams to expand their coverage of the organization without increasing direct audit

D.

hours Internal auditors can rely on the work of other assurance providers only rf the other assurance providers report directly to the board

Question 33

Which of the following information is most appropriate for the chief audit executive to share when coordinating audit plans with other internal and external assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Objectives scope and timing at a high level to support coordination while adhering to confidentiality requirements

B.

The area and timing of the audit engagement to ensure confidentially and avoid conflict of interest.

C.

All plan information, including risk assessments, planned tests and past results to maximize the opportunity for coordination with internal and external providers.

D.

No information should be shared with internal and external provider as it could introduce bias into the engagement results.

Question 34

Which of the following best describes the manual audit procedure known as vouching?

Options:

A.

Testing the validity of information by following it backward to a previously prepared record

B.

Testing the accuracy of the control by reperforming the task or process required

C.

Soliciting and obtaining written verification of the accuracy from an independent third party

D.

Testing the completeness of information forward from a record to a subsequently prepared document

Question 35

Due to emerging new technologies that greatly affect the organization, the chief audit executive (CAE) wants to conduct frequent IT audit and is particularly focused on improving the quality of these engagements. Which of the following is the most viable solution for the CAE to ensure that IT audit quality is immediately enhanced and maintained long-term?

Options:

A.

Each year send a different member of the internal audit staff to an IT audit conference to learn about emerging technologies

B.

Contract an external IT special to offer advice and consult on IT audits

C.

Employ an independent external IT specialist to perform IT audits for the first year

D.

Invite qualified staff from the IT department to serve as guest auditors and lead IT audits

Question 36

The internal audit activity plans to assess the effectiveness of management's self-assessment activities regarding the risk management process. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Review corporate policies and board minutes for examples of risk discussions.

B.

Conduct interviews with line and senior management on current practices.

C.

Research and review relevant industry information concerning key risks.

D.

Observe and test control and monitoring procedures and related reporting.

Question 37

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 38

It is close to the fiscal year end for a government agency, and the chief audit executive (CAE) has the following items to submit to either the board or the chief executive officer (CEO) for approval. According to IIA guidance, which of the following items should be submitted only to the CEO?

Options:

A.

The internal audit risk assessment and audit plan for the next fiscal year.

B.

The internal audit budget and resource plan for the coming fiscal year.

C.

A request for an increase of the CAE's salary for the next fiscal year.

D.

The evaluation and compensation of the internal audit team.

Question 39

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor discovered that a sales manager approved numerous sales contracts for values exceeding his authorization limit. The auditor reported the finding to the audit supervisor, noting that the sales manager had additional new contracts under negotiation. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

The audit supervisor should include the new contracts in the finding for the final audit report.

B.

The audit supervisor should communicate the finding to the supervisor of the sales manager through an interim report.

C.

The audit supervisor should remind the sales manager of his authority limit for the contracts under negotiation.

D.

The auditor should not reference the new contracts, because they are not yet signed and therefore cannot be included in the final report.

Question 40

According to IIA guidance, which of the following procedures would be least effective in managing the risk of payroll fraud?

Options:

A.

The employee’s name listed on organization’s payroll is compared to the personnel records.

B.

Payroll time sheets are reviewed and approved by the timekeeper before processing.

C.

Employee access to the payroll database is deactivated immediately upon termination.

D.

Changes to payroll are validated by the personnel department before being processed.

Question 41

A large investment organization hired a chief risk officer (CRO) to be responsible for the organization's risk management processes. Which of the following people should prioritize risks to be used for the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Operational management, because they are responsible for the day-to-day management of the operational risks.

B.

The CRO, because he is responsible for coordinating and project managing risk activities based on his specialized skills and knowledge.

C.

The chief audit executive, although he is not accountable for risk management in the organization.

D.

The CEO, because he has ultimate responsibility for ensuring that risks are managed within the agreed tolerance limits set by the board.

Question 42

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be considered necessary for a one-person audit function?

Options:

A.

A formalized technical audit manual

B.

A written administrative audit manual

C.

A memorandum stating policies and procedures

D.

A comprehensive policy and procedure manual

Question 43

Which of the following represents the best method for confirming that vendor invoices were for authorized purchases?

Options:

A.

Vouching vendor invoices to payments made.

B.

Sorting invoices by purchase orders and comparing for successive duplicate invoices.

C.

Comparing a random sample of vendor invoices to purchase orders.

D.

Sorting payments by invoice to detect successive duplicate invoices.

Question 44

The audit plan requires a review of the testing procedures used in pre-production of a large information system prior to its live launch. If the chief audit executive (CAE) is uncertain that the current audit team has all the required knowledge to conduct the engagement, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take to preserve independence?

Options:

A.

Contract with the software vendor to provide an appropriate resource.

B.

Ask for a knowledgeable resource from the IT department.

C.

Make use of an external service provider.

D.

Request audit resources through the external auditor.

Question 45

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the use of flowcharts as an audit tool?

Options:

A.

Flowcharts are typically not well suited to support information provided by a risk and control matrix.

B.

Flowcharts are preferred to narratives, as they can provide much greater detail on the design and operation of a process.

C.

Flowcharts are best applied to linear process flows but cannot address all risks related to the process.

D.

Flowcharts describe process steps but cannot provide the level of detail needed to adequately assess the design of the process.

Question 46

In an organization with a large internal audit activity that has several audit teams performing engagements simultaneously which of the following tasks is an engagement supervisor most likely to perform during the planning phase of a new engagement?

Options:

A.

Establish a means for resolving any professional judgment differences over ethical issues that may arise during the engagement.

B.

Approve the engagement work program to ensure the program is designed to achieve the engagement objectives

C.

Evaluate whether the testing and results support the engagement results and conclusion

D.

Review the sample testing results for exceptions.

Question 47

Which of the following factors should a chief audit executive consider when determining the audit universe?

1. Components of the organization's strategic plan.

2. Inputs from senior management and the board.

3. Views of competitors and business associates.

4. Results of exit interviews with departing employees.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 48

The audit committee has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to conduct an ad hoc forensic investigation of the purchasing department within a month due to the significance and urgency of a recently discovered risk The internal audit activity currently has no available staff with relevant experience or qualifications Which of the following is the CAE's best option for fulfilling the internal audit activity's responsibilities in this case?

Options:

A.

Outsource the investigation to independent professional consultants

B.

Select certain internal auditors and remove them from their current assignments so that they can begin a forensic investigation course

C.

Recruit additional internal auditors possessing relevant qualification and experience

D.

Decline the engagement at this time

Question 49

Acceding to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the risk assessment process performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The assessment of high-level risks is typically a linear process.

B.

Management should create the preliminary risk matrix

C.

The analysis should begin with ne identification of objectives

D.

Likelihood should receive greater consideration than impact

Question 50

What is the primary reason that audit supervision includes approval of the engagement report?

Options:

A.

To ensure the objectives of the area under review are met.

B.

To ensure senior management supports the report's conclusions.

C.

To ensure report style and grammar are appropriate.

D.

To ensure report findings are substantiated.

Question 51

Which of the following would be the most reliable source of documentary evidence?

Options:

A.

Confirmation letters.

B.

Remittance advices.

C.

Policy statements.

D.

Canceled checks.

Question 52

The head of customer service asked the chief audit executive (CAE) whether eternal auditors could assist her staff with conducting a risk self-assessment in the customer service department. The CAE promised to meet with customer service managers analyze relevant business processes, and come up with a proposal. Who is most likely to be the final approver of the engagement objectives and scope?

Options:

A.

Senior management of the organization

B.

The chief audit executive

C.

The head of customer service

D.

The board of directors

Question 53

According to IIA guidance, when would an interim report typically be produced?

Options:

A.

During a standard audit engagement when management wants to address an issue before the final report is drafted.

B.

Following each workshop conducted during a consulting engagement.

C.

During lengthy audit engagements involving several organizational units.

D.

Following management's update tor actions taken on outstanding recommendations.

Question 54

According to IIA guidance, which of the following reflects a characteristic of sufficient and reliable information?

Options:

A.

The establishment of an audit approach and documentation system

B.

The standardization of workpaper terminology and notations

C.

The ability to reach consistent audit conclusions regardless of who performs the audit

D.

The application of documentation standards m an appropriate and consistent manner

Question 55

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations.

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagement’s planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques.

Question 56

Which of the following is an inherent risk of issuing an opinion on the overall effectiveness of internal control?

Options:

A.

The results of individual engagements do not support a satisfactory opinion on the effectiveness of internal control.

B.

The results of the individual engagements do not support a positive assurance opinion on the effectiveness of internal control

C.

The audit risk and associated legal implications increase

D.

The reliance on other assurance providers increases

Question 57

What type of audit engagement would be the most appropriate to determine how an organization could be more profitable in the long term?

Options:

A.

Operational audit

B.

Compliance and financial audit

C.

Performance audit

D.

Quality audit

Question 58

During follow-up. the internal auditor discovered that operational management did not implement effective actions to address a significant control breach If the issue is left unresolved it may result in regulatory sanctions and damage the organization's reputation What is the most appropriate next step for the chief audit executive to lake?

Options:

A.

Report the matter to the board

B.

Implement the recommended control to address the exposure

C.

Discuss the matter with senior management

D.

Ask the regulatory agency to persuade management to address the issue

Question 59

An internal auditor is preparing for an auditor of newly implemented software that is used by 3,000 employees in South America and Europe. What would be the best way for the auditor to gather relevant feedback?

Options:

A.

interview IT management in both regions

B.

Inspect regional user software training records

C.

Interview propel management and the vendor responsible for implementation

D.

Distribute surveys to software users in both regions

Question 60

An internal auditor was assigned to review controls in the accounts payable function. Most of tie accounts payable processes are performed by a third-party service provider. The auditor included in the audit report a number of control deficiencies involving processes performed by the service provider. The service provider requested a copy of the report Which of Vie following would be the most appropriate response from the chief audit executive (CAE)?

Options:

A.

The CAE would automatically sand a copy of the report to the service provider as many of the findings relate to Via area managed by the service provider

B.

The CAE may distribute the report to tie service provider at no cost, after consulting with legal counsel and tie chief compliance officer

C.

The CAE may provide a copy of the audit report to the service provider If an agreement & signed and the service provider agrees to reimburse the cost of the audit

D, The CAE should benchmark with other organization in the industry by consorting with colleagues and distribute the report only I it is an acceptable practice m the industry

Question 61

An internal auditor is asked to review a recently completed renovation to a retail outlet. Which of the following would provide the most reliable evidence that the completed work conformed to the plan?

Options:

A.

An interview with the employee who performed the work

B.

An analysis of purchasing and receiving documentation

C.

Existence of a signed completion document accepting the work

D.

A physical inspection of the retail outlet.

Question 62

According to IIA guidance, which of the following should be a primary objective for an internal auditor who is conducting an exit conference?

Options:

A.

Improve relations with the engagement clients.

B.

Present the final engagement communication.

C.

Identify concerns for future audit engagements.

D.

Ensure the accuracy of engagement conclusions.

Question 63

Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?

Options:

A.

It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.

B.

If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing procedures during the planning phase.

C.

The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be kept confidential until the audit report is final.

D.

Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit client's business objectives.

Question 64

The chief audit executive can illustrate the value of the internal audit activity by reporting which of the following to the board?

Options:

A.

The overall performance resulting from the internal audit balanced scorecard

B.

The number of outstanding and overdue management actions

C.

The experience of the organization's internal auditors

D.

The number of audits in the annual audit plan relative to similar organizations

Question 65

According to IIA guidance, which of the following typically serves as the basis for an engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Past audit findings.

B.

Scope and audit objectives.

C.

Techniques and resources.

D.

Stakeholders' expectations.

Question 66

Which of the following are advantages of flowcharts over internal control questionnaires''

1 Flowcharts reduce the need to test whether employees are observing internal control processes

2 Flowcharts provide a visual depiction of the processes in the area under review 3. Flowcharts identify and prioritize internal control design weaknesses.

4 Flowcharts highlight the control points to help internal auditors evaluate control design

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1.2. and 3 only

D.

2. 3 and 4 only

Question 67

An internal auditor collected several employee testimonials Which of the following is the best action for the internal auditor to take before drawing a conclusion?

Options:

A.

Ensure the testimonials are well documented

B.

Substantiate the testimonials with physical or documentary evidence

C.

Corroborate testimonials with the results from other soft control techniques

D.

Review the testimonials with the interviewed employees

Question 68

Which of the following is the most appropriate approach for the internal audit activity to follow up on management action plans?

Options:

A.

Create a tracking system for follow up

B.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed at least weekly.

C.

Delegate follow-up activities to qualified administrative staff within the business unit

D.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed by the most senior auditor on staff

Question 69

During the review of an organization's retail fraud deterrence program, an employee mentions that an expensive fraud surveillance information system is rarely used. The internal auditor concludes that additional staff are required to properly utilize the system to its full potential. According to IIA guidance, which criteria for evidence is most lacking to reach this conclusion?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Reliability.

C.

Relevancy.

D.

Usefulness.

Question 70

According to the theory of constraints, which of the following is most influenced by various bottlenecks the organization encounters?

Options:

A.

Manufacturing.

B.

Profitability.

C.

Overheads.

D.

Quality.

Question 71

Which of the following would most likely cause an internal auditor to consider adding fraud work steps to the audit program?

Options:

A.

Improper segregation of duties.

B.

Incentives and bonus programs.

C.

An employee's reported concerns.

D.

Lack of an ethics policy.

Question 72

While conducting an information security audit, an internal auditor learns that the existing disaster recovery plan is four years old and untested. The auditor also learns that in the four years since the recovery plan was implemented, the information systems have undergone extensive changes. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform management and request that the plan be tested immediately.

B.

Update the recovery plan for management, as part of the review.

C.

Evaluate the recovery plan and report weaknesses to management.

D.

Recommend that management and users update and test the recovery plan.

Question 73

The internal audit activity has requested that new vendor information be summarized once per week in a single report, and that all invoices each week for these vendors be automatically flagged in the invoice processing system. Which of the following computerized audit techniques is the internal audit activity most likely applying?

Options:

A.

Enabling continuous auditing.

B.

Employing generalized audit software.

C.

Facilitating electronic workpapers.

D.

Using machine learning.

Question 74

At a construction company, an internal auditor is planning an audit of the company's process for designing and building grid connections The process involves customers making payments m three parts

• The first payment of 10% after approval of the customer s application

• The second payment of 70% prior to construction

• The third payment of 20% after construction is complete

Which of the following key controls should the auditor test to ensure that the company is not taking any unwanted credit risks?

Options:

A.

Controls that ensure that grid connection design is finalized before construction is approved to begin

B.

Controls that ensure construction orders are initiated after the second invoice is paid

C.

Controls that ensure all three invoices are calculated correctly according to the total project cost

D.

Controls that ensure that applications are verified for approval prior to initiating design and construction

Question 75

Which of the following best exemplifies having effective risk management and internal control processes?

Options:

A.

Relevant risk indicators and mitigation plans are in place

B.

All risks are identified and assessed

C.

Business profitability is likely to be achieved

D.

Risk information is communicated to customers and suppliers

Question 76

When constructing a staffing schedule for the internal audit activity (IAA), which of the following criteria are most important for the chief audit executive to consider for the effective use of audit resources?

1. The competency and qualifications of the audit staff for specific assignments.

2. The effectiveness of IAA staff performance measures.

3. The number of training hours received by staff auditors compared to the budget.

4. The geographical dispersion of audit staff across the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 77

The internal audit activity is planning an assurance engagement for a foreign subsidiary. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be included in the preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement, the estimated time frame, and the names of the auditors.

B.

The estimated time frame, the names of the auditors, and the resources and travel budget.

C.

The names of the auditors, the resources and travel budget, and the scope of the engagement.

D.

The resources and travel budget, the scope of the engagement, and the estimated time frame.

Question 78

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of internal control questionnaires (ICOs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are efficient because they minimize the need for follow-up with survey respondents

B.

Controls with positive survey responses can be eliminated from further testing

C.

Answers to survey questions can be easily misinterpreted

D.

ICQs offer limited value for organizations with uniform procedures

Question 79

An organization's healthcare insurance costs have been rising approximately 10 percent per year for several years. Which of the following analytical review procedures would best evaluate the reasonableness of the increase in healthcare costs?

Options:

A.

Develop a comparison of the costs incurred with similar costs incurred by other organizations.

B.

Obtain the government index of healthcare costs for the comparable period of time and compare the rate of increase with that of the cost per employee incurred by the organization.

C.

Obtain a bid from another healthcare administrator to provide the same administrative services as the current healthcare administrator.

D.

Review all claims and compare with appropriate procedures to ensure that overpayments have not occurred.

Question 80

The chief audit executive (CAE) determined that the internal audit activity lacks the resources needed to complete the internal audit plan Which of the following would be the most appropriate action tor the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Use guest auditors from within the organization, and leverage their experience by assigning them to lead engagements m areas where they previously worked

B.

Outsource some of the audits to the organization s external auditor who is already familiar with the organization

C.

Invite nonauditors to join the internal audit activity for a two-year rotational position, and assign them to join audit teams that are reviewing areas where they have no previous management responsibility

D.

Recruit recent college graduates and employ them as audit interns with an aim to offer permanent employment

Question 81

After concluding a preliminary assessment, the engagement supervisor prepared a draft work program According to HA guidance which of the following would be tested by this program?

Options:

A.

The process objectives.

B.

The process risks

C.

The process controls

D.

The process scope

Question 82

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization's strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization's business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

Question 83

Which of the following statements is true regarding risk assessments, including the evaluation and prioritization of risk and control factors?

Options:

A.

A risk-by-process matrix enables the user to determine associations between any of the processes and the risks.

B.

The risk-factor approach for linking business processes and risks is more direct than the use of a risk-by-process matrix.

C.

Internal risk factors are built into the environment and the nature of the process itself.

D.

A risk map is used primarily to depict which risks will be reduced and which will be shared.

Question 84

According to the Standards, which of the following is leastimportant in determining the adequacy of an annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Appropriateness.

C.

Effective deployment.

D.

Cost effectiveness.

Question 85

Which of the following is an appropriate activity when supervising engagements?

Options:

A.

During engagement planning, the audit work program should be discussed between auditors and the engagement supervisor with the supervisor approving the work program.

B.

During fieldwork, scope changes made to the work program are at the auditor's discretion and should be supported adequately in the workpapers.

C.

Engagement supervision is most critical to the fieldwork and reporting phases of the audit, as this is where the majority of the work takes place.

D.

A degree of high supervision to no supervision may be provided to an auditor depending on his level of competence and the complexity of the engagement.

Question 86

Which of the following is the primary reason an internal auditor would issue an interim report during an engagement?

Options:

A.

To provide a status update on a short engagement to management of the area under review and to the audit supervisor.

B.

To confirm agreement with preliminary observations and conclusions identified during the engagement.

C.

To provide those responsible for the area under review with the opportunity to act on certain observations immediately.

D.

To verify that the corrective actions required by senior management are completed as agreed.

Question 87

Which of the following is a significant governance issue that should be reported by the chief audit executive to the board?

Options:

A.

There is no risk management and control process and risk management is solely tie responsibility of operational managers

B.

The organisation’s code of conduct is distributed to employees each year however employees are not required to attest that they will operate In compliance with the code.

C.

Reconciliation of planned board meeting agendas to meeting minutes finds that one meeting was canceled, and the agenda topics were covered at the following meeting.

D.

The review of the five-year strategic plan shows that the details of the plan have not been dearly communicated to employees throughout the organization

Question 88

Upon concluding the engagement fieldwork an internal auditor discusses the audit findings with operational management There is a greater likelihood that the auditor will obtain a responsive action plan from management when both parties agree on which of the following attributes of the audit finding?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Condition

C.

Cause

D.

Effect

Question 89

The chief audit executive (CAE) is developing a workpaper preparation policy for a new internal audit activity. The CAE wants to ensure that all workpapers relate directly to the engagement objectives. Which of the following statements should be included in the policy specifically to address this concern?

Options:

A.

The workpapers should be understandable.

B.

The workpapers should be relevant.

C.

The workpapers should be economical.

D.

The workpapers should be complete.

Question 90

Which of the following would present the most critical external risk to an organization?

Options:

A.

The organization experiences a merger, and the management team is reorganized and redistributed globally

B.

The organization launches a product into new global markets

C.

After minimal testing, the organization implements a new system to replace a legacy system

D.

Regulators announce broad legislative reforms applicable to the industry within which the organization operates

Question 91

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

Question 92

According to MA guidance, which of the following factors should an internal auditor consider when assessing the likelihood of fraud risk1?

Options:

A.

The effect on the organization's reputation

B.

Any potential damage to the organization's relationship with customers.

C.

Past fraud allegations and actual occurrences

D.

The potential and realized financial impacts

Question 93

Which of the following is the primary reason for internal auditors to conduct interim communications with management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate good project oversight

B.

To provide timely discussion of results

C.

To demonstrate internal auditor proficiency

D.

To follow up on previously requested information

Question 94

The external auditor has identified a number of production process control deficiencies involving several departments. As a result, senior management has asked the internal audit activity to complete internal control training for all related staff. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to follow?

Options:

A.

Refuse to accept the consulting engagement because it would be a violation of independence.

B.

Collaborate with the external auditor to ensure the most efficient use of resources.

C.

Accept the engagement but hire an external training specialist to provide the necessary expertise.

D.

Accept the engagement even if the audit engagement staff was previously responsible for operational areas being trained.

Question 95

Which of the following is not a primary reason for outsourcing a portion of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To gain access to a wider variety of skills, competencies and best practices.

B.

To complement existing expertise with a required skill and competency for a particular audit engagement.

C.

To focus on and strengthen core audit competencies.

D.

To provide the organization with appropriate contingency planning for the internal audit function.

Question 96

New environmental regulations require the board to certify that the organization's reported pollutant emissions data is accurate. The chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an audit to provide assurance over the organization's compliance with the environmental regulations. Which of the following groups or individuals is most important for the CAE to consult to determine the scope of the audit?

Options:

A.

The audit committee of the board.

B.

The environmental, health, and safety manager.

C.

The organization's external environmental lawyers.

D.

The organization's insurance department.

Question 97

A healthcare organization's chief audit executive (CAE) noted that the organization's IT team relies heavily on a vendor. Therefore an IT vendor assessment review was added to the annual audit plan. During the review, the audit team discovered that the vendor had not been performing proper monitoring to ensure that the subcontractors it hired comply with the organization requirements. The organization's chief information officer (ClO) does not agree with the audit team's recommendation for the IT team to monitor the compliance level of vendor subcontractors. How should the audit team proceed to resolve this situation?

Options:

A.

Write a risk acceptance memo for the CIO to sign acknowledging the observation and indicating a willingness to accept the risk.

B.

Provide an example of the attestation form that vendors must use. Then, recommend that the IT team require vendors to submit the attestation form on a regular basis.

C.

Escalate the issue to the audit committee, as the CIO is unwilling to implement the recommended action plan.

D.

Escalate the issue to the CAE to assess whether the ClO's reasoning is acceptable.

Question 98

An internal auditor reviewed bank reconciliations prepared by management of the area under review. The auditor noted that the bank statements attached did not have the

bank heading, logo, or address. Which of the following statements is true regarding this situation?

Options:

A.

The evidence may not be reliable.

B.

The evidence is not relevant.

C.

The evidence may not be sufficient.

D.

The information missing is not relevant to the audit.

Question 99

Which method of examining entity-level controls involves gathering information from work groups that represent different levels in an organization?

Options:

A.

Questionnaires.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Structured interviews

D.

Facilitated team workshops

Question 100

Senior management requested that the internal audit activity perform a consulting project to assist in making a decision on a new software system. Which of the following would be used to determine the engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

An assessment of risks to the business objectives

B.

An understanding of the engagement client's expectations

C.

The probability of significant errors fraud or noncompliance

D.

Criteria previously established by the board

Question 101

An internal auditor is asked to determine why the production line for a large manufacturing organization has been experiencing shutdowns due to unavailable pacts The auditor learns that production data used for generating automatic purchases via electronic interchange is collected on personal computers connected by a local area network (LAN) Purchases are made from authorized vendors based on both the production plans for the next month and an authorized materials requirements plan (MRP) that identifies the parts needed per unit of production The auditor suspects the shutdowns are occurring because purchasing requirements have not been updated for changes in production techniques. Which of the following audit procedures should be used to test the auditor's theory?

Options:

A.

Compare purchase orders generated from test data input into the LAN with purchase orders generated from production data for the most recent period

B.

Develop a report of excess inventory and compare the inventory with current production volume

C.

Compare the pans needed based on current production estimates and the MRP for the revised production techniques with the purchase orders generated from the system for the same period

D.

Select a sample of production estimates and MRPs for several periods and trace them into the system to determine that input is accurate

Question 102

The internal audit activity has become aware of public complaints regarding the sales practices of telephone marketing personnel in a large organization. The internal auditors decide to review a sample of all complaints within the last three months to ensure they are reflective of current marketing practices. Which of the following best describes this sampling technique?

Options:

A.

Judgmental sampling

B.

Random sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Statistical sampling

Question 103

A chief audit executive (CAE) received a detailed internal report of senior management's internal control assessment. Which of the following subsequent actions by the CAE would provide the greatest assurance over management's assertions?

Options:

A.

Assert whether the described and reported control processes and systems exist.

B.

Assess whether senior management adequately supports and promotes the internal control culture described in the report.

C.

Evaluate the completeness of the report and management's responses to identified deficiencies.

D.

Determine whether management's operating style and the philosophy described in the report reflect the effective functioning of internal controls.

Question 104

The chief audit executive of a medium-sized financial institution is evaluating the staffing model of the internal audit activity (IAA). According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most appropriate strategies to maximize the value of the current IAA resources?

• The annual audit plan should include audits that are consistent with the skills of the IAA.

• Audits of high-risk areas of the organization should be conducted by internal audit staff.

• External resources may be hired to provide subject-matter expertise but should be supervised.

• Auditors should develop their skills by being assigned to complex audits for learning opportunities.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 105

Due to a recent system upgrade, an audit is planned to test the payroll process. Which of the following audit objectives would be most important to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

Verify that amounts are correct.

B.

Verify that payments are on time.

C.

Verify that recipients are valid employees.

D.

Verify that benefits deductions are accurate.

Question 106

The engagement supervisor would like lo change the audit program's scope poor to beginning fieldwork According to IIA guidance before any change is implemented what is the most important action that should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Document in the engagement workpapers the rationale for changing the scope.

B.

Confirm that the scope change would align to the organization's objectives and goals

C.

Confirm that the internal audit activity continues to have the necessary knowledge and skills

D.

Seek approval from the chief audit executive for the proposed scope change

Question 107

An internal auditor discovered a control weakness that needs to be communicated to management. Which of the following is the best method for first communicating the weakness?

Options:

A.

Draft report, to be reviewed by management just prior to final report issuance.

B.

Preliminary observation document, discussed during the engagement.

C.

Final report, after review by audit management.

D.

Verbal communication during the engagement, followed by the final report issuance.

Question 108

During an internal audit engagement, which of the following is true regarding the decision to use statistical sampling or nonstatistical sampling?

Options:

A.

The decision affects the test procedures performed.

B.

The auditor's response to errors detected will be influenced.

C.

The competence of the evidence obtained is greater with statistical sampling.

D.

Nonstatistical sampling may be more cost effective.

Question 109

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

Question 110

During an entity-level controls assessment, internal auditors deploy an internal control questionnaire to test the controls. Which of the following is a major drawback of this testing method?

Options:

A.

Information obtained by this method can be repudiated.

B.

Information obtained by this method is difficult to quantify.

C.

It is an inefficient method of gathering evidence.

D.

Limited information can be gathered with this method.

Question 111

What information would be most useful to an internal auditor who is attempting to identify specific processes to include in the scope of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Recent organizationwide recognition awards given to employees within the area.

B.

The timing of the most recent audit of the area.

C.

Management's presentation to the board regarding recent area achievements.

D.

Recent area performance indicators against productivity metrics.

Question 112

An internal audit report includes a recommendation to remove inappropriate user access to an IT application. Which of the following does the recommendation represent?

Options:

A.

An agreed action adopted by management.

B.

A condition-based recommendation as an interim solution to correct a current condition.

C.

A cause-based recommendation to prevent inappropriate access being granted again.

D.

A management action plan.

Question 113

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding the exit conference for an internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

A primary purpose of the exit conference is to provide for the timely communication of observations that call for immediate management action.

B.

Both the chief audit executive and the chief executive over the activity or function reviewed must attend the exit conference to validate the findings.

C.

The exit conference provides only anticipated results for inclusion in the final audit communication.

D.

During the exit conference, the performance of the internal auditors who executed the engagement is reviewed.

Question 114

Which of the following evaluation criteria would be the most useful to help the chief audit executive determine whether an external service provider possesses the knowledge, skills, and other competencies needed to perform a review?

Options:

A.

The financial interest the service provider may have in the organization.

B.

The relationship the service provider may have had with the organization or the activities being reviewed.

C.

Compensation or other incentives that may be applicable to the service provider.

D.

The service provider's experience in the type of work being considered.

Question 115

Which of the following activities demonstrates an example of the chief audit executive performing residual risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of management not implementing a recommendation to address an observation.

B.

Inquiry of corrective action to be completed within a certain period.

C.

Reporting the status of every observation for every engagement in a detailed manner.

D.

Soliciting management’s feedback after completion of the audit engagement.

Question 116

An internal auditor s testing tor proper authorization of contracts and finds that the rate of deviations discovered in the sample is equal to the tolerable deviation rate. When of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the internal auditor to make based on this result?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor concludes that management may be placing undue reliance on me specified control

B.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is more effective than it really is.

C.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is acceptably effective

D.

The internal auditor concludes that additional testing will be required to evaluate the specified control

Question 117

Acceding to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing is an assurance service commonly performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Proposing fine item recommendation lot the annual financial budget of the accounting department

B.

Making recommendations regarding financial approval authority limits for the operations department

C.

Validating whether employees are following established policies and procedures in the procurement department

D.

Generating expense report metrics for employees in the finance department

Question 118

An internal auditor plans to conduct a walk-through to evaluate the control design of a process. Which of the following techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

Observation and inspection.

B.

Inquiry and observation.

C.

Inspection and reperformance.

D.

Inquiry and reperformance.

Question 119

The chief risk officer (CRO) of a large manufacturing organization decided to facilitate a workshop for process managers and staff to identify opportunities for improving productivity and reducing defects. Which of the following is the most likely reason the CRO chose the workshop approach?

Options:

A.

It minimizes the amount of time spent and cost incurred to gather the necessary information.

B.

Responses can be confidential, thus encouraging participants to be candid expressing their concerns.

C.

Workshops do not require extensive facilitation skills and are therefore ideal for nonauditors.

D.

Workshop participants have an opportunity to learn while contributing ideas toward the objectives.

Question 120

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are most useful in more organic, decentralized organizations with specialized departmental or regional characteristics.

B.

An ICQ can be used effectively either by sending it in advance for management of the area under review to complete or by testing each procedure and recording the results.

C.

An ICQ is not an efficient tool, as it can only inquire about controls and it does not test them.

D.

ICQs are also known as checklist audits and encourage management of the area under review to answer "no" or "yes" more accurately.

Question 121

What is the purpose of an internal control questionnaire?

Options:

A.

To gather information from a sample of people who are geographically dispersed

B.

To assess risks that could prevent an audited area from achieving its objectives.

C.

To evaluate tie level of compliance of remote offices with centrally designed procedures

D.

To perform testing of controls more frequently

Question 122

'Internal policy prohibits employees from entering into contacts with financial obligations without proper approval.

A project manager signed a change to an important service agreement without obtaining the proper approval As a result the organization is receiving $5,000 per month less for its services.’’

Which of the following should be added to the observation?

Options:

A.

The reason for not following the internal policy

B.

A description of what constitutes proper approval

C.

The annual impact of the changed agreement on cash flows

D.

Details regarding when the change to the agreement was signed

Question 123

When presenting an observation m writing which or the Mowing is usually true regarding the level of detail provided?

1. The description of the observation in the final audit report contains more detail then the description m the engagement workpapers

2. The description of the observation m the engagement workpapers contains more detail than the descriptor n a preliminary observation document

3. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the final audit report

4. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the engagement workpapers

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and3

D.

3 and 4

Question 124

Which of the following is an appropriate documentation of proper engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

A completed engagement workpaper review checklist.

B.

The supervisor's review notes on engagement workpapers.

C.

The email exchanges between the audit team and the supervisor.

D.

A supervisor's approval of resources allocated to the engagement

Question 125

As a result of server managements assumption of risk there is residual risk that exceeds me organisation's risk appetite. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

ignore the responsibility of addressing the residual risk

B.

Assume the responsibility of addressing the residual risk

C.

Ensure senior management acknowledges residual risk

D.

Communicate with the board the issue of residual risk

Question 126

A chief audit executive's report to the board showed a significant trend of recent aud4s going over planned budgeted hours. Which of the following factors could cause this trend?

Options:

A.

Poor engagement supervision

B.

ineffective board reporting

C.

Untimely observation follows up and closure

D.

Limited staff resources

Question 127

Internal audit staff lacks the expertise to perform a fraud investigation engagement stemming from a whistleblowing incident. Which of the following is the most appropriate

option for the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

Appoint an independent fraud investigation specialist to work with the selected internal auditors.

B.

Organize in-house fraud investigation training sessions for selected internal auditors.

C.

Assign an experienced auditor to the engagement for a development opportunity.

D.

Hire a new internal auditor who possesses fraud investigation experience.

Question 128

An internal auditor observes a double payment transaction on a supplier invoice during an accounts payable engagement. Which of the following steps would be the most effective in helping the auditor determine whether fraud exists?

Options:

A.

Switch the existing assurance engagement into a fraud investigation engagement

B.

Extend the audit scope and perform additional testing of controls on other related areas

C.

Review the poor year's transaction volume and amounts paid compared to the poor year's budget

D.

Perform data analytics on the supplier's information, invoiced amounts, and payments performed

Question 129

The final engagement communication contains the following observation:

The internal auditor discovered that three of the 10 contracts reviewed failed to meet the organization's competitive bidding requirements Management explained that senior management deemed these purchases to be critical and awarded them as sole-source."

Which of the following components is missing in the documentation of the observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria.

B.

Effect

C.

Condition

D.

Cause

Question 130

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management's action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

Question 131

Which of the following statements is true regarding a drawback of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

When internal auditors need to cover many control procedures using ICQs is generally less efficient than conducting observations and inspections

B.

It is generally difficult for internal auditors lo compile appropriate ICQs for business activities that are governed by standardized operating procedures

C.

ICQs are inadequate to provide effective assurance on how organizational processes are executed in practice.

D.

It is generally difficult for internal auditors to process completed questionnaires, because ICQs frequently elicit detailed comments and long answers from management

Question 132

Which of the following describes (he primary reason why a preliminary risk assessment is conducted during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To identify the greatest risks organizationwide

B.

To ensure that the engagement work program covers all risk areas

C.

To ensure that risks identified during previous audits of the area have been adequately addressed

D.

To ensure that significant risks are included in the engagement scope

Question 133

Which of the following best describes the guideline for preparing audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Workpapers should be understandable to the auditor in charge and the chief audit executive.

B.

Workpapers should be understandable to the audit client and the board.

C.

Workpapers should be understandable to another internal auditor who was not involved in the engagement.

D.

Workpapers should be understandable to external auditors and regulatory agencies.

Question 134

An audit observation noted that annual inventory counts of biofuel was not being performed appropriately Fuel yards were not visited and physical amounts of biofuel were not reconciled with accounting data Management of the division understood the issue and promised to resolve the problem When should the internal auditor schedule a follow-up review?

Options:

A.

As soon as possible, no later than two months after the audit

B.

When convenient for both parties

C.

When management has indicated that the issue has been resolved

D.

Before financial year end

Question 135

According to IIA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason the chief audit executive (CAE) should actively network and build relationships with senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

To fulfill the CAE's responsibility to keep the board appropriately informed.

B.

To expand the CAE's understanding of management issues.

C.

To help maintain the objectivity of the internal audit activity.

D.

To increase opportunities to demonstrate the internal audit activity performance.

Question 136

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

Options:

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues' workpapers for completeness and format.

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met.

Question 137

Which of the following would most likely prompt special notification from the chief audit executive to same management?

Options:

A.

Operational management has decried to weigh an audit issue against the organization's risk tolerance

B.

A controls inaccurate operation has materially impacted the accuracy of the poor year's financial statements

C.

Occurrences of asset misappropriation have been identified as a result of an ineffective operational control design

D.

The controls that management performed to confirm compliance with health and safety standards were not systematically documented

Question 138

Which of the following is an advantage of an internal audit activity coordinating with a management-defined risk universe?

Options:

A.

Increased completeness, including risk categories like political, supplier, and social media.

B.

Business managers can identify and assess risks that occur within each category.

C.

The internal audit activity can rely on management's risk assessment.

D.

Organizationwide audits are required since risk events within categories occur in many different ways.

Question 139

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true when the internal audit activity is asked to investigate potential ethics violations in a foreign subsidiary?

Options:

A.

Communication of any internal ethics violations to external parties may occur with appropriate safeguards.

B.

Cultural impacts are less critical where the organization practices uniform polices around the globe.

C.

Cross-cultural differences should always be handled by the staff of the same cultural background.

D.

Local law enforcement should be involved as they are more familiar with the applicable local laws.

Question 140

The newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a large multinational corporation, with seasoned internal audit departments located around the world, is reviewing responsibilities for engagement reports. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign every engagement report.

B.

The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign all regulatory compliance engagement reports only

C.

The CAE may delegate responsibility for reviewing, approving and signing engagement reports, but should review the reports after they are issued.

D.

The internal audit charter must identify authorized signers of engagement reports.

Question 141

An internal auditor discovered that equipment used to monitor air quality was not maintained according to the established maintenance schedule. If the issue is not addressed, the equipment may not provide accurate information on pollutant levels, which could result in regulatory sanctions and reputational damage. The auditor discussed the issue with both the manager in charge and the CEO, who explained that they understand the risk, but it has become too expensive to maintain the equipment as scheduled. In this situation, what should the chief audit executive do?

Options:

A.

Add value to the organization by taking initiative and implementing corrective actions to mitigate the identified risks.

B.

Communicate to the board the current situation, including the risk exposure to the organization.

C.

Discuss the matter with external auditors and request that they persuade management to address the issue.

D.

Contact the regulatory agency and inform them of the risk exposure.

Question 142

An internal auditor is assigned to validate calculations on the organization's building application As pad of the test the internal auditor is required to use an automated audit tool to simulate transactions for testing. Which of the following would most appropriately be used for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Generalized audit software.

B.

Utility software

C.

integrated test facilities

D.

Audit expert systems

Question 143

Which of the following statement is consistent with IIA guidance the use of mentoring for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

The member and the internal auditor should opt for informal meetings even if it means that no formal documentation will be created.

B.

The mentor relationship is usually not suitable for internal audit staff, as it does not leas to professional development.

C.

The value of mentoring is derived primarily from the personal relationship between the two parties involved, and the mentor’s level of relevant experience should not be a key factor.

D.

The mentor should be the internal auditor’s supervisor to ensure that the auditor performance is assessed in a relevant and meaningful context.

Question 144

The chief audit executive of an international organization is planning an audit of the treasury function located at the organization's headquarters. The current internal audit team at headquarters lacks expertise in the area of financial markets which is needed tor the engagement When of the following would be the most approbate solution considering the time constraint?

Options:

A.

Outsource the engagement 10 tie organization's external auditor who has expertise in the area of financial markets

B.

Hire additional internal auditors who have expertise in the area of financial markets.

C.

Invite a guest auditor from one of the organization's affiliates who has expertise m the area of financial markets.

D.

Limit the scope of the engagement to the knowledge and skills possessed by the internal audit team.

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Total 482 questions