Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer Questions and Answers
An organization has initiated a project to enhance privacy protections by improving its information security controls. Which of the following is the MOST useful action to help define the scope of the project?
Options:
Review recent audit reports on the internal control environment
Identify databases that contain personal data
Identify databases that do not have encryption in place.
Review proposed privacy rules that govern the processing of personal data
Answer:
DExplanation:
Reviewing proposed privacy rules that govern the processing of personal data is the most useful action to help define the scope of the project because it helps identify the legal and regulatory requirements, the data protection principles and the privacy objectives that the information security controls need to support. Reviewing recent audit reports, identifying databases that contain personal data or do not have encryption in place are helpful actions to assess the current state of privacy and security, but they do not provide a clear direction for the project scope.
References:
- CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 2: Privacy Architecture, Task 2.1: Identify and/or define privacy requirements1
- CDPSE Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer All-in-One Exam Guide, Chapter 3: Privacy Architecture, Section: Privacy Requirements2
Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing an organization-wide strategy to address data privacy risk?
Options:
Obtain executive support.
Develop a data privacy policy.
Gather privacy requirements from legal counsel.
Create a comprehensive data inventory.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Obtaining executive support is the first step in developing an organization-wide strategy to address data privacy risk, as it ensures that the privacy program has the necessary resources, authority, and alignment with the organization’s goals and objectives. Without executive support, the privacy program may face challenges in implementing and enforcing privacy policies, procedures, and controls across the organization. References: 2 Domain 1, Task 1
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective records management program for personal data?
Options:
Archived data is used for future analytics.
The legal department has approved the retention policy.
All sensitive data has been tagged.
A retention schedule is in place.
Answer:
DExplanation:
A retention schedule is a document that specifies how long different types of records or data should be kept and when they should be deleted or disposed of, based on legal, regulatory, operational or historical requirements. A retention schedule is the best indication of an effective records management program for personal data, as it reflects the principles of data minimization and storage limitation, which require limiting the collection, storage and processing of personal data to what is necessary and relevant for the intended purposes, and deleting or disposing of personal data when it is no longer needed or justified. A retention schedule also helps to reduce the privacy risks and costs associated with data storage and retention, such as data breaches, unauthorized access, misuse or loss of data. The other options are not as indicative of an effective records management program for personal data as a retention schedule. Archived data is used for future analytics may indicate that the organization is leveraging its data assets for business intelligence or research purposes, but it may not comply with the principles of data minimization and storage limitation, or the privacy rights and preferences of the data subjects. The legal department has approved the retention policy may indicate that the organization has obtained legal advice or guidance on its records management program for personal data, but it may not reflect the actual implementation or execution of the retention policy. All sensitive data has been tagged may indicate that the organization has implemented a data classification scheme for its records or data, but it may not indicate how long the records or data should be kept or when they should be deleted or disposed of1, p. 99-100 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following is the best reason for a health organization to use desktop virtualization to implement stronger access control to systems containing patient records?
Options:
Limited functions and capabilities of a secured operating environment
Monitored network activities for unauthorized use
Improved data integrity and reduced effort for privacy audits
Unlimited functionalities and highly secured applications
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best reason for a health organization to use desktop virtualization to implement stronger access control to systems containing patient records is that it can improve data integrity and reduce effort for privacy audits. Desktop virtualization is a technology that allows users to access a virtual desktop environment that is hosted on a remote server, rather than on their local device. Desktop virtualization can enhance data privacy by providing stronger access control to systems containing patient records, such as requiring authentication, authorization, encryption, logging, etc. Desktop virtualization can also improve data integrity by ensuring that patient records are stored and processed in a centralized and secure location, rather than on multiple devices that may be vulnerable to loss, theft, damage, or corruption. Desktop virtualization can also reduce effort for privacy audits by simplifying the management and monitoring of data privacy compliance across different devices and locations. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 153
Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the audit log of an application hosting personal data?
Options:
Server details of the hosting environment
Last logins of privileged users
Last user who accessed personal data
Application error events
Answer:
CExplanation:
An audit log is a record of the activities and events that occur in an information system, such as an application hosting personal data. An audit log can help to monitor, detect, investigate and prevent unauthorized or malicious access, use, modification or deletion of personal data. An audit log can also help to demonstrate compliance with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA). An audit log should capture the following information for each event: 9
- The date and time of the event
- The identity of the user or system that performed the event
- The type and description of the event
- The outcome or result of the event
- The personal data that were accessed, used, modified or deleted
The last user who accessed personal data is the most important information to capture in the audit log, as it can help to identify who is responsible for any data breach or misuse of personal data. It can also help to verify that only authorized and legitimate users have access to personal data, and that they follow the data use policy and the principle of least privilege. The last user who accessed personal data can also help to support data subjects’ rights, such as the right to access, rectify, erase or restrict their personal data.
The other options are less important or irrelevant to capture in the audit log of an application hosting personal data. Server details of the hosting environment are not related to personal data, and they can be obtained from other sources, such as network logs or configuration files. Last logins of privileged users are important to capture in a separate audit log for user account management, but they do not indicate what personal data were accessed or used by those users. Application error events are important to capture in a separate audit log for system performance and reliability, but they do not indicate what personal data were affected by those errors.
References:
- IS Audit Basics: Auditing Data Privacy, section 4: “Audit logs should be maintained for all systems that process PII.”
- Data Protection Audit Manual, section 3.2: “Audit trails should be kept for all processing operations involving personal data.”
- Audit Logging Best Practices, section 2: “An audit log entry should contain enough information to answer who did what and when.”
Which of the following BEST illustrates privacy by design in the development of a consumer mobile application?
Options:
The application only stores data locally.
The application shares personal information upon request.
The application only stores data for 24 hours.
The application requires consent before sharing locations.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Privacy by design is an approach that embeds privacy principles and considerations into the design and development of products, services, systems, and processes that involve personal data. Privacy by design aims to protect the privacy and security of the data subjects, as well as to comply with the applicable privacy laws and regulations. One of the key principles of privacy by design is to obtain the consent and choice of the data subjects regarding the collection, use, and disclosure of their personal data. Therefore, the best example of privacy by design in the development of a consumer mobile application is to require consent before sharing locations, as this gives the data subjects control and transparency over their personal data. The other options are not as effective or sufficient as requiring consent before sharing locations, as they do not address the principle of consent and choice, or they may violate other privacy principles or requirements.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 35
An increase in threats originating from endpoints is an indication that:
Options:
network audit frequency should increase.
network protection should be maintained remotely.
extended detection and response should be installed.
credential management should be implemented.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Extended detection and response (XDR) is a security solution that collects and analyzes data from multiple sources, such as endpoints, networks, servers, cloud, and applications, to detect and respond to threats in real time. XDR should be installed to address the increase in threats originating from endpoints, as it provides a holistic and integrated view of the threat landscape, as well as automated and coordinated actions to contain and remediate the threats. XDR also helps to improve the visibility, efficiency, and effectiveness of the security operations, as well as to reduce the complexity and costs of managing multiple security tools.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 149
Which of the following poses the GREATEST privacy risk for client-side application processing?
Options:
Failure of a firewall protecting the company network
An employee loading personal information on a company laptop
A remote employee placing communication software on a company server
A distributed denial of service attack (DDoS) on the company network
Answer:
BExplanation:
The greatest privacy risk for client-side application processing is an employee loading personal information on a company laptop. Client-side application processing refers to performing data processing operations on the user’s device or browser, rather than on a server or cloud. This can improve performance and user experience, but also pose privacy risks if the user’s device is lost, stolen, hacked, or infected with malware. An employee loading personal information on a company laptop is exposing that information to potential threats on the client-side, such as unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or loss. Therefore, an organization should implement appropriate security measures to protect personal information on client-side devices, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, logging, monitoring, etc. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 153
From a privacy perspective, it is MOST important to ensure data backups are:
Options:
encrypted.
incremental.
differential.
pseudonymized
Answer:
AExplanation:
From a privacy perspective, it is most important to ensure data backups are encrypted. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can help protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data backups by preventing unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Encryption can also help comply with legal and regulatory requirements for data protection, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Encryption can be applied to data backups at different levels, such as file-level, disk-level, or network-level encryption.
Incremental backups, differential backups, or pseudonymization are also useful for data backup management, but they are not the most important from a privacy perspective. Incremental backups are backups that only copy the data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was a full, differential, or incremental backup. Incremental backups can help save storage space and time, but they do not directly protect the data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Differential backups are backups that only copy the data that has changed since the last full backup. Differential backups can also help save storage space and time, but they also do not directly protect the data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Pseudonymization is a process of replacing identifying information in data with artificial identifiers or pseudonyms. Pseudonymization can help enhance the privacy of data by reducing the linkability between data and data subjects, but it does not prevent re-identification or inference attacks.
References: Data backups 101: A complete guide for 2023 - Norton, Backup & Secure | U.S. Geological Survey - USGS.gov, The GDPR: How the right to be forgotten affects backups
Which of the following is the BEST way to distinguish between a privacy risk and compliance risk?
Options:
Perform a privacy risk audit.
Conduct a privacy risk assessment.
Validate a privacy risk attestation.
Conduct a privacy risk remediation exercise.
Answer:
BExplanation:
A privacy risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing and evaluating the privacy risks associated with the collection, use, disclosure or retention of personal data. A privacy risk assessment is the best way to distinguish between a privacy risk and compliance risk, as it would help to determine the likelihood and impact of privacy incidents or breaches that could affect the rights and interests of the data subjects, as well as the legal obligations and responsibilities of the organization. A privacy risk assessment would also help to identify and implement appropriate controls and measures to mitigate or reduce the privacy risks and ensure compliance with privacy principles, laws and regulations. The other options are not as effective as conducting a privacy risk assessment in distinguishing between a privacy risk and compliance risk. Performing a privacy risk audit is a process of verifying and validating the effectiveness and adequacy of the privacy controls and measures implemented by the organization, but it does not necessarily identify or evaluate the privacy risks or compliance risks. Validating a privacy risk attestation is a process of confirming and certifying the accuracy and completeness of the privacy information or statements provided by the organization, but it does not necessarily identify or evaluate the privacy risks or compliance risks. Conducting a privacy risk remediation exercise is a process of implementing corrective actions or improvements to address the identified or reported privacy risks or compliance risks, but it does not necessarily distinguish between them1, p. 66-67 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following is a PRIMARY element of application and software hardening?
Options:
Vulnerability analysis
Database configuration
Code review
Software repository
Answer:
CExplanation:
Code review is a primary element of application and software hardening. Code review is a process of examining the source code of an application or software to identify and fix errors, vulnerabilities, or inefficiencies that may compromise its functionality, security, or performance. Code review can help prevent common security risks such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting, or logic flaws. Code review can also help improve the quality, readability, maintainability, and usability of the code. Code review can be done manually by developers or peers, or automatically by tools such as static code analyzers or code quality checkers.
Vulnerability analysis, database configuration, and software repository are also important for application and software hardening, but they are not primary elements. Vulnerability analysis is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses or flaws in an application or software that may expose it to attacks or exploitation. Vulnerability analysis can be done by tools such as vulnerability scanners or penetration testers. Database configuration is a process of setting up and managing the parameters, options, or features of a database system that stores or processes data for an application or software. Database configuration can include aspects such as access control, encryption, backup, recovery, performance tuning, or replication. Software repository is a location where the source code, binaries, or documentation of an application or software are stored and managed. Software repository can facilitate version control, collaboration, distribution, or deployment of the application or software.
References: What is Application Hardening ? - GeeksforGeeks, What is OS Hardening and How Can Developers Implement it, System Hardening: An Easy-to-Understand Overview - Trenton Systems
Which of the following vulnerabilities is MOST effectively mitigated by enforcing multi-factor authentication to obtain access to personal information?
Options:
End users using weak passwords
Organizations using weak encryption to transmit data
Vulnerabilities existing in authentication pages
End users forgetting their passwords
Answer:
AExplanation:
One of the most common vulnerabilities that can compromise the access to personal information is end users using weak passwords. Weak passwords are passwords that are easy to guess, crack, or steal, such as passwords that are short, simple, common, or reused. Weak passwords can allow unauthorized or malicious parties to gain access to personal information and cause privacy breaches, leaks, or misuse. Multi-factor authentication is an effective way to mitigate this vulnerability, as it requires end users to provide more than one piece of evidence to verify their identity, such as something they know (e.g., password), something they have (e.g., token), or something they are (e.g., biometric). Multi-factor authentication makes it harder for attackers to bypass the authentication process and access personal information. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 107
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing a business case for the procurement of a new IT system that will process and store personal information?
Options:
The system architecture is clearly defined.
A risk assessment has been completed.
Security controls are clearly defined.
Data protection requirements are included.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Which types of controls need to be applied to ensure accuracy at all stages of processing, storage, and deletion throughout the data life cycle?
Options:
Processing flow controls
Time-based controls
Purpose limitation controls
Integrity controls
Answer:
DExplanation:
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration to ensure privacy when using big data analytics?
Options:
Maintenance of archived data
Disclosure of how the data is analyzed
Transparency about the data being collected
Continuity with business requirements
Answer:
CExplanation:
Which of the following scenarios should trigger the completion of a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?
Options:
Updates to data quality standards
New inter-organizational data flows
New data retention and backup policies
Updates to the enterprise data policy
Answer:
BExplanation:
A privacy impact assessment (PIA) is a process of analyzing the potential privacy risks and impacts of collecting, using, and disclosing personal data. A PIA should be conducted when there is a change in the data processing activities that may affect the privacy of individuals or the compliance with data protection laws and regulations. One of the scenarios that should trigger the completion of a PIA is when there are new inter-organizational data flows, which means that personal data is shared or transferred between different entities or jurisdictions. This may introduce new privacy risks, such as unauthorized access, misuse, or breach of data, as well as new legal obligations, such as obtaining consent, ensuring adequate safeguards, or notifying authorities.
References:
- PIA Triggers - International Association of Privacy Professionals
- Privacy Impact Assessment - International Association of Privacy Professionals
- GDPR Privacy Impact Assessment
- Data Protection Impact Assessment triggers: Clarity or confusion?
Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to gain visibility into Its exposure to privacy-related vulnerabilities?
Options:
Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) solution.
Review historical privacy incidents in the organization.
Monitor inbound and outbound communications.
Perform an analysis of known threats.
Answer:
DExplanation:
An analysis of known threats is the best way for an organization to gain visibility into its exposure to privacy-related vulnerabilities because it helps identify the sources, methods and impacts of potential privacy breaches and assess the effectiveness of existing controls. A data loss prevention (DLP) solution, a review of historical privacy incidents and a monitoring of inbound and outbound communications are useful tools for detecting and preventing privacy violations, but they do not provide a comprehensive view of the organization’s privacy risk posture.
References:
- CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 1: Privacy Governance, Task 1.4: Coordinate and/or perform privacy impact assessments (PIA) and other privacy-focused assessments1
- CDPSE Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer All-in-One Exam Guide, Chapter 2: Privacy Governance, Section: Privacy Risk Assessment2
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use public key infrastructure (PRI) for protection against a man-in-the-middle attack?
Options:
It uses Transport Layer Security (TLS).
It provides a secure connection on an insecure network
It makes public key cryptography feasible.
It contains schemes for revoking keys.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system that enables the use of public key cryptography, which is a method of encrypting and authenticating data using a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. Public key cryptography can protect against man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks, which are attacks where an attacker intercepts and modifies the communication between two parties. PKI makes public key cryptography feasible by providing a way to generate, distribute, verify, and revoke public keys. PKI also uses digital certificates, which are documents that bind a public key to an identity, and certificate authorities, which are trusted entities that issue and validate certificates. By using PKI, the parties can ensure that they are communicating with the intended recipient and that the data has not been tampered with by an attacker.
References:
- What is Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)? - Fortinet
- How is man-in-the-middle attack prevented in TLS? [duplicate]
- A brief look at Man-in-the-Middle Attacks and the Role of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing policies and procedures for system hardening?
Options:
It increases system resiliency.
It reduces external threats to data.
It reduces exposure of data.
It eliminates attack motivation for data.
Answer:
AExplanation:
System hardening is a process of applying security measures and configurations to a system to reduce its attack surface and enhance its resistance to threats. System hardening can include disabling unnecessary services, removing default accounts, applying patches and updates, enforcing strong passwords and encryption, and implementing firewalls and antivirus software. The primary benefit of system hardening is that it increases system resiliency, which is the ability of a system to withstand or recover from adverse events that could affect its functionality or performance. The other options are not the primary benefits of system hardening, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. System hardening does not necessarily reduce external threats to data, as threats can originate from various sources and vectors. System hardening may reduce exposure of data, but only if the data is stored or processed by the system. System hardening does not eliminate attack motivation for data, as attackers may have different motives and incentives for targeting data. , p. 91-92 References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following helps define data retention time in a stream-fed data lake that includes personal data?
Options:
Privacy impact assessments (PIAs)
Data lake configuration
Data privacy standards
Information security assessments
Answer:
CExplanation:
Data privacy standards are the set of rules, guidelines, and best practices that define the requirements and expectations for the collection, processing, storage, sharing, and disposal of personal data. Data privacy standards help to ensure that personal data is treated in a fair, lawful, transparent, and secure manner, as well as to comply with the applicable privacy laws and regulations. Data privacy standards also help to define the data retention time in a stream-fed data lake that includes personal data, as they specify the criteria and conditions for how long personal data can be kept in the data lake, based on factors such as the purpose, necessity, relevance, and quality of the data. Data retention time is an important aspect of data privacy, as it affects the risk of data breaches, unauthorized access, or misuse of personal data.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 80
An organization is considering the use of remote employee monitoring software. Which of the following is the MOST important privacy consideration when implementing this solution?
Options:
Data should be used to improve employee performance.
Data should be retained per the organization's retention policy
Data access should be restricted based on roles.
Data analysis should be used to set staffing levels
Answer:
CExplanation:
Remote employee monitoring software is a solution that collects, analyzes and reports data on the activities and behaviors of employees who work remotely or from home. It can help organizations to measure and improve employee productivity, performance, engagement and security. However, it also poses significant privacy risks and challenges, as it may involve the collection and processing of personal data, such as names, email addresses, biometric data, IP addresses, keystrokes, screenshots, web browsing history, app usage, communication content and frequency, etc.
Data access should be restricted based on roles, meaning that only authorized and legitimate parties should be able to access and use the data collected by the remote employee monitoring software, based on their roles and responsibilities within the organization. This is a key privacy principle and practice that helps to protect the privacy rights and interests of the employees, and to prevent unauthorized or excessive access, use, disclosure or modification of their personal data by the organization or third parties. Data access restriction based on roles also helps to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), which require data controllers and processors to implement appropriate technical and organizational measures to safeguard personal data.
References:
- Mobile Workforce Security Considerations and Privacy - ISACA, section 3: “The principle of least privilege should be applied to ensure that only authorized personnel have access to the data.”
- Why Employee Privacy Matters More Than Ever - ISACA, section 3: “Privacy-first monitoring should include granular privacy controls, including: Auto-redacting personal information; Restricting access to sensitive information based on role; Masking sensitive information from view.”
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure third-party providers that process an organization's personal data are addressed as part of the data privacy strategy?
Options:
Require data dictionaries from service providers that handle the organization's personal data.
Outsource personal data processing to the same third party
Require independent audits of the providers' data privacy controls
Require service level agreements (SLAs) to ensure data integrity while safeguarding confidentiality
Answer:
CExplanation:
Requiring independent audits of the providers’ data privacy controls is the best way to ensure third-party providers that process an organization’s personal data are addressed as part of the data privacy strategy. Independent audits can verify that the providers are complying with the applicable data privacy laws and regulations, as well as the organization’s own policies and standards. Independent audits can also identify any gaps or weaknesses in the providers’ data privacy controls and recommend corrective actions or improvements.
References:
- What Is Your Privacy and Data Protection Strategy? - ISACA
- Why data privacy and third-party risk teams need to work together - OneTrust
A multi-national organization has decided that regional human resources (HR) team members must be limited in their access to employee data only within their regional office. Which of the following is the BEST approach?
Options:
Discretionary access control (DAC)
Attribute-based access control (ABAC)
Provision-based access control (PBAC)
Mandatory access control (MAC)
Answer:
BExplanation:
Attribute-based access control (ABAC) is the best approach for limiting the access of regional HR team members to employee data only within their regional office, because it allows for fine-grained and dynamic access control based on attributes of the subject, object, environment, and action. Attributes are characteristics or properties that can be used to describe or identify entities, such as users, resources, locations, roles, or permissions. ABAC uses policies and rules that evaluate the attributes and grant or deny access accordingly. For example, an ABAC policy could state that a user can access an employee record if and only if the user’s role is HR and the user’s region matches the employee’s region. This way, the access control can be tailored to the specific needs and context of the organization, without relying on predefined or fixed access levels.
References:
- Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC), NIST
- What is Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)?, Axiomatics
- Access Control Models – Westoahu Cybersecurity, Westoahu Cybersecurity
An online business posts its customer data protection notice that includes a statement indicating information is collected on how products are used, the content
viewed, and the time and duration of online activities. Which data protection principle is applied?
Options:
System use requirements
Data integrity and confidentiality
Lawfulness and fairness
Data use limitation
Answer:
CExplanation:
The data protection principle that is applied when an online business posts its customer data protection notice that includes a statement indicating information is collected on how products are used, the content viewed, and the time and duration of online activities is lawfulness and fairness. Lawfulness and fairness are two of the core principles of data protection under various laws and regulations, such as the GDPR or the CCPA. They state that personal data should be processed lawfully, fairly and in a transparent manner in relation to the data subject. By posting a customer data protection notice that informs customers about what information is collected and for what purpose, the online business demonstrates its compliance with these principles.
System use requirements, data integrity and confidentiality, or data use limitation are not the correct names of the data protection principles that are applied in this case. System use requirements are not a specific principle of data protection, but rather a general term that refers to the rules or policies that govern how users can access and use a system or service. Data integrity and confidentiality are two aspects of the security principle of data protection, which states that personal data should be processed in a manner that ensures appropriate security of the personal data. Data use limitation is not a specific principle of data protection either, but rather a concept that relates to the purpose limitation principle, which states that personal data should be collected for specified, explicit and legitimate purposes and not further processed in a manner that is incompatible with those purposes.
References: A guide to the data protection principles | ICO, Data Protection Principles: Core Principles of the GDPR - Cloudian, Data Protection Basics: The 7 data protection principles
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure privacy considerations are included when working with vendors?
Options:
Including privacy requirements in the request for proposal (RFP) process
Monitoring privacy-related service level agreements (SLAS)
Including privacy requirements in vendor contracts
Requiring vendors to complete privacy awareness training
Answer:
CExplanation:
Including privacy requirements in vendor contracts is the best way to ensure privacy considerations are included when working with vendors because it establishes the obligations, expectations and responsibilities of both parties regarding the protection of personal data. It also provides a legal basis for enforcing compliance and resolving disputes. Including privacy requirements in the request for proposal (RFP) process, monitoring privacy-related service level agreements (SLAs) and requiring vendors to complete privacy awareness training are helpful measures, but they do not guarantee that vendors will adhere to the privacy requirements or that they will be held accountable for any violations.
References:
- CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 1: Privacy Governance, Task 1.7: Participate in the management and evaluation of contracts, service levels and practices of vendors and other external parties1
- CDPSE Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer All-in-One Exam Guide, Chapter 2: Privacy Governance, Section: Vendor Management2
An organization must de-identify its data before it is transferred to a third party Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Options:
Encrypt the data at rest and in motion
Remove the identifiers during the data transfer
Determine the categories of personal data collected
Ensure logging is turned on for the database
Answer:
CExplanation:
Before de-identifying data, it is important to determine the categories of personal data collected, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, social security numbers, health information, and so on. This will help to identify which data elements are considered identifiers or quasi-identifiers, and which de-identification techniques are appropriate for each category. For example, some data elements may need to be removed completely, while others may be masked, generalized, or perturbed.
References:
- Anonymize and De-identify | Research Data Management
- Data De-identification: An Overview of Basic Terms - ed
Data collected by a third-party vendor and provided back to the organization may not be protected according to the organization’s privacy notice. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this concern?
Options:
Review the privacy policy.
Obtain independent assurance of current practices.
Re-assess the information security requirements.
Validate contract compliance.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best way to address the concern that data collected by a third-party vendor and provided back to the organization may not be protected according to the organization’s privacy notice is to validate contract compliance. This means that the organization should verify that the third-party vendor is adhering to the terms and conditions of the contract, which should include clauses on data protection, privacy, and security. The contract should also specify the obligations and responsibilities of both parties regarding data collection, processing, storage, transfer, retention, and disposal. By validating contract compliance, the organization can ensure that the third-party vendor is following the same privacy standards and practices as the organization.
References:
- ISACA, CDPSE Review Manual 2021, Chapter 2: Privacy Governance, Section 2.3: Third-Party Management, p. 51-52.
- ISACA, Data Privacy Audit/Assurance Program, Control Objective 8: Third-Party Management, p. 14-151
An organization want to develop an application programming interface (API) to seamlessly exchange personal data with an application hosted by a third-party service provider. What should be the FIRST step when developing an application link?
Options:
Data tagging
Data normalization
Data mapping
Data hashing
Answer:
CExplanation:
Data mapping is the process of defining how data elements from different sources are related, transformed, and transferred to a common destination. Data mapping is the first step when developing an application link because it helps to ensure that the data exchanged between the API and the third-party application is consistent, accurate, and compatible. Data mapping also helps to identify any gaps, errors, or conflicts in the data and resolve them before the data transfer occurs.
References:
- What is Data Mapping?, Talend
- Data Mapping: What It Is and How to Do It, Xplenty
Which of the following is the BEST way to validate that privacy practices align to the published enterprise privacy management program?
Options:
Conduct an audit.
Report performance metrics.
Perform a control self-assessment (CSA).
Conduct a benchmarking analysis.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The best way to validate that privacy practices align to the published enterprise privacy management program is to conduct an audit. An audit is an independent and objective examination of evidence to provide assurance that privacy practices are effective and compliant with the enterprise privacy management program. An audit can also identify any gaps or weaknesses in the privacy practices and provide recommendations for improvement. An audit can be conducted internally or externally, depending on the scope, objectives, and standards of the audit. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 83
Which of the following assurance approaches is MOST effective in identifying vulnerabilities within an application programming interface (API) transferring personal data?
Options:
Source code review
Security audit
Bug bounty program
Tabletop simulation
Answer:
CExplanation:
A bug bounty program is an assurance approach that involves offering rewards to external security researchers who find and report vulnerabilities in an API or other software. A bug bounty program can be more effective than other assurance approaches in identifying API vulnerabilities because it leverages the skills, creativity, and diversity of a large pool of ethical hackers who can test the API from different perspectives and scenarios. A bug bounty program can also incentivize continuous testing and reporting of vulnerabilities, which can help improve the security posture of the API over time.
References:
- 10 top API security testing tools, CSO Online
- Bug Bounty Programs: What You Need to Know, ISACA Journal
Which of the following is MOST likely to present a valid use case for keeping a customer’s personal data after contract termination?
Options:
For the purpose of medical research
A forthcoming campaign to win back customers
A required retention period due to regulations
Ease of onboarding when the customer returns
Answer:
CExplanation:
Data retention is a process of keeping personal data for a specified period of time for legitimate purposes, such as legal obligations, contractual agreements, business operations or historical records. Data retention should be based on the principle of data minimization, which requires limiting the collection, storage and processing of personal data to what is necessary and relevant for the intended purposes. Data retention should also comply with the principle of storage limitation, which requires deleting or disposing of personal data when it is no longer needed or justified. The most likely valid use case for keeping a customer’s personal data after contract termination is a required retention period due to regulations, such as tax laws, financial laws, health laws or consumer protection laws, that mandate the organization to retain certain types of customer data for a certain period of time after the end of the contractual relationship. The other options are not valid use cases for keeping a customer’s personal data after contract termination, as they do not meet the criteria of necessity, relevance or justification. For the purpose of medical research, the organization would need to obtain the consent of the customer or have another legal basis for processing their personal data for a different purpose than the original contract. A forthcoming campaign to win back customers or ease of onboarding when the customer returns are not legitimate purposes for retaining customer data after contract termination, as they are not related to the original contract and may violate the customer’s privacy rights and preferences. , p. 99-100 References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure the security of encryption keys when transferring data containing personal information between cloud applications?
Options:
Whole disk encryption
Asymmetric encryption
Digital signature
Symmetric encryption
Answer:
BExplanation:
Asymmetric encryption is a method of encrypting and decrypting data using two different keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key is kept secret by the owner. Data encrypted with the public key can only be decrypted with the private key, and vice versa. Asymmetric encryption ensures the security of encryption keys when transferring data containing personal information between cloud applications, by providing the following benefits:
- It can prevent unauthorized access or use of the data, as only the intended recipient who has the matching private key can decrypt the data sent by the sender who has the public key.
- It can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks, where an attacker intercepts and modifies the data or keys in transit, as any tampering with the data or keys will result in decryption failure or error.
- It can enable digital signatures, where the sender encrypts a message digest of the data with their private key, and the recipient verifies it with the sender’s public key. Digital signatures can ensure the authenticity and integrity of the data and the sender.
The other options are less effective or irrelevant for ensuring the security of encryption keys when transferring data containing personal information between cloud applications. Whole disk encryption is a method of encrypting all the data on a disk or device, such as a laptop or a smartphone. It does not protect the data when they are transferred over a network or stored on a cloud server. Symmetric encryption is a method of encrypting and decrypting data using the same key. It requires both parties to securely exchange and store the key, which may be difficult or risky in a cloud environment. Digital signature is not a method of encryption, but an application of asymmetric encryption that can provide additional security features for data transmission.
A technology company has just launched a mobile application tor tracking health symptoms_ This application is built on a mobile device technology stack that allows
users to share their location and details of their symptoms. Which of the following is the GREATEST privacy concern with collecting this data via mobile devices?
Options:
Client-side device ID
Data storage requirements
Encryption of key data elements
Data usage without consent
Answer:
DA health organization experienced a breach of a database containing pseudonymized personal data. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the IT privacy practitioner?
Options:
The data may be re-identified.
The data was proprietary.
The data was classified as confidential.
The data is subject to regulatory fines.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Pseudonymization is a technique that replaces or removes direct identifiers from personal data, such as names, addresses, or social security numbers, with pseudonyms, such as codes, tokens, or random values. However, pseudonymization does not eliminate the possibility of re-identification, as the original data can still be linked back to the pseudonyms using additional information or techniques. Therefore, if a database containing pseudonymized personal data is breached, the IT privacy practitioner should be most concerned about the risk of re-identification, which could compromise the privacy and security of the data subjects. The other options are less relevant or important than the risk of re-identification.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 62
An email opt-in form on a website applies to which privacy principle?
Options:
Accuracy
Consent
Transparency
Integrity
Answer:
BExplanation:
Which cloud deployment model is BEST for an organization whose main objectives are to logically isolate personal data from other tenants and adopt custom privacy controls for the data?
Options:
Community cloud
Private cloud
Hybrid cloud
Public cloud
Answer:
BExplanation:
A private cloud is a cloud deployment model that provides exclusive access and control to a single organization or a specific group of users within the organization. A private cloud is best for an organization whose main objectives are to logically isolate personal data from other tenants and adopt custom privacy controls for the data, as it offers the highest level of security, privacy, and customization among the cloud deployment models. A private cloud allows the organization to implement its own privacy policies, standards, and procedures for the personal data, as well as to configure the cloud infrastructure, services, and applications according to its specific needs and preferences. A private cloud also reduces the risk of data breaches, unauthorized access, or co-mingling of data from other tenants, as the personal data is stored and processed in a dedicated and isolated environment.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 125
Which of the following is an IT privacy practitioner’s BEST recommendation to reduce privacy risk before an organization provides personal data to a third party?
Options:
Tokenization
Aggregation
Anonymization
Encryption
Answer:
CExplanation:
Anonymization is a technique that removes or modifies all identifiers in a data set to prevent or limit the identification of the data subjects. Anonymization is an IT privacy practitioner’s best recommendation to reduce privacy risk before an organization provides personal data to a third party, as it would protect the privacy of the data subjects by reducing the linkability of the data set with their original identity, and also comply with the data minimization principle that requires limiting the collection, storage and processing of personal data to what is necessary and relevant for the intended purposes. Anonymization would also preserve some characteristics or patterns of the original data that can be used for analysis or research purposes by the third party, without compromising the accuracy or quality of the results. The other options are not as effective as anonymization in reducing privacy risk before an organization provides personal data to a third party. Tokenization is a technique that replaces sensitive or confidential data with non-sensitive tokens or placeholders that do not reveal the original data, but it does not prevent or limit the identification of the data subjects, as tokens can be reversed or linked back to the original data using a tokenization system or key. Aggregation is a technique that combines individual data into groups or categories that do not reveal the identity of the data subjects, but it may not prevent or limit the identification of the data subjects, as aggregated data can be de-aggregated or re-identified using other sources of information or techniques. Encryption is a technique that transforms plain text data into cipher text using an algorithm and a key, making it unreadable by unauthorized parties, but it does not prevent or limit the identification of the data subjects, as encrypted data can be decrypted or linked back to the original data using an encryption system or key1, p. 74-75 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
A global organization is planning to implement a customer relationship management (CRM) system to be used in offices based in multiple countries. Which of the following is the MOST important data protection consideration for this project?
Options:
Industry best practice related to information security standards in each relevant jurisdiction
Identity and access management mechanisms to restrict access based on need to know
Encryption algorithms for securing customer personal data at rest and in transit
National data privacy legislative and regulatory requirements in each relevant jurisdiction
Answer:
DExplanation:
National data privacy legislative and regulatory requirements in each relevant jurisdiction are the most important data protection consideration for a global organization that is planning to implement a customer relationship management (CRM) system to be used in offices based in multiple countries, as they would determine the legal obligations and responsibilities of the organization with respect to the collection, use, disclosure and transfer of customer personal data across different jurisdictions. National data privacy legislative and regulatory requirements may vary significantly from country to country, depending on the type or nature of personal data or data processing activities, and may impose different rules and standards for obtaining consent, providing notice, ensuring security, enforcing rights, reporting breaches, appointing representatives or transferring data. The organization would need to comply with the national data privacy legislative and regulatory requirements in each relevant jurisdiction where it operates or where its customers are located, and to implement appropriate measures and safeguards to ensure compliance. The other options are not as important as national data privacy legislative and regulatory requirements in each relevant jurisdiction as data protection considerations for a global organization that is planning to implement a CRM system to be used in offices based in multiple countries. Industry best practice related to information security standards in each relevant jurisdiction may provide some guidance or benchmarks for ensuring security of customer personal data, but they may not reflect the specific context or needs of the organization or the customers, or comply with the legal obligations and responsibilities of the organization. Identity and access management mechanisms to restrict access based on need to know may help to protect customer personal data from unauthorized access, modification or disclosure by internal or external parties, but they may not address other aspects of data protection, such as consent, notice, rights, breaches, representatives or transfers. Encryption algorithms for securing customer personal data at rest and in transit may help to protect customer personal data from unauthorized access, modification or disclosure by internal or external parties, but they may not address other aspects of data protection, such as consent, notice, rights, breaches, representatives or transfers1, p. 63-64 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following is an example of data anonymization as a means to protect personal data when sharing a database?
Options:
The data is encrypted and a key is required to re-identify the data.
Key fields are hidden and unmasking is required to access to the data.
Names and addresses are removed but the rest of the data is left untouched.
The data is transformed such that re-identification is impossible.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Data anonymization is a method of protecting personal data by modifying or removing any information that can be used to identify an individual, either directly or indirectly, in a data set. Data anonymization aims to prevent the re-identification of the data subjects, even by the data controller or processor, or by using additional data sources or techniques. Data anonymization also helps to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), which require data controllers and processors to respect the privacy rights and preferences of the data subjects.
The data is transformed such that re-identification is impossible is an example of data anonymization, as it involves applying irreversible techniques, such as aggregation, generalization, perturbation, or synthesis, to alter the original data in a way that preserves their utility and meaning, but eliminates their identifiability. For example, a database of customer transactions can be anonymized by replacing the names and addresses of the customers with random codes, and by adding noise or rounding to the amounts and dates of the transactions.
The other options are not examples of data anonymization, but of other methods of protecting personal data that do not guarantee the impossibility of re-identification. The data is encrypted and a key is required to re-identify the data is an example of data pseudonymization, which is a method of replacing direct identifiers with pseudonyms, such as codes or tokens, that can be linked back to the original data with a key or algorithm. Data pseudonymization does not prevent re-identification by authorized parties who have access to the key or algorithm, or by unauthorized parties who can break or bypass the encryption. Key fields are hidden and unmasking is required to access to the data is an example of data masking, which is a method of concealing or obscuring sensitive data elements, such as names or credit card numbers, with characters, symbols or blanks. Data masking does not prevent re-identification by authorized parties who have permission to unmask the data, or by unauthorized parties who can infer or guess the hidden data from other sources or clues. Names and addresses are removed but the rest of the data is left untouched is an example of data deletion, which is a method of removing direct identifiers from a data set. Data deletion does not prevent re-identification by using indirect identifiers, such as age, gender, occupation or location, that can be combined or matched with other data sources to re-establish the identity of the data subjects.
References:
- Big Data Deidentification, Reidentification and Anonymization - ISACA, section 2: “Anonymization is the ability for the data controller to anonymize the data in a way that it is impossible for anyone to establish the identity of the data.”
- Data Anonymization - Overview, Techniques, Advantages, section 1: “Data anonymization is a method of ensuring that the company understands and enforces its duty to secure sensitive, personal, and confidential data in a world of highly complex data protection mandates that can vary depending on where the business and the customers are based.”
Which of the following is the BEST way to manage different IT staff access permissions for personal data within an organization?
Options:
Mandatory access control
Network segmentation
Dedicated access system
Role-based access control
Answer:
DExplanation:
Which of the following is the MOST important privacy consideration for video surveillance in high security areas?
Options:
Video surveillance recordings may only be viewed by the organization.
Those affected must be informed of the video surveillance_
There is no limitation for retention of this data.
Video surveillance data must be stored in encrypted format.
Answer:
BExplanation:
One of the key principles of data protection is transparency, which means that individuals have the right to be informed about the collection and use of their personal data. This applies to video surveillance as well, especially in high security areas where the impact on privacy may be significant. Therefore, it is important to inform those affected by video surveillance about the purpose, scope, retention and access policies of the data collected.
References:
- ISACA Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer (CDPSE) Exam Content Outline, Domain 2: Privacy Architecture, Task 2.1: Design privacy controls based on privacy principles and legal requirements, Subtask 2.1.1: Identify applicable privacy principles and legal requirements.
- How can we comply with the data protection principles when using surveillance systems? | ICO
When is the BEST time during the secure development life cycle to perform privacy threat modeling?
Options:
When identifying business requirements
Early in the design phase
During functional verification testing
Prior to the production release
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best time during the secure development life cycle to perform privacy threat modeling is early in the design phase, because this will help identify and mitigate the potential privacy risks and vulnerabilities of the system or application before they become costly or difficult to fix. Privacy threat modeling is a systematic process of analyzing the data flows, assets, actors, and scenarios of a system or application to identify and prioritize the privacy threats and countermeasures12. Performing privacy threat modeling early in the design phase will also help ensure that privacy is built into the system or application from the start, rather than as an afterthought.
References:
- CDPSE Exam Content Outline, Domain 2 – Privacy Architecture (Privacy Architecture Implementation), Task 2: Implement privacy solutions3.
- CDPSE Review Manual, Chapter 2 – Privacy Architecture, Section 2.3 – Privacy Architecture Implementation4.
Which of the following BEST mitigates the privacy risk associated with setting cookies on a website?
Options:
Implementing impersonation
Obtaining user consent
Ensuring nonrepudiation
Applying data masking
Answer:
BExplanation:
Obtaining user consent is the best way to mitigate the privacy risk associated with setting cookies on a website. This means that the website should inform the users about the purpose, type, and duration of the cookies, and ask for their permission before storing or accessing any cookies on their browsers. This way, the users can exercise their right to control their personal data and opt-in or opt-out of cookies as they wish.
According to the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), consent must be freely given, specific, informed, and unambiguous. The website should provide clear and easy-to-understand information about the cookies and their implications for the users’ privacy, and offer a simple and effective way for the users to indicate their consent or refusal. The website should also respect the users’ choice and allow them to withdraw their consent at any time.
Implementing impersonation, ensuring nonrepudiation, and applying data masking are not relevant or effective methods to mitigate the privacy risk associated with setting cookies on a website. Impersonation means accessing or using data on behalf of another user, which could violate their privacy and security. Nonrepudiation means providing proof of the origin, authenticity, and integrity of data, which does not address the issue of user consent or preference. Data masking means hiding or replacing sensitive data with fake or modified data, which does not prevent the storage or access of cookies on the user’s browser.
Which of the following MUST be available to facilitate a robust data breach management response?
Options:
Lessons learned from prior data breach responses
Best practices to obfuscate data for processing and storage
An inventory of previously impacted individuals
An inventory of affected individuals and systems
Answer:
DExplanation:
A mortgage lender has created an online application that collects borrower information and delivers a mortgage decision automatically based on criteria set by the
lender. Which fundamental data subject right does this process infringe upon?
Options:
Right to restriction of processing
Right to be informed
Right not to be profiled
Right to object
Answer:
CExplanation:
The right not to be profiled is the right of data subjects to not be subject to a decision based solely on automated processing, including profiling, which produces legal or similarly significant effects on them. The online application that delivers a mortgage decision automatically based on criteria set by the lender is an example of such a decision, as it affects the data subject’s ability to obtain a loan.
References:
- What exactly is ‘profiling’ under the GDPR - DMA
- Can I be subject to automated individual decision-making, including profiling - European Commission
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to use hash functions when hardening application systems involved in biometric data processing?
Options:
To reduce the risk of sensitive data breaches
To meet the organization's security baseline
To ensure technical security measures are effective
To prevent possible identity theft
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary reason for an organization to use hash functions when hardening application systems involved in biometric data processing is to reduce the risk of sensitive data breaches, because hash functions are one-way mathematical functions that transform biometric data into a unique and irreversible representation that cannot be reconstructed or reversed. This means that even if an attacker gains access to the hashed biometric data, they cannot use it to identify or impersonate the individual. Hash functions also help preserve the privacy and confidentiality of biometric data by preventing unauthorized access, modification, or disclosure.
References:
- CDPSE Exam Content Outline, Domain 2 – Privacy Architecture (Privacy Architecture Implementation), Task 2: Implement privacy solutions1.
- CDPSE Review Manual, Chapter 2 – Privacy Architecture, Section 2.3 – Privacy Architecture Implementation2.
- CDPSE Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer All-in-One Exam Guide, Chapter 2 – Privacy Architecture, Section 2.4 – Remote Access3.
Which of the following helps to ensure the identities of individuals in two-way communication are verified?
Options:
Virtual private network (VPN)
Transport Layer Security (TLS)
Mutual certificate authentication
Secure Shell (SSH)
Answer:
CExplanation:
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to ensure privacy-related risk responses meet organizational objectives?
Options:
Integrating security and privacy control requirements into the development of risk scenarios
Prioritizing privacy-related risk scenarios as part of enterprise risk management ERM) processes
Using a top-down approach to develop privacy-related risk scenarios for the organization
Assigning the data protection officer accountability for privacy protection controls
Answer:
BExplanation:
Prioritizing privacy-related risk scenarios as part of ERM processes is the best way to ensure that the risk responses meet the organizational objectives, because it helps to align the privacy risk management with the overall strategic goals, values, and culture of the organization. ERM is a holistic approach to identify, assess, and manage risks across the organization, taking into account the interdependencies and trade-offs among different types of risks. By integrating privacy-related risk scenarios into the ERM processes, the organization can evaluate the potential impact and likelihood of privacy risks on its mission, vision, and performance, and prioritize the most significant ones for mitigation or acceptance. This can also help to allocate appropriate resources, assign clear roles and responsibilities, and monitor and report on the effectiveness of the risk responses.
References:
- Privacy Risk Management, ISACA Journal
- Enterprise Risk Assessment, Deloitte
Which of the following should be done NEXT after a privacy risk has been accepted?
Options:
Monitor the risk landscape for material changes.
Determine the risk appetite With management.
Adjust the risk rating to help ensure it is remediated
Reconfirm the risk during the next reporting period
Answer:
AExplanation:
After a privacy risk has been accepted, the next step is to monitor the risk landscape for material changes. This means that the organization should keep track of any internal or external factors that may affect the likelihood or impact of the risk, such as new threats, vulnerabilities, regulations, technologies, or business processes. Monitoring the risk landscape can help the organization identify if the risk acceptance decision is still valid, or if it needs to be revisited or revised. Monitoring can also help the organization prepare for potential incidents or consequences that may arise from the accepted risk.
Which of the following BEST enables an IT privacy practitioner to ensure appropriate protection for personal data collected that is required to provide necessary services?
Options:
Understanding the data flows within the organization
Implementing strong access controls on a need-to-know basis
Anonymizing privacy data during collection and recording
Encrypting the data throughout its life cycle
Answer:
AExplanation:
Which of the following is MOST important to include in a data use policy?
Options:
The requirements for collecting and using personal data
The method used to delete or destroy personal data
The reason for collecting and using personal data
The length of time personal data will be retained
Answer:
AExplanation:
A data use policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for how personal data are collected, used, stored, shared and deleted by an organization. It is an important part of data governance and compliance, as it helps to ensure that personal data are handled in a lawful, fair and transparent manner, respecting the rights and preferences of data subjects. A data use policy should include the requirements for collecting and using personal data, such as the legal basis, the purpose, the scope, the consent, the data minimization, the accuracy, the security and the accountability. These requirements help to establish the legitimacy and necessity of data processing activities, and to prevent unauthorized or excessive use of personal data.
References:
- ISACA Privacy Notice & Usage Disclosures, section 2.1: “We collect Personal Information from you when you provide it to us directly or through a third party who has assured us that they have obtained your consent.”
- Chapter Privacy Policy - Singapore Chapter - ISACA, section 2: “We will collect your personal data in accordance with the PDPA either directly from you or your authorized representatives, and/or through our third party service providers.”
- Data Minimization—A Practical Approach - ISACA, section 2: “Enterprises may only collect as much data as are necessary for the purposes defined at the time of collection, which may also be set out in a privacy notice (sometimes referred to as a privacy statement, a fair processing statement or a privacy policy).”
- Establishing Enterprise Roles for Data Protection - ISACA, section 3: “Data governance is typically implemented in organizations through policies, guidelines, tools and access controls.”
Which of the following is a foundational goal of data privacy laws?
Options:
Privacy laws are designed to protect companies' collection of personal data
Privacy laws are designed to prevent the collection of personal data
Privacy laws are designed to provide transparency for the collection of personal data
Privacy laws are designed to give people rights over the collection of personal data
Answer:
DExplanation:
One of the foundational goals of data privacy laws is to give people rights over the collection of personal data, such as the right to access, correct, delete, or object to the processing of their data. Privacy laws also aim to protect people’s dignity, autonomy, and self-determination in relation to their personal data. The other options are not accurate or complete descriptions of the purpose of data privacy laws.
References:
- CDPSE Review Manual, Chapter 1 – Privacy Governance, Section 1.1 – Privacy Principles1.
- CDPSE Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer All-in-One Exam Guide, Chapter 1 – Privacy Governance, Section 1.2 – Data Privacy Laws and Regulations2.
Which of the following BEST represents privacy threat modeling methodology?
Options:
Mitigating inherent risks and threats associated with privacy control weaknesses
Systematically eliciting and mitigating privacy threats in a software architecture
Reliably estimating a threat actor’s ability to exploit privacy vulnerabilities
Replicating privacy scenarios that reflect representative software usage
Answer:
BExplanation:
Privacy threat modeling is a methodology for identifying and mitigating privacy threats in a software architecture. It helps to ensure that privacy is considered in the design and development of software systems, and that privacy risks are minimized or eliminated. Privacy threat modeling typically involves the following steps: defining the scope and context of the system, identifying the data flows and data elements, identifying the privacy threats and their sources, assessing the impact and likelihood of the threats, and applying appropriate countermeasures to mitigate the threats. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 97
A multinational corporation is planning a big data initiative to help with critical business decisions. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure personal data usage is standardized across the entire organization?
Options:
De-identify all data.
Develop a data dictionary.
Encrypt all sensitive data.
Perform data discovery.
Answer:
BExplanation:
A data dictionary is a document that defines and describes the data elements, attributes, formats, sources, destinations, purposes and relationships of a data set or system. A data dictionary would be the best way to ensure personal data usage is standardized across the entire organization, as it would provide a common and consistent understanding and reference for how personal data is collected, used, disclosed and transferred within and outside the organization. A data dictionary would also help to ensure compliance with privacy principles, such as accuracy, transparency and accountability. The other options are not as effective as developing a data dictionary in ensuring personal data usage is standardized across the entire organization. De-identify all data is a technique that removes or modifies direct and indirect identifiers in a data set to prevent or limit the identification of the data subjects, but it does not ensure standardization or consistency of personal data usage across the organization. Encrypt all sensitive data is a technique that transforms plain text data into cipher text using an algorithm and a key, making it unreadable by unauthorized parties, but it does not ensure standardization or consistency of personal data usage across the organization. Perform data discovery is a process of identifying and locating personal data within an organization’s systems, databases, applications or files, but it does not ensure standardization or consistency of personal data usage across the organization1, p. 69-70 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
In which of the following should the data record retention period be defined and established?
Options:
Data record model
Data recovery procedures
Data quality standard
Data management plan
Answer:
DExplanation:
Which of the following tracking technologies associated with unsolicited targeted advertisements presents the GREATEST privacy risk?
Options:
Online behavioral tracking
Radio frequency identification (RFID)
Website cookies
Beacon-based tracking
Answer:
AExplanation:
Online behavioral tracking is a tracking technology associated with unsolicited targeted advertisements that presents the greatest privacy risk. Online behavioral tracking is a technique that collects and analyzes personal data about users’ online activities, preferences, interests, and behaviors across different websites or platforms. Online behavioral tracking is used to create user profiles and deliver personalized or targeted advertisements that match users’ needs or wants. Online behavioral tracking poses a privacy risk because it can invade users’ privacy by collecting sensitive or intimate personal data without their knowledge or consent, such as health conditions, political views, sexual orientation, etc. Online behavioral tracking can also expose users to unwanted or inappropriate advertisements that may influence their decisions or actions. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 139
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that a single cryptographic key should be used for only one purpose, such as encryption or authentication?
Options:
It eliminates cryptographic key collision.
It minimizes the risk if the cryptographic key is compromised.
It is more practical and efficient to use a single cryptographic key.
Each process can only be supported by its own unique key management process.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The primary reason that a single cryptographic key should be used for only one purpose, such as encryption or authentication, is that it minimizes the risk if the cryptographic key is compromised. A cryptographic key is a piece of information that is used to perform cryptographic operations, such as encryption or authentication. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm. Authentication is a process of verifying the identity or integrity of a user or data using a secret key or algorithm. If a single cryptographic key is used for multiple purposes, such as encryption and authentication, it increases the risk if the cryptographic key is compromised. For example, if an attacker obtains the cryptographic key that is used for both encryption and authentication, they can decrypt and access personal data, as well as impersonate or modify legitimate users or data. Therefore, a single cryptographic key should be used for only one purpose, and different keys should be used for different purposes. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 107
Which of the following is a PRIMARY objective of performing a privacy impact assessment (PIA) prior to onboarding a new Software as a Service (SaaS) provider for a customer relationship management (CRM) system?
Options:
To identify controls to mitigate data privacy risks
To classify personal data according to the data classification scheme
To assess the risk associated with personal data usage
To determine the service provider’s ability to maintain data protection controls
Answer:
AExplanation:
A primary objective of performing a privacy impact assessment (PIA) prior to onboarding a new Software as a Service (SaaS) provider for a customer relationship management (CRM) system is to identify controls to mitigate data privacy risks, such as data breaches, unauthorized access, misuse or loss of data. A PIA would help to evaluate the potential privacy impacts of using a new SaaS provider for CRM data processing activities, such as collecting, storing, analyzing or transferring customer data, and to implement appropriate controls to mitigate those impacts, such as encryption, access control, backup, audit trail or contractual clauses. A PIA would also help to ensure compliance with privacy principles, laws and regulations, and alignment with customer expectations and preferences. The other options are not primary objectives of performing a PIA prior to onboarding a new SaaS provider for CRM data processing activities. Classifying personal data according to the data classification scheme is an activity that may be part of a PIA process, but it is not an objective in itself. Assessing the risk associated with personal data usage is an activity that may be part of a PIA process, but it is not an objective in itself. Determining the service provider’s ability to maintain data protection controls is an activity that may be part of a PIA process, but it is not an objective in itself1, p. 67 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following techniques mitigates design flaws in the application development process that may contribute to potential leakage of personal data?
Options:
User acceptance testing (UAT)
Patch management
Software hardening
Web application firewall (WAF)
Answer:
CExplanation:
Software hardening is a technique that mitigates design flaws in the application development process that may contribute to potential leakage of personal data. Software hardening is a process of modifying or configuring software to make it more secure and resilient against attacks or exploitation. Software hardening can involve various methods, such as removing unnecessary features or functions, disabling debugging or testing modes, applying patches or updates, implementing secure coding practices, etc. Software hardening helps to protect personal data by preventing or reducing the vulnerabilities that can allow unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or transfer of personal data. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 151
Which of the following activities would BEST enable an organization to identify gaps in its privacy posture?
Options:
Retargeting employees for awareness training after a social engineering attack
Conducting a simulation exercise that requires participants to respond to a privacy incident
Providing an interactive session on privacy risks at an organization-wide meeting
Requiring employees to review the organization's privacy policy on an annual basis
Answer:
DExplanation:
D. Requiring employees to review the organization’s privacy policy on an annual basis
Short Explanation: Requiring employees to review the organization’s privacy policy on an annual basis is the best activity to enable an organization to identify gaps in its privacy posture because it can help to ensure that the employees are aware of the current privacy requirements, expectations, and practices of the organization. It can also help to identify any discrepancies, inconsistencies, or conflicts between the policy and the actual implementation of privacy controls and processes. By reviewing the policy regularly, the organization can also update and improve it as needed to reflect any changes in the privacy landscape, such as new laws, regulations, standards, or threats.
References:
- Privacy Policy Review Checklist, PrivacySense
- How to Write a Privacy Policy for Your Website, TermsFeed
An organization is developing a wellness smartwatch application and is considering what information should be collected from the application users. Which of the following is the MOST legitimate information to collect for business reasons in this situation?
Options:
Height, weight, and activities
Sleep schedule and calorie intake
Education and profession
Race, age, and gender
Answer:
AExplanation:
Height, weight, and activities are the most legitimate information to collect for business reasons in this situation, as they are directly related to the purpose and functionality of a wellness smartwatch application that aims to monitor and improve the health and fitness of its users. Collecting height, weight, and activities would also comply with the data minimization principle that requires limiting the collection, storage and processing of personal data to what is necessary and relevant for the intended purposes. The other options are not legitimate information to collect for business reasons in this situation, as they are not related to the purpose and functionality of a wellness smartwatch application and may violate the privacy rights and preferences of its users. Collecting sleep schedule and calorie intake may be useful for some users who want to track their sleep quality and nutrition intake, but they are not essential for a wellness smartwatch application and may require additional consent or justification from the users. Collecting education and profession may be irrelevant for a wellness smartwatch application and may be used for other purposes, such as marketing or profiling, without the consent or knowledge of the users. Collecting race, age, and gender may be sensitive for some users who do not want to disclose their personal characteristics or identity, and may require additional safeguards or measures to protect their privacy1, p. 75-76 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following is the BEST indication of a highly effective privacy training program?
Options:
Members of the workforce understand their roles in protecting data privacy
Recent audits have no findings or recommendations related to data privacy
No privacy incidents have been reported in the last year
HR has made privacy training an annual mandate for the organization_
Answer:
AExplanation:
The best indication of a highly effective privacy training program is that members of the workforce understand their roles in protecting data privacy, because this shows that the training program has successfully raised the awareness and knowledge of the workforce on the importance, principles and practices of data privacy, and how they can contribute to the organization’s privacy objectives and compliance. According to ISACA, one of the key elements of a privacy training program is to define and communicate the roles and responsibilities of the workforce in relation to data privacy1. Members of the workforce who understand their roles in protecting data privacy are more likely to follow the privacy policies and procedures, report any privacy incidents or issues, and support the privacy culture of the organization2. Recent audits have no findings or recommendations related to data privacy, no privacy incidents have been reported in the last year, and HR has made privacy training an annual mandate for the organization are not as reliable as members of the workforce understand their roles in protecting data privacy, as they do not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of the privacy training program, but rather the performance of other factors such as audit processes, incident management systems, or HR policies.
Which of the following is the BEST way to limit the organization’s potential exposure in the event of consumer data loss while maintaining the traceability of the data?
Options:
Encrypt the data at rest.
De-identify the data.
Use a unique hashing algorithm.
Require a digital signature.
Answer:
BExplanation:
De-identification is a technique that removes or modifies direct and indirect identifiers in a data set to prevent or limit the identification of the data subjects. De-identification reduces the risk of re-identification and thus limits the organization’s potential exposure in the event of consumer data loss. De-identification also maintains the traceability of the data by preserving some characteristics or patterns of the original data that can be used for analysis or research purposes. The other options are not effective ways to limit exposure and maintain traceability1, p. 75-76 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following is the MOST important privacy consideration when developing a contact tracing application?
Options:
The proportionality of the data collected tor the intended purpose
Whether the application can be audited for compliance purposes
The creation of a clear privacy notice
Retention period for data storage
Answer:
AExplanation:
The proportionality of the data collected for the intended purpose is the most important privacy consideration when developing a contact tracing application. This means that the application should only collect the minimum amount of personal data necessary to achieve the specific and legitimate purpose of preventing and controlling the spread of COVID-191. The application should also ensure that the data collected are relevant, adequate, and not excessive in relation to the purpose2. The application should avoid collecting or processing any data that are not essential for the purpose, such as location data, biometric data, or health data unrelated to COVID-193. The application should also respect the data minimization principle, which requires that the data are kept for no longer than necessary for the purpose4. References:
- European Data Protection Board Guidelines 04/2020 on the use of location data and contact tracing tools in the context of the COVID-19 outbreak
- Article 5(1)© of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- Article 29 Data Protection Working Party Opinion 04/2017 on the Proposed Regulation for the ePrivacy Regulation
- Article 5(1)(e) of the GDPR
When choosing data sources to be used within a big data architecture, which of the following data attributes MUST be considered to ensure data is not aggregated?
Options:
Accuracy
Granularity
Consistency
Reliability