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Isaca CISM Dumps

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Total 801 questions

Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following will have the GREATEST influence on the successful adoption of an information security governance program?

Options:

A.

Security policies

B.

Control effectiveness

C.

Security management processes

D.

Organizational culture

Question 2

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The definition of an incident

B.

Compliance with regulations

C.

Management support

D.

Previously reported incidents

Question 3

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for granting a security exception?

Options:

A.

The risk is justified by the cost to the business.

B.

The risk is justified by the benefit to security.

C.

The risk is justified by the cost to security.

D.

The risk is justified by the benefit to the business.

Question 4

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance that security policies are applied across business operations?

Options:

A.

Organizational standards are included in awareness training.

B.

Organizational standards are enforced by technical controls.

C.

Organizational standards are required to be formally accepted.

D.

Organizational standards are documented in operational procedures.

Question 5

Which of the following risk scenarios is MOST likely to emerge from a supply chain attack?

Options:

A.

Compromise of critical assets via third-party resources

B.

Unavailability of services provided by a supplier

C.

Loss of customers due to unavailability of products

D.

Unreliable delivery of hardware and software resources by a supplier

Question 6

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to determine the comprehensiveness of an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Internal security audit

B.

External security audit

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 7

When developing an asset classification program, which of the following steps should be completed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Categorize each asset.

B.

Create an inventory. &

C.

Create a business case for a digital rights management tool.

D.

Implement a data loss prevention (OLP) system.

Question 8

An information security manager finds that a soon-to-be deployed online application will increase risk beyond acceptable levels, and necessary controls have not been included. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Instruct IT to deploy controls based on urgent business needs.

B.

Present a business case for additional controls to senior management.

C.

Solicit bids for compensating control products.

D.

Recommend a different application.

Question 9

An organization has received complaints from users that some of their files have been encrypted. These users are receiving demands for money to decrypt the files. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct an impact assessment.

B.

Isolate the affected systems.

C.

Rebuild the affected systems.

D.

Initiate incident response.

Question 10

When remote access to confidential information is granted to a vendor for analytic purposes, which of the following is the MOST important security consideration?

Options:

A.

Data is encrypted in transit and at rest at the vendor site.

B.

Data is subject to regular access log review.

C.

The vendor must be able to amend data.

D.

The vendor must agree to the organization's information security policy,

Question 11

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an organization's information security status?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection log analysis

B.

Controls audit

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Penetration test

Question 12

Due to changes in an organization's environment, security controls may no longer be adequate. What is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the previous risk assessment and countermeasures.

B.

Perform a new risk assessment,

C.

Evaluate countermeasures to mitigate new risks.

D.

Transfer the new risk to a third party.

Question 13

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing an organization's information security governance committee?

Options:

A.

Members have knowledge of information security controls.

B.

Members are business risk owners.

C.

Members are rotated periodically.

D.

Members represent functions across the organization.

Question 14

An information security manager learns that a risk owner has approved exceptions to replace key controls with weaker compensating controls to improve process efficiency. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Risk levels may be elevated beyond acceptable limits.

B.

Security audits may report more high-risk findings.

C.

The compensating controls may not be cost efficient.

D.

Noncompliance with industry best practices may result.

Question 15

Which of the following service offerings in a typical Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model will BEST enable a cloud service provider to assist customers when recovering from a security incident?

Options:

A.

Availability of web application firewall logs.

B.

Capability of online virtual machine analysis

C.

Availability of current infrastructure documentation

D.

Capability to take a snapshot of virtual machines

Question 16

A PRIMARY purpose of creating security policies is to:

Options:

A.

define allowable security boundaries.

B.

communicate management's security expectations.

C.

establish the way security tasks should be executed.

D.

implement management's security governance strategy.

Question 17

In order to understand an organization's security posture, it is MOST important for an organization's senior leadership to:

Options:

A.

evaluate results of the most recent incident response test.

B.

review the number of reported security incidents.

C.

ensure established security metrics are reported.

D.

assess progress of risk mitigation efforts.

Question 18

Which of the following Is MOST useful to an information security manager when conducting a post-incident review of an attack?

Options:

A.

Cost of the attack to the organization

B.

Location of the attacker

C.

Method of operation used by the attacker

D.

Details from intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

Question 19

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to identify worst-case disruption scenarios?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business process analysis

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Cast-benefit analysis

Question 20

An incident response team has been assembled from a group of experienced individuals, Which type of exercise would be MOST beneficial for the team at the first drill?

Options:

A.

Red team exercise

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Disaster recovery exercise

D.

Tabletop exercise

Question 21

Management decisions concerning information security investments will be MOST effective when they are based on:

Options:

A.

a process for identifying and analyzing threats and vulnerabilities.

B.

an annual loss expectancy (ALE) determined from the history of security events,

C.

the reporting of consistent and periodic assessments of risks.

D.

the formalized acceptance of risk analysis by management,

Question 22

Which of the following is an information security manager's MOST important course of action when responding to a major security incident that could disrupt the business?

Options:

A.

Follow the escalation process.

B.

Identify the indicators of compromise.

C.

Notify law enforcement.

D.

Contact forensic investigators.

Question 23

Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve compliance with new global regulations related to the protection of personal information?

Options:

A.

Execute a risk treatment plan.

B.

Review contracts and statements of work (SOWs) with vendors.

C.

Implement data regionalization controls.

D.

Determine current and desired state of controls.

Question 24

An organization is going through a digital transformation process, which places the IT organization in an unfamiliar risk landscape. The information security manager has been tasked with leading the IT risk management process. Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority?

Options:

A.

Identification of risk

B.

Analysis of control gaps

C.

Design of key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Selection of risk treatment options

Question 25

Which of the following is the BEST method to protect against emerging advanced persistent threat (APT) actors?

Options:

A.

Providing ongoing training to the incident response team

B.

Implementing proactive systems monitoring

C.

Implementing a honeypot environment

D.

Updating information security awareness materials

Question 26

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the organization's security objectives are embedded in business operations?

Options:

A.

Publish adopted information security standards.

B.

Perform annual information security compliance reviews.

C.

Implement an information security governance framework.

D.

Define penalties for information security noncompliance.

Question 27

An organization is implementing an information security governance framework. To communicate the program's effectiveness to stakeholders, it is MOST important to establish:

Options:

A.

a control self-assessment (CSA) process.

B.

automated reporting to stakeholders.

C.

a monitoring process for the security policy.

D.

metrics for each milestone.

Question 28

An organization's main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS). The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider. Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data owner

C.

The application owner

D.

The security engineer

Question 29

Network isolation techniques are immediately implemented after a security breach to:

Options:

A.

preserve evidence as required for forensics

B.

reduce the extent of further damage.

C.

allow time for key stakeholder decision making.

D.

enforce zero trust architecture principles.

Question 30

Which of the following is MOST critical when creating an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Identifying vulnerable data assets

B.

Identifying what constitutes an incident

C.

Documenting incident notification and escalation processes

D.

Aligning with the risk assessment process

Question 31

An incident management team is alerted ta a suspected security event. Before classifying the suspected event as a security incident, it is MOST important for the security manager to:

Options:

A.

notify the business process owner.

B.

follow the business continuity plan (BCP).

C.

conduct an incident forensic analysis.

D.

follow the incident response plan.

Question 32

IT projects have gone over budget with too many security controls being added post-production. Which of the following would MOST help to ensure that relevant controls are applied to a project?

Options:

A.

Involving information security at each stage of project management

B.

Identifying responsibilities during the project business case analysis

C.

Creating a data classification framework and providing it to stakeholders

D.

Providing stakeholders with minimum information security requirements

Question 33

Which of the following messages would be MOST effective in obtaining senior management's commitment to information security management?

Options:

A.

Effective security eliminates risk to the business.

B.

Adopt a recognized framework with metrics.

C.

Security is a business product and not a process.

D.

Security supports and protects the business.

Question 34

A recovery point objective (RPO) is required in which of the following?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Information security plan

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

Question 35

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective information security awareness training program?

Options:

A.

An increase in the frequency of phishing tests

B.

An increase in positive user feedback

C.

An increase in the speed of incident resolution

D.

An increase in the identification rate during phishing simulations

Question 36

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to ensure information security is aligned with the organization's strategy?

Options:

A.

To identify the organization's risk tolerance

B.

To improve security processes

C.

To align security roles and responsibilities

D.

To optimize security risk management

Question 37

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an information security manager in a software development project?

Options:

A.

To enhance awareness for secure software design

B.

To assess and approve the security application architecture

C.

To identify noncompliance in the early design stage

D.

To identify software security weaknesses

Question 38

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help staff members understand their responsibilities for information security?

Options:

A.

Communicate disciplinary processes for policy violations.

B.

Require staff to participate in information security awareness training.

C.

Require staff to sign confidentiality agreements.

D.

Include information security responsibilities in job descriptions.

Question 39

Which of the following BEST facilitates effective incident response testing?

Options:

A.

Including all business units in testing

B.

Simulating realistic test scenarios

C.

Reviewing test results quarterly

D.

Testing after major business changes

Question 40

The MAIN benefit of implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution is to:

Options:

A.

enhance the organization's antivirus controls.

B.

eliminate the risk of data loss.

C.

complement the organization's detective controls.

D.

reduce the need for a security awareness program.

Question 41

Which of the following activities MUST be performed by an information security manager for change requests?

Options:

A.

Perform penetration testing on affected systems.

B.

Scan IT systems for operating system vulnerabilities.

C.

Review change in business requirements for information security.

D.

Assess impact on information security risk.

Question 42

Which of the following BEST ensures information security governance is aligned with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

A security steering committee including IT representation

B.

A consistent risk management approach

C.

An information security risk register

D.

Integration of security reporting into corporate reporting

Question 43

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining asset valuation?

Options:

A.

Asset recovery cost

B.

Asset classification level

C.

Cost of insurance premiums

D.

Potential business loss

Question 44

The PRIMARY benefit of introducing a single point of administration in network monitoring is that it:

Options:

A.

reduces unauthorized access to systems.

B.

promotes efficiency in control of the environment.

C.

prevents inconsistencies in information in the distributed environment.

D.

allows administrative staff to make management decisions.

Question 45

An organization is increasingly using Software as a Service (SaaS) to replace in-house hosting and support of IT applications. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to help ensure procurement decisions consider information security concerns?

Options:

A.

Integrate information security risk assessments into the procurement process.

B.

Provide regular information security training to the procurement team.

C.

Invite IT members into regular procurement team meetings to influence best practice.

D.

Enforce the right to audit in procurement contracts with SaaS vendors.

Question 46

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing a new data protection program that must comply with applicable data privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate privacy technologies required for data protection.

B.

Encrypt all personal data stored on systems and networks.

C.

Update disciplinary processes to address privacy violations.

D.

Create an inventory of systems where personal data is stored.

Question 47

In violation of a policy prohibiting the use of cameras at the office, employees have been issued smartphones and tablet computers with enabled web cameras. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Revise the policy.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment,

D.

Communicate the acceptable use policy.

Question 48

Which of the following BEST supports information security management in the event of organizational changes in security personnel?

Options:

A.

Formalizing a security strategy and program

B.

Developing an awareness program for staff

C.

Ensuring current documentation of security processes

D.

Establishing processes within the security operations team

Question 49

An organization finds it necessary to quickly shift to a work-fromhome model with an increased need for remote access security.

Which of the following should be given immediate focus?

Options:

A.

Moving to a zero trust access model

B.

Enabling network-level authentication

C.

Enhancing cyber response capability

D.

Strengthening endpoint security

Question 50

Which of the following is the BEST approach to reduce unnecessary duplication of compliance activities?

Options:

A.

Documentation of control procedures

B.

Standardization of compliance requirements

C.

Automation of controls

D.

Integration of assurance efforts

Question 51

What should be the FIRST step when an Internet of Things (loT) device in an organization's network is confirmed to have been hacked?

Options:

A.

Monitor the network.

B.

Perform forensic analysis.

C.

Disconnect the device from the network,

D.

Escalate to the incident response team

Question 52

An organization needs to comply with new security incident response requirements. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Create a business case for a new incident response plan.

B.

Revise the existing incident response plan.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Assess the impact to the budget,

Question 53

In which cloud model does the cloud service buyer assume the MOST security responsibility?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 54

Which of the following provides an information security manager with the MOST accurate indication of the organization's ability to respond to a cyber attack?

Options:

A.

Walk-through of the incident response plan

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Simulated phishing exercise

D.

Red team exercise

Question 55

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular reviews of the cybersecurity threat landscape?

Options:

A.

To compare emerging trends with the existing organizational security posture

B.

To communicate worst-case scenarios to senior management

C.

To train information security professionals to mitigate new threats

D.

To determine opportunities for expanding organizational information security

Question 56

Which of the following is the MOST important criterion when deciding whether to accept residual risk?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the asset

B.

Cost of additional mitigation

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Annual rate of occurrence

Question 57

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of the information security incident response process?

Options:

A.

Conducting incident triage

B.

Communicating with internal and external parties

C.

Minimizing negative impact to critical operations

D.

Classifying incidents

Question 58

Which of the following is MOST helpful for determining which information security policies should be implemented by an organization?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Industry best practices

Question 59

The effectiveness of an information security governance framework will BEST be enhanced if:

Options:

A.

consultants review the information security governance framework.

B.

a culture of legal and regulatory compliance is promoted by management.

C.

risk management is built into operational and strategic activities.

D.

IS auditors are empowered to evaluate governance activities

Question 60

Which of the following BEST supports the incident management process for attacks on an organization's supply chain?

Options:

A.

Including service level agreements (SLAs) in vendor contracts

B.

Establishing communication paths with vendors

C.

Requiring security awareness training for vendor staff

D.

Performing integration testing with vendor systems

Question 61

An organization plans to offer clients a new service that is subject to regulations. What should the organization do FIRST when developing a security strategy in support of this new service?

Options:

A.

Determine security controls for the new service.

B.

Establish a compliance program,

C.

Perform a gap analysis against the current state

D.

Hire new resources to support the service.

Question 62

Which of the following would be the BEST way for an information security manager to improve the effectiveness of an organization’s information security program?

Options:

A.

Focus on addressing conflicts between security and performance.

B.

Collaborate with business and IT functions in determining controls.

C.

Include information security requirements in the change control process.

D.

Obtain assistance from IT to implement automated security cantrals.

Question 63

An information security manager learns of a new standard related to an emerging technology the organization wants to implement. Which of the following should the information security manager recommend be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the organization can benefit from adopting the new standard.

B.

Obtain legal counsel's opinion on the standard's applicability to regulations,

C.

Perform a risk assessment on the new technology.

D.

Review industry specialists’ analyses of the new standard.

Question 64

Which of the following tasks should be performed once a disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been developed?

Options:

A.

Develop the test plan.

B.

Analyze the business impact.

C.

Define response team roles.

D.

Identify recovery time objectives (RTOs).

Question 65

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a forensic investigation?

Options:

A.

Analyzing system memory

B.

Documenting analysis steps

C.

Capturing full system images

D.

Maintaining a chain of custody

Question 66

Which of the following should be the FIRST step to gain approval for outsourcing to address a security gap?

Options:

A.

Collect additional metrics.

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Submit funding request to senior management.

D.

Begin due diligence on the outsourcing company.

Question 67

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY area of focus when mitigating security risks associated with emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Compatibility with legacy systems

B.

Application of corporate hardening standards

C.

Integration with existing access controls

D.

Unknown vulnerabilities

Question 68

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon learning that some security hardening settings may negatively impact future business activity?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Reduce security hardening settings.

C.

Inform business management of the risk.

D.

Document a security exception.

Question 69

ACISO learns that a third-party service provider did not notify the organization of a data breach that affected the service provider's data center. Which of the following should the CISO do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recommend canceling the outsourcing contract.

B.

Request an independent review of the provider's data center.

C.

Notify affected customers of the data breach.

D.

Determine the extent of the impact to the organization.

Question 70

The BEST way to identify the risk associated with a social engineering attack is to:

Options:

A.

monitor the intrusion detection system (IDS),

B.

review single sign-on (SSO) authentication lags.

C.

test user knowledge of information security practices.

D.

perform a business risk assessment of the email filtering system.

Question 71

An information security manager learns that IT personnel are not adhering to the information security policy because it creates process inefficiencies. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Conduct user awareness training within the IT function.

B.

Propose that IT update information security policies and procedures.

C.

Determine the risk related to noncompliance with the policy.

D.

Request that internal audit conduct a review of the policy development process,

Question 72

Reviewing which of the following would be MOST helpful when a new information security manager is developing an information security strategy for a non-regulated organization?

Options:

A.

Management's business goals and objectives

B.

Strategies of other non-regulated companies

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Industry best practices and control recommendations

Question 73

An organization recently outsourced the development of a mission-critical business application. Which of the following would be the BEST way to test for the existence of backdoors?

Options:

A.

Scan the entire application using a vulnerability scanning tool.

B.

Run the application from a high-privileged account on a test system.

C.

Perform security code reviews on the entire application.

D.

Monitor Internet traffic for sensitive information leakage.

Question 74

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place as a basis for developing an effective information security program that supports the organization's business goals?

Options:

A.

Metrics to drive the information security program

B.

Information security policies

C.

A defined security organizational structure

D.

An information security strategy

Question 75

When choosing the best controls to mitigate risk to acceptable levels, the information security manager's decision should be MAINLY driven by:

Options:

A.

best practices.

B.

control framework

C.

regulatory requirements.

D.

cost-benefit analysis,

Question 76

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

Options:

A.

Threat management is enhanced.

B.

Compliance status is improved.

C.

Security metrics are enhanced.

D.

Proactive risk management is facilitated.

Question 77

The MOST important reason for having an information security manager serve on the change management committee is to:

Options:

A.

identify changes to the information security policy.

B.

ensure that changes are tested.

C.

ensure changes are properly documented.

D.

advise on change-related risk.

Question 78

Which of the following BEST indicates that information assets are classified accurately?

Options:

A.

Appropriate prioritization of information risk treatment

B.

Increased compliance with information security policy

C.

Appropriate assignment of information asset owners

D.

An accurate and complete information asset catalog

Question 79

Which of the following is PRIMARILY determined by asset classification?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage required for assets

B.

Level of protection required for assets

C.

Priority for asset replacement

D.

Replacement cost of assets

Question 80

Which of the following would be MOST useful to a newly hired information security manager who has been tasked with developing and implementing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The capabilities and expertise of the information security team

B.

The organization's mission statement and roadmap

C.

A prior successful information security strategy

D.

The organization's information technology (IT) strategy

Question 81

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an organization to communicate to affected parties that a security incident has occurred?

Options:

A.

To improve awareness of information security

B.

To disclose the root cause of the incident

C.

To increase goodwill toward the organization

D.

To comply with regulations regarding notification

Question 82

An organization's information security manager is performing a post-incident review of a security incident in which the following events occurred:

• A bad actor broke into a business-critical FTP server by brute forcing an administrative password

• The third-party service provider hosting the server sent an automated alert message to the help desk, but was ignored

• The bad actor could not access the administrator console, but was exposed to encrypted data transferred to the server

• After three hours, the bad actor deleted the FTP directory, causing incoming FTP attempts by legitimate customers to fail

Which of the following could have been prevented by conducting regular incident response testing?

Options:

A.

Ignored alert messages

B.

The server being compromised

C.

The brute force attack

D.

Stolen data

Question 83

Communicating which of the following would be MOST helpful to gain senior management support for risk treatment options?

Options:

A.

Quantitative loss

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 84

Which of the following should be the FIRST step in developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis based on the current state

B.

Create a roadmap to identify security baselines and controls.

C.

Identify key stakeholders to champion information security.

D.

Determine acceptable levels of information security risk.

Question 85

An organization plans to leverage popular social network platforms to promote its products and services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the information security manager to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Establish processes to publish content on social networks.

B.

Assess the security risk associated with the use of social networks.

C.

Conduct vulnerability assessments on social network platforms.

D.

Develop security controls for the use of social networks.

Question 86

Which of the following is the BEST way to contain an SQL injection attack that has been detected by a web application firewall?

Options:

A.

Force password changes on the SQL database.

B.

Reconfigure the web application firewall to block the attack.

C.

Update the detection patterns on the web application firewall.

D.

Block the IPs from where the attack originates.

Question 87

An external security audit has reported multiple instances of control noncompliance. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

Control owner responses based on a root cause analysis

B.

The impact of noncompliance on the organization's risk profile

C.

A noncompliance report to initiate remediation activities

D.

A business case for transferring the risk

Question 88

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

To define security roles and responsibilities

B.

To determine return on investment (ROI)

C.

To establish incident severity levels

D.

To determine the criticality of information assets

Question 89

Which of the following BEST demonstrates that an anti-phishing campaign is effective?

Options:

A.

Improved staff attendance in awareness sessions

B.

Decreased number of phishing emails received

C.

Improved feedback on the anti-phishing campaign

D.

Decreased number of incidents that have occurred

Question 90

For the information security manager, integrating the various assurance functions of an organization is important PRIMARILY to enable:

Options:

A.

consistent security.

B.

comprehensive audits

C.

a security-aware culture

D.

compliance with policy

Question 91

An organization has implemented a new customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should be responsible for enforcing authorized and controlled access to the CRM data?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data custodian

C.

Internal IT audit

D.

The data owner

Question 92

In order to gain organization-wide support for an information security program, which of the following is MOST important to consider?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the security policy

B.

Clarity of security roles and responsibilities

C.

Corporate culture

D.

Corporate risk framework

Question 93

Recommendations for enterprise investment in security technology should be PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

adherence to international standards

B.

availability of financial resources

C.

the organization s risk tolerance

D.

alignment with business needs

Question 94

A recent application security assessment identified a number of low- and medium-level vulnerabilities. Which of the following stakeholders is responsible for deciding the appropriate risk treatment option?

Options:

A.

Security manager

B.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

C.

System administrator

D.

Business owner

Question 95

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

To aid in future risk assessments

B.

To improve the response process

C.

To determine whether digital evidence is admissible

D.

To notify regulatory authorities

Question 96

Which of the following would provide the BEST input to a business case for a technical solution to address potential system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Vulnerability scan results

Question 97

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after a new cybersecunty regulation has been introduced?

Options:

A.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Consult corporate legal counsel

C.

Update the information security policy.

D.

Perform a gap analysis.

Question 98

An organization's automated security monitoring tool generates an excessively large amount of falsq positives. Which of the following is the BEST method to optimize the monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report only critical alerts.

B.

Change reporting thresholds.

C.

Reconfigure log recording.

D.

Monitor incidents in a specific time frame.

Question 99

An online trading company discovers that a network attack has penetrated the firewall. What should be the information security manager's FIRST response?

Options:

A.

Notify the regulatory agency of the incident.

B.

Implement mitigating controls.

C.

Evaluate the impact to the business.

D.

Examine firewall logs to identify the attacker.

Question 100

An organization's information security manager reads on social media that a recently purchased vendor product has been compromised and customer data has been posted online. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Notify local law enforcement agencies of a breach.

C.

Activate the incident response program.

D.

Validate the risk to the organization.

Question 101

Which of the following control types should be considered FIRST for aligning employee behavior with an organization's information security objectives?

Options:

A.

Administrative security controls

B.

Technical security controls

C.

Physical security controls

D.

Access security controls

Question 102

When establishing classifications of security incidents for the development of an incident response plan, which of the following provides the MOST valuable input?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Vulnerability assessment results

C.

The business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Recommendations from senior management

Question 103

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for executive management to be involved in establishing an enterprise's security management framework?

Options:

A.

To ensure industry best practices for enterprise security are followed

B.

To establish the minimum level of controls needed

C.

To determine the desired state of enterprise security

D.

To satisfy auditors' recommendations for enterprise security

Question 104

An organization is considering the feasibility of implementing a big data solution to analyze customer data. In order to support this initiative, the information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

inventory sensitive customer data to be processed by the solution.

B.

determine information security resource and budget requirements.

C.

assess potential information security risk to the organization.

D.

develop information security requirements for the big data solution.

Question 105

What is the MOST important consideration when establishing metrics for reporting to the information security strategy committee?

Options:

A.

Developing a dashboard for communicating the metrics

B.

Agreeing on baseline values for the metrics

C.

Benchmarking the expected value of the metrics against industry standards

D.

Aligning the metrics with the organizational culture

Question 106

Which is MOST important to identify when developing an effective information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Security awareness training needs

B.

Potential savings resulting from security governance

C.

Business assets to be secured

D.

Residual risk levels

Question 107

An organization is about to purchase a rival organization. The PRIMARY reason for performing information security due diligence prior to making the purchase is to:

Options:

A.

determine the security exposures.

B.

assess the ability to integrate the security department operations.

C.

ensure compliance with international standards.

D.

evaluate the security policy and standards.

Question 108

Which of the following BEST facilitates effective strategic alignment of security initiatives?

Options:

A.

The business strategy is periodically updated

B.

Procedures and standards are approved by department heads.

C.

Periodic security audits are conducted by a third-party.

D.

Organizational units contribute to and agree on priorities

Question 109

Which of the following BEST enables the restoration of operations after a limited ransomware incident occurs?

Options:

A.

Reliable image backups

B.

Impact assessment

C.

Documented eradication procedures

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 110

The PRIMARY purpose of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) is to determine the:

Options:

A.

scope of the business continuity program.

B.

resources needed for business recovery.

C.

recovery time objective (RTO).

D.

scope of the incident response plan.

Question 111

Which of the following eradication methods is MOST appropriate when responding to an incident resulting in malware on an application server?

Options:

A.

Disconnect the system from the network.

B.

Change passwords on the compromised system.

C.

Restore the system from a known good backup.

D.

Perform operation system hardening.

Question 112

Senior management has just accepted the risk of noncompliance with a new regulation What should the information security manager do NEX*P

Options:

A.

Report the decision to the compliance officer

B.

Update details within the risk register.

C.

Reassess the organization's risk tolerance.

D.

Assess the impact of the regulation.

Question 113

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to consider when identifying information security resource requirements?

Options:

A.

Current resourcing levels

B.

Availability of potential resources

C.

Information security strategy

D.

Information security incidents

Question 114

An information security manager has learned of an increasing trend in attacks that use phishing emails impersonating an organization's CEO in an attempt to commit wire transfer fraud. Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk associated with this type of attack?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend wire transfers for the organization.

B.

Provide awareness training to the CEO for this type of phishing attack.

C.

Provide awareness training to staff responsible for wire transfers.

D.

Disable emails for staff responsible for wire transfers.

Question 115

How would the information security program BEST support the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Conducting a control assessment

B.

Developing an emerging technology roadmap

C.

Providing effective risk governance

D.

Developing an acceptable use policy

Question 116

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of using a cloud access security broker when migrating to a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Enhanced data governance

B.

Increased third-party assurance

C.

)Improved incident management

D.

Reduced total cost of ownership (TCO)

Question 117

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Review current recovery policies.

B.

Define the organizational strategy.

C.

Prioritize the critical processes.

D.

Review existing cyber insurance coverage.

Question 118

An organization has suffered from a large-scale security event impacting a critical system. Following the decision to restore the system at an alternate location, which plan should be invoked?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident response plan

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Communications plan

Question 119

Which of the following is the BEST way lo monitor for advanced persistent threats (APT) in an organization?

Options:

A.

Network with peers in the industry to share information.

B.

Browse the Internet to team of potential events

C.

Search for anomalies in the environment

D.

Search for threat signatures in the environment.

Question 120

Which of the following metrics is MOST appropriate for evaluating the incident notification process?

Options:

A.

Average total cost of downtime per reported incident

B.

Elapsed time between response and resolution

C.

Average number of incidents per reporting period

D.

Elapsed time between detection, reporting, and response

Question 121

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an emerging incident?

Options:

A.

A weakness identified within an organization's information systems

B.

Customer complaints about lack of website availability

C.

A recent security incident at an industry competitor

D.

Attempted patching of systems resulting in errors

Question 122

To help users apply appropriate controls related to data privacy regulation, what is MOST important to communicate to the users?

Options:

A.

Data storage procedures

B.

Data classification policy

C.

Results of penetration testing

D.

Features of data protection products

Question 123

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to increase security awareness in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implement regularly scheduled information security audits.

B.

Require signed acknowledgment of information security policies.

C.

Conduct periodic simulated phishing exercises.

D.

Include information security requirements in job descriptions.

Question 124

The business value of an information asset is derived from:

Options:

A.

the threat profile.

B.

its criticality.

C.

the risk assessment.

D.

its replacement cost.

Question 125

Which of the following BEST enables the assignment of risk and control ownership?

Options:

A.

Aligning to an industry-recognized control framework

B.

Adopting a risk management framework

C.

Obtaining senior management buy-in

D.

Developing an information security strategy

Question 126

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon confirming a privileged user's unauthorized modifications to a security application?

Options:

A.

Report the risk associated with the policy breach.

B.

Enforce the security configuration and require the change to be reverted.

C.

Implement compensating controls to address the risk.

D.

Implement a privileged access management system.

Question 127

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST course of action when a penetration test reveals a security exposure due to a firewall that is not configured correctly?

Options:

A.

Ensure a plan with milestones is developed.

B.

Implement a distributed denial of service (DDoS) control.

C.

Engage the incident response team.

D.

Define new key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 128

A software vendor has announced a zero-day vulnerability that exposes an organization's critical business systems. The vendor has released an emergency patch. Which of the following should be the information security managers PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Ability to test the patch prior to deployment

B.

Documentation of patching procedures

C.

Adequacy of the incident response plan

D.

Availability of resources to implement controls

Question 129

Which of the following roles is accountable for ensuring the impact of a new regulatory framework on a business system is assessed?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Application owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Legal representative

Question 130

An information security manager notes that security incidents are not being appropriately escalated by the help desk after tickets are logged. Which of the following is the BEST automated control to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning in the help desk workflow

B.

Changing the default setting for all security incidents to the highest priority

C.

Integrating automated service level agreement (SLA) reporting into the help desk ticketing system

D.

Integrating incident response workflow into the help desk ticketing system

Question 131

After logging in to a web application, additional authentication is checked at various application points. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for such an approach?

Options:

A.

To ensure access rights meet classification requirements

B.

To facilitate the analysis of application logs

C.

To ensure web application availability

D.

To support strong two-factor authentication protocols

Question 132

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a status report on the information security program to senior management?

Options:

A.

Providing evidence that resources are performing as expected

B.

Verifying security costs do not exceed the budget

C.

Demonstrating risk is managed at the desired level

D.

Confirming the organization complies with security policies

Question 133

When developing an information security strategy for an organization, which of the following is MOST helpful for understanding where to focus efforts?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Project plans

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 134

When integrating security risk management into an organization it is MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

business units approve the risk management methodology.

B.

the risk treatment process is defined.

C.

information security policies are documented and understood.

D.

the risk management methodology follows an established framework.

Question 135

Which of the following is the BEST way to enhance training for incident response teams?

Options:

A.

Perform post-incident reviews.

B.

Establish incident key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Conduct interviews with organizational units.

D.

Participate in emergency response activities.

Question 136

An organization is performing due diligence when selecting a third party. Which of the following is MOST helpful to reduce the risk of unauthorized sharing of information during this process?

Options:

A.

Using secure communication channels

B.

Establishing mutual non-disclosure agreements (NDAs)

C.

Requiring third-party privacy policies

D.

Obtaining industry references

Question 137

An information security manager wants to document requirements detailing the minimum security controls required for user workstations. Which of the following resources would be MOST appropriate for this purposed?

Options:

A.

Guidelines

B.

Policies

C.

Procedures

D.

Standards

Question 138

An organization is considering using a third party to host sensitive archived data. Which of the following is MOST important to verify before entering into the relationship?

Options:

A.

The vendor's data centers are in the same geographic region.

B.

The encryption keys are not provisled to the vendor.

C.

The vendor's controls are in line with the organization's security standards.

D.

Independent audits of the vendor's operations are regularly conducted.

Question 139

Which of the following is MOST important to complete during the recovery phase of an incident response process before bringing affected systems back online?

Options:

A.

Record and close security incident tickets.

B.

Test and verify that compromisedsystems are clean.

C.

Document recovery steps for senior management reporting.

D.

Capture and preserve forensic images of affected systems.

Question 140

Which of the following elements of a service contract would BEST enable an organization to monitor the information security risk associated with a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Indemnification clause

B.

Breach detection and notification

C.

Compliance status reporting

D.

Physical access to service provider premises

Question 141

An information security manager has identified that privileged employee access requests to production servers are approved; but user actions are not logged. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

Lack of availability

B.

Lack of accountability

C.

Improper authorization

D.

Inadequate authentication

Question 142

Which of the following is the MOST important security consideration when developing an incident response strategy with a cloud provider?

Options:

A.

Escalation processes

B.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

C.

Security audit reports

D.

Technological capabilities

Question 143

The ULTIMATE responsibility for ensuring the objectives of an information security framework are being met belongs to:

Options:

A.

)the information security officer.

B.

the steering committee.

C.

the board of directors.

D.

the internal audit manager.

Question 144

Which of the following BEST supports effective communication during information security incidents7

Options:

A.

Frequent incident response training sessions

B.

Centralized control monitoring capabilities

C.

Responsibilities defined within role descriptions

D.

Predetermined service level agreements (SLAs)

Question 145

The PRIMARY purpose for deploying information security metrics is to:

Options:

A.

compare program effectiveness to benchmarks.

B.

support ongoing security budget requirements.

C.

ensure that technical operations meet specifications.

D.

provide information needed to make decisions.

Question 146

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when briefing executives about the current state of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Including a situational forecast

B.

Using appropriate language for the target audience

C.

Including trend charts for metrics

D.

Using a rating system to demonstrate program effectiveness

Question 147

Which of the following should be triggered FIRST when unknown malware has infected an organization's critical system?

Options:

A.

Incident response plan

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Vulnerability management plan

Question 148

A business unit recently integrated the organization's new strong password policy into its business application which requires users to reset passwords every 30 days. The help desk is now flooded with password reset requests. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Provide end-user training.

B.

Escalate to senior management.

C.

Continue to enforce the policy.

D.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA).

Question 149

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to maintain an appropriate security control environment?

Options:

A.

Alignment to an industry security framework

B.

Budgetary support for security

C.

Periodic employee security training

D.

Monitoring of the threat landscape

Question 150

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a cyber resilience strategy?

Options:

A.

Business continuity

B.

Regulatory compliance

C.

Employee awareness

D.

Executive support

Question 151

A risk owner has accepted a large amount of risk due to the high cost of controls. Which of the following should be the information security manager's PRIMARY focus in this situation?

Options:

A.

Establishing a strong ongoing risk monitoring process

B.

Presenting the risk profile for approval by the risk owner

C.

Conducting an independent review of risk responses

D.

Updating the information security standards to include the accepted risk

Question 152

What should an information security manager verify FIRST when reviewing an information asset management program?

Options:

A.

System owners have been identified.

B.

Key applications have been secured.

C.

Information assets have been classified.

D.

Information assets have been inventoried.

Question 153

Which of the following is the BEST option to lower the cost to implement application security controls?

Options:

A.

Perform security tests in the development environment.

B.

Integrate security activities within the development process

C.

Perform a risk analysis after project completion.

D.

Include standard application security requirements

Question 154

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to help ensure an organization's cybersecurity program meets the needs of the business?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment program

B.

Information security awareness training

C.

Information security governance

D.

Information security metrics

Question 155

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of an information security awareness training program?

Options:

A.

Influencing human behavior

B.

Evaluating organizational security culture

C.

Defining risk accountability

D.

Enforcing security policy

Question 156

Which of the following tools provides an incident response team with the GREATEST insight into insider threat activity across multiple systems?

Options:

A.

A security information and event management (SIEM) system

B.

An intrusion prevention system (IPS)

C.

A virtual private network (VPN) with multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

An identity and access management (IAM) system

Question 157

Which of the following roles has the PRIMARY responsibility to ensure the operating effectiveness of IT controls?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Control tester

C.

IT compliance leader

D.

Information security manager

Question 158

Which of the following incident response phases involves actions to help safeguard critical systems while maintaining business operations?

Options:

A.

Recovery

B.

Identification

C.

Containment

D.

Preparation

Question 159

Which of the following is necessary to ensure consistent protection for an organization's information assets?

Options:

A.

Classification model

B.

Control assessment

C.

Data ownership

D.

Regulatory requirements

Question 160

Which of the following is MOST useful to an information security manager when determining the need to escalate an incident to senior?

Options:

A.

Incident management procedures

B.

Incident management policy

C.

System risk assessment

D.

Organizational risk register

Question 161

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an incident response plan to ensure incidents are responded to by the appropriate individuals?

Options:

A.

Skills required for the incident response team

B.

A list of external resources to assist with incidents

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A detailed incident notification process

Question 162

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify before conducting full-functional continuity testing?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance by the business has been documented

B.

Teams and individuals responsible for recovery have been identified

C.

Copies of recovery and incident response plans are kept offsite

D.

Incident response and recovery plans are documented in simple language

Question 163

The MAIN reason for having senior management review and approve an information security strategic plan is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the organization has the required funds to implement the plan.

B.

compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

staff participation in information security efforts.

D.

the plan aligns with corporate governance.

Question 164

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of including incident classification criteria within an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Ability to monitor and control incident management costs

B.

More visibility to the impact of disruptions

C.

Effective protection of information assets

D.

Optimized allocation of recovery resources

Question 165

While classifying information assets an information security manager notices that several production databases do not have owners assigned to them What is the BEST way to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Assign responsibility to the database administrator (DBA).

B.

Review the databases for sensitive content.

C.

Prepare a report of the databases for senior management.

D.

Assign the highest classification level to those databases.

Question 166

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when a newly introduced privacy regulation affects the business?

Options:

A.

Consult with IT staff and assess the risk based on their recommendations

B.

Update the security policy based on the regulatory requirements

C.

Propose relevant controls to ensure the business complies with the regulation

D.

Identify and assess the risk in the context of business objectives

Question 167

Which of the following is MOST effective for communicating forward-looking trends within security reporting?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCIs)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key goal indicators (KGIs)

Question 168

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Helping to determine the recovery point objective (RPO)

B.

Providing a basis for implementing a need-to-know policy

C.

Supporting segregation of duties

D.

Defining resource ownership

Question 169

Prior to conducting a forensic examination, an information security manager should:

Options:

A.

boot the original hard disk on a clean system.

B.

create an image of the original data on new media.

C.

duplicate data from the backup media.

D.

shut down and relocate the server.

Question 170

An anomaly-based intrusion detection system (IDS) operates by gathering data on:

Options:

A.

normal network behavior and using it as a baseline lor measuring abnormal activity

B.

abnormal network behavior and issuing instructions to the firewall to drop rogue connections

C.

abnormal network behavior and using it as a baseline for measuring normal activity

D.

attack pattern signatures from historical data

Question 171

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify when selecting a third-party forensics provider?

Options:

A.

Existence of a right-to-audit clause

B.

Results of the provider's business continuity tests

C.

Technical capabilities of the provider

D.

Existence of the provider's incident response plan

Question 172

An organization plans to utilize Software as a Service (SaaS) and is in the process of selecting a vendor. What should the information security manager do FIRST to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Review independent security assessment reports for each vendor.

B.

Benchmark each vendor's services with industry best practices.

C.

Analyze the risks and propose mitigating controls.

D.

Define information security requirements and processes.

Question 173

The information security manager has been notified of a new vulnerability that affects key data processing systems within the organization Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management

B.

Re-evaluate the risk

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Ask the business owner for the new remediation plan

Question 174

Which of the following BEST determines the allocation of resources during a security incident response?

Options:

A.

Senior management commitment

B.

A business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

An established escalation process

D.

Defined levels of severity

Question 175

Following a successful attack, an information security manager should be confident the malware @ continued to spread at the completion of which incident response phase?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Eradication

D.

Identification

Question 176

Due to specific application requirements, a project team has been granted administrative ponieon GR: is the PRIMARY reason for ensuring clearly defined roles and responsibilities are communicated to these users?

Options:

A.

Clearer segregation of duties

B.

Increased user productivity

C.

Increased accountability

D.

Fewer security incidents

Question 177

An organization's security policy is to disable access to USB storage devices on laptops and desktops. Which of the following is the STRONGEST justification for granting an exception to the policy?

Options:

A.

The benefit is greater than the potential risk.

B.

USB storage devices are enabled based on user roles.

C.

Users accept the risk of noncompliance.

D.

Access is restricted to read-only.

Question 178

What should be an information security manager's MOST important consideration when developing a multi-year plan?

Options:

A.

Ensuring contingency plans are in place for potential information security risks

B.

Ensuring alignment with the plans of other business units

C.

Allowing the information security program to expand its capabilities

D.

Demonstrating projected budget increases year after year

Question 179

The BEST way to ensure that frequently encountered incidents are reflected in the user security awareness training program is to include:

Options:

A.

results of exit interviews.

B.

previous training sessions.

C.

examples of help desk requests.

D.

responses to security questionnaires.

Question 180

Data entry functions for a web-based application have been outsourced to a third-party service provider who will work from a remote site Which of the following issues would be of GREATEST concern to an information security manager?

Options:

A.

The application does not use a secure communications protocol

B.

The application is configured with restrictive access controls

C.

The business process has only one level of error checking

D.

Server-based malware protection is not enforced

Question 181

Which of the following is the GREATEST inherent risk when performing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) test?

Options:

A.

Poor documentation of results and lessons learned

B.

Lack of communication to affected users

C.

Disruption to the production environment

D.

Lack of coordination among departments

Question 182

Which of the following has The GREATEST positive impact on The ability to execute a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Storing the plan at an offsite location

B.

Communicating the plan to all stakeholders

C.

Updating the plan periodically

D.

Conducting a walk-through of the plan

Question 183

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when recovering a compromised system that needs a complete rebuild?

Options:

A.

Patch management files

B.

Network system logs

C.

Configuration management files

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

Question 184

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of information security governance into corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Well-decumented information security policies and standards

B.

An information security steering committee with business representation

C.

Clear lines of authority across the organization

D.

Senior management approval of the information security strategy

Question 185

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the inherent risk of an information asset?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Net present value (NPV)

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Business criticality

Question 186

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has effectively tested its business continuity and disaster recovery plans within the stated recovery time objectives (RTOs)?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements are being met.

B.

Internal compliance requirements are being met.

C.

Risk management objectives are being met.

D.

Business needs are being met.

Question 187

Which of the following should be the FIRST step in developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Determine acceptable levels of information security risk

B.

Create a roadmap to identify security baselines and controls

C.

Perform a gap analysis based on the current state

D.

Identify key stakeholders to champion information security

Question 188

Which of the following desired outcomes BEST supports a decision to invest in a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Enhanced security monitoring and reporting

B.

Reduced control complexity

C.

Enhanced threat detection capability

D.

Reduction of organizational risk

Question 189

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to demonstrate alignment of information security strategy with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Heat map

Question 190

Reevaluation of risk is MOST critical when there is:

Options:

A.

resistance to the implementation of mitigating controls.

B.

a management request for updated security reports.

C.

a change in security policy.

D.

a change in the threat landscape.

Question 191

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's vision and mission

B.

Results of a comprehensive gap analysis

C.

Information security policies

D.

Audit and regulatory requirements

Question 192

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of managed security solutions?

Options:

A.

Wider range of capabilities

B.

Easier implementation across an organization

C.

Greater ability to focus on core business operations

D.

Lower cost of operations

Question 193

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when a mandatory security standard hinders the achievement of an identified business objective?

Options:

A.

Revisit the business objective.

B.

Escalate to senior management.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Recommend risk acceptance.

Question 194

Labeling information according to its security classification:

Options:

A.

enhances the likelihood of people handling information securely.

B.

reduces the number and type of countermeasures required.

C.

reduces the need to identify baseline controls for each classification.

D.

affects the consequences if information is handled insecurely.

Question 195

Which of the following is the responsibility of a risk owner?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plan activities with control owners

B.

Evaluating control effectiveness

C.

Approving risk treatment plans

D.

Approving the selection of risk mitigation measures

Question 196

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for determining the value of assets?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the assets

B.

Business cost when assets are not available

C.

Original cost of the assets minus depreciation

D.

Total cost of ownership (TCO)

Question 197

Which of the following BEST facilitates an information security manager's efforts to obtain senior management commitment for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Presenting evidence of inherent risk

B.

Reporting the security maturity level

C.

Presenting compliance requirements

D.

Communicating the residual risk

Question 198

Which of the following sources is MOST useful when planning a business-aligned information security program?

Options:

A.

Security risk register

B.

Information security policy

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

Question 199

The fundamental purpose of establishing security metrics is to:

Options:

A.

increase return on investment (ROI)

B.

provide feedback on control effectiveness

C.

adopt security best practices

D.

establish security benchmarks

Question 200

An information security manager learns through a threat intelligence service that the organization may be targeted for a major emerging threat. Which of the following is the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct an information security audit.

B.

Validate the relevance of the information.

C.

Perform a gap analysis.

D.

Inform senior management

Question 201

Reverse lookups can be used to prevent successful:

Options:

A.

denial of service (DoS) attacks

B.

session hacking

C.

phishing attacks

D.

Internet protocol (IP) spoofing

Question 202

An organization is in the process of acquiring a new company Which of the following would be the BEST approach to determine how to protect newly acquired data assets prior to integration?

Options:

A.

Include security requirements in the contract

B.

Assess security controls.

C.

Perform a risk assessment

D.

Review data architecture.

Question 203

During the initiation phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) for a software project, information security activities should address:

Options:

A.

baseline security controls.

B.

benchmarking security metrics.

C.

security objectives.

D.

cost-benefit analyses.

Question 204

Which of the following is the BEST approach to incident response for an organization migrating to a cloud-based solution?

Options:

A.

Adopt the cloud provider's incident response procedures.

B.

Transfer responsibility for incident response to the cloud provider.

C.

Continue using the existing incident response procedures.

D.

Revise incident response procedures to encompass the cloud environment.

Question 205

What is the PRIMARY objective of performing a vulnerability assessment following a business system update?

Options:

A.

Determine operational losses.

B.

Improve the change control process.

C.

Update the threat landscape.

D.

Review the effectiveness of controls

Question 206

Which of the following is the MOST important detail to capture in an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk severity level

C.

Risk acceptance criteria

D.

Risk ownership

Question 207

Which of the following is the BEST indication of effective information security governance?

Options:

A.

Information security is considered the responsibility of the entire information security team.

B.

Information security controls are assigned to risk owners.

C.

Information security is integrated into corporate governance.

D.

Information security governance is based on an external security framework.

Question 208

Which of the following is the BEST course of action if the business activity residual risk is lower than the acceptable risk level?

Options:

A.

Monitor the effectiveness of controls

B.

Update the risk assessment framework

C.

Review the inherent risk level

D.

Review the risk probability and impact

Question 209

When developing a business case to justify an information security investment, which of the following would BEST enable an informed decision by senior management?

Options:

A.

The information security strategy

B.

Losses due to security incidents

C.

The results of a risk assessment

D.

Security investment trends in the industry

Question 210

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to the recovery of critical systems and data following a ransomware incident?

Options:

A.

Lack of encryption for backup data in transit

B.

Undefined or undocumented backup retention policies

C.

Ineffective alert configurations for backup operations

D.

Unavailable or corrupt data backups

Question 211

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization when information security program requirements are aligned with employment and staffing processes?

Options:

A.

Security incident reporting procedures are followed.

B.

Security staff turnover is reduced.

C.

Information assets are classified appropriately.

D.

Access is granted based on task requirements.

Question 212

A risk assessment exercise has identified the threat of a denial of service (DoS) attack Executive management has decided to take no further action related to this risk. The MO ST likely reason for this decision is

Options:

A.

the risk assessment has not defined the likelihood of occurrence

B.

the reported vulnerability has not been validated

C.

executive management is not aware of the impact potential

D.

the cost of implementing controls exceeds the potential financial losses.

Question 213

Which of the following is the BEST technical defense against unauthorized access to a corporate network through social engineering?

Options:

A.

Requiring challenge/response information

B.

Requiring multi factor authentication

C.

Enforcing frequent password changes

D.

Enforcing complex password formats

Question 214

An organization's quality process can BEST support security management by providing:

Options:

A.

security configuration controls.

B.

assurance that security requirements are met.

C.

guidance for security strategy.

D.

a repository for security systems documentation.

Question 215

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents.

B.

identify vulnerabilities.

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

Question 216

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of incident triage?

Options:

A.

Coordination of communications

B.

Mitigation of vulnerabilities

C.

Categorization of events

D.

Containment of threats

Question 217

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are BEST determined by:

Options:

A.

business managers

B.

business continuity officers

C.

executive management

D.

database administrators (DBAs).

Question 218

Which of the following is the BEST indication of information security strategy alignment with the “&

Options:

A.

Percentage of information security incidents resolved within defined service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Percentage of corporate budget allocated to information security initiatives

C.

Number of business executives who have attended information security awareness sessions

D.

Number of business objectives directly supported by information security initiatives

Question 219

Which of the following events would MOST likely require a revision to the information security program?

Options:

A.

An increase in industry threat level .

B.

A significant increase in reported incidents

C.

A change in IT management

D.

A merger with another organization

Question 220

Which of the following change management procedures is MOST likely to cause concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Fallback processes are tested the weekend before changes are made

B.

Users are not notified of scheduled system changes

C.

A manual rather than an automated process is used to compare program versions.

D.

The development manager migrates programs into production

Question 221

The PRIMARY objective of a post-incident review of an information security incident is to:

Options:

A.

update the risk profile

B.

minimize impact

C.

prevent recurrence.

D.

determine the impact

Question 222

An organization faces severe fines and penalties if not in compliance with local regulatory requirements by an established deadline. Senior management has asked the information security manager to prepare an action plan to achieve compliance.

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information for planning purposes? »

Options:

A.

Results from a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Deadlines and penalties for noncompliance

C.

Results from a gap analysis

D.

An inventory of security controls currently in place

Question 223

Which of the following is the BEST approach when creating a security policy for a global organization subject to varying laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Incorporate policy statements derived from third-party standards and benchmarks.

B.

Adhere to a unique corporate privacy and security standard

C.

Establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required

D.

Require that all locations comply with a generally accepted set of industry

Question 224

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organizational structure

C.

Industry security standards

D.

Information security awareness

Question 225

Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain support for a new organization-wide information security program?

Options:

A.

Benchmark against similar industry organizations

B.

Deliver an information security awareness campaign.

C.

Publish an information security RACI chart.

D.

Establish an information security strategy committee.

Question 226

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should be responsible for determining the initial recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

External consultant

B.

Information owners

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business continuity coordinator

Question 227

Which of the following factors has the GREATEST influence on the successful implementation of information security strategy goals?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Compliance acceptance

C.

Management support

D.

Budgetary approval

Question 228

An organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP) is documented and kept at a disaster recovery site. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the plan can be carried out in an emergency?

Options:

A.

Store disaster recovery documentation in a public cloud.

B.

Maintain an outsourced contact center in another country.

C.

Require disaster recovery documentation be stored with all key decision makers.

D.

Provide annual disaster recovery training to appropriate staff.

Question 229

The PRIMARY reason to create and externally store the disk hash value when performing forensic data acquisition from a hard disk is to:

Options:

A.

validate the confidentiality during analysis.

B.

reinstate original data when accidental changes occur.

C.

validate the integrity during analysis.

D.

provide backup in case of media failure.

Question 230

A common drawback of email software packages that provide native encryption of messages is that the encryption:

Options:

A.

cannot encrypt attachments

B.

cannot interoperate across product domains.

C.

has an insufficient key length.

D.

has no key-recovery mechanism.

Question 231

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration of business continuity management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring human safety

B.

Identifying critical business processes

C.

Ensuring the reliability of backup data

D.

Securing critical information assets

Question 232

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

risk management

B.

project management

C.

governance

D.

performance

Question 233

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure appropriate security controls are built into software?

Options:

A.

Integrating security throughout the development process

B.

Performing security testing prior to deployment

C.

Providing standards for implementation during development activities

D.

Providing security training to the software development team

Question 234

Which of the following will ensure confidentiality of content when accessing an email system over the Internet?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Digital encryption

C.

Data masking

D.

Digital signatures

Question 235

Which of the following BEST demonstrates the added value of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security baselines

B.

A gap analysis

C.

A SWOT analysis

D.

A balanced scorecard

Question 236

An organization's HR department requires that employee account privileges be removed from all corporate IT systems within three days of termination to comply with a government regulation However, the systems all have different user directories, and it currently takes up to four weeks to remove the privileges Which of the following would BEST enable regulatory compliance?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) system

B.

Identity and access management (IAM) system

C.

Privileged access management (PAM) system

D.

Governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) system

Question 237

To overcome the perception that security is a hindrance to business activities, it is important for an information security manager to:

Options:

A.

rely on senior management to enforce security.

B.

promote the relevance and contribution of security.

C.

focus on compliance.

D.

reiterate the necessity of security.

Question 238

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization that maintains an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Resources are prioritized to maximize return on investment (ROI)

B.

Information security guidelines are communicated across the enterprise_

C.

The organization remains compliant with regulatory requirements.

D.

Business risks are managed to an acceptable level.

Question 239

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization has a mature information security culture?

Options:

A.

Information security training is mandatory for all staff.

B.

The organization's information security policy is documented and communicated.

C.

The chief information security officer (CISO) regularly interacts with the board.

D.

Staff consistently consider risk in making decisions.

Question 240

Which of the following is MOST important to include in monthly information security reports to the board?

Options:

A.

Trend analysis of security metrics

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Root cause analysis of security incidents

D.

Threat intelligence

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Total 801 questions