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Isaca CISM Dumps

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Total 1191 questions

Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Question 1

When implementing a security policy for an organization handling personally identifiable information (Pll); the MOST important objective should be:

Options:

A.

strong encryption

B.

regulatory compliance.

C.

data availability.

D.

security awareness training

Question 2

When establishing metrics for an information security program, the BEST approach is to identify indicators that:

Options:

A.

reduce information security program spending.

B.

support major information security initiatives.

C.

reflect the corporate risk culture.

D.

demonstrate the effectiveness of the security program.

Question 3

Data classification is PRIMARILY the responsibility of:

Options:

A.

senior management.

B.

the data custodian.

C.

the data owner.

D.

the security manager.

Question 4

The PRIMARY goal of the eradication phase in an incident response process is to:

Options:

A.

maintain a strict chain of custody.

B.

provide effective triage and containment of the incident.

C.

remove the threat and restore affected systems

D.

obtain forensic evidence from the affected system.

Question 5

Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a proposal justifying investments for an organization ' s information security program?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scan results

B.

Competitor benchmark analysis

C.

Previous security budget

D.

Business requirements

Question 6

Following a risk assessment, an organization has made the decision to adopt a bring your own device (BYOD) strategy. What should the information security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Develop a personal device policy

B.

Implement a mobile device management (MDM) solution

C.

Develop training specific to BYOD awareness

D.

Define control requirements

Question 7

Capacity planning would prevent:

Options:

A.

file system overload arising from distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

B.

system downtime for scheduled security maintenance.

C.

application failures arising from insufficient hardware resources.

D.

software failures arising from exploitation of buffer capacity vulnerabilities.

Question 8

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when updating procedures for managing security devices?

Options:

A.

Updates based on the organization ' s security framework

B.

Notification to management of the procedural changes

C.

Updates based on changes m risk technology and process

D.

Review and approval of procedures by management

Question 9

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when a mandatory security standard hinders the achievement of an identified business objective?

Options:

A.

Revisit the business objective.

B.

Escalate to senior management.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Recommend risk acceptance.

Question 10

An organization wants to integrate information security into its HR management processes. Which of the following should be the FIRST step?

Options:

A.

Benchmark the processes with best practice to identify gaps.

B.

Calculate the return on investment (ROI).

C.

Provide security awareness training to HR.

D.

Assess the business objectives of the processes.

Question 11

Which of the following MOST effectively identifies the organization’s ability to comply with legal, regulatory, and contractual requirements?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scan

B.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Risk assessment

Question 12

To overcome the perception that security is a hindrance to business activities, it is important for an information security manager to:

Options:

A.

rely on senior management to enforce security.

B.

promote the relevance and contribution of security.

C.

focus on compliance.

D.

reiterate the necessity of security.

Question 13

Which of the following is MOST relevant for an information security manager to communicate to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

The level of inherent risk

B.

Vulnerability assessments

C.

The level of exposure

D.

Threat assessments

Question 14

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an information security manager in a software development project?

Options:

A.

To enhance awareness for secure software design

B.

To assess and approve the security application architecture

C.

To identify noncompliance in the early design stage

D.

To identify software security weaknesses

Question 15

An incident response plan is being developed for servers hosting sensitive information. In the event of a breach, who should make the decision to shut down the system?

Options:

A.

Operations manager

B.

Service owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Incident response team

Question 16

During an information security audit, it was determined that IT staff did not follow the established standard when configuring and managing IT systems. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Providing annual information security awareness training

B.

Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning

C.

Implementing a strict change control process

D.

Updating configuration baselines

Question 17

The PRIMARY benefit of integrating information security activities into change management processes is to:

Options:

A.

protect the organization from unauthorized changes.

B.

ensure required controls are included in changes.

C.

provide greater accountability for security-related changes in the business.

D.

protect the business from collusion and compliance threats.

Question 18

In an organization with a rapidly changing environment, business management has accepted an information security risk. It is MOST important for the information security manager to ensure:

Options:

A.

change activities are documented.

B.

the rationale for acceptance is periodically reviewed.

C.

the acceptance is aligned with business strategy.

D.

compliance with the risk acceptance framework.

Question 19

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for identifying security control gaps on an application server?

Options:

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Threat models

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Internal audit reports

Question 20

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of the incident management recovery phase?

Options:

A.

To recover business operation support

B.

To perform a lessons-learned review

C.

To document actions taken to restore IT systems

D.

To bring IT services back online

Question 21

IT projects have gone over budget with too many security controls being added post-production. Which of the following would MOST help to ensure that relevant controls are applied to a project?

Options:

A.

Involving information security at each stage of project management

B.

Identifying responsibilities during the project business case analysis

C.

Creating a data classification framework and providing it to stakeholders

D.

Providing stakeholders with minimum information security requirements

Question 22

Following an unsuccessful denial of service (DoS) attack, identified weaknesses should be:

Options:

A.

quickly resolved and eliminated regardless of cost.

B.

tracked and reported on until their final resolution.

C.

documented in security awareness programs.

D.

noted and re-examined later if similar weaknesses are found.

Question 23

Which type of backup BEST enables an organization to recover data after a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Online backup

B.

Incremental backup

C.

Differential backup

D.

Offline backup

Question 24

A business continuity plan (BCP) should contain:

Options:

A.

information about eradication activities.

B.

hardware and software inventories.

C.

data restoration procedures.

D.

criteria for activation.

Question 25

Which of the following is MOST helpful for determining which information security policies should be implemented by an organization?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Industry best practices

Question 26

Which of the following is the BEST course of action if the business activity residual risk is lower than the acceptable risk level?

Options:

A.

Monitor the effectiveness of controls

B.

Update the risk assessment framework

C.

Review the inherent risk level

D.

Review the risk probability and impact

Question 27

Which of the following processes should be done NEXT after completing a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Develop the requirements for the incident response plan

B.

Develop a business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Evaluate the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Identify resources for business recovery

Question 28

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an information security status report management?

Options:

A.

List of recent security events

B.

Key risk indication (KRIs)

C.

Review of information security policies

D.

information security budget requests

Question 29

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to evaluate the security posture of a cloud service?

Options:

A.

Industry peer reviews

B.

Service provider attestations

C.

Penetration testing reports

D.

Third-party audit reports

Question 30

Which of the following BEST supports effective and timely incident response?

Options:

A.

Involving internal and external stakeholders

B.

Having a documented incident response plan in place

C.

Appointing a forensic incident response specialist

D.

Maintaining a SIEM solution

Question 31

An organization is experiencing a sharp increase in incidents related to phishing messages. The root cause is an outdated email filtering system that is no longer supported by the vendor. Which of the following should be the information security manager ' s FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reinforce security awareness practices for end users.

B.

Temporarily outsource the email system to a cloud provider.

C.

Develop a business case to replace the system.

D.

Monitor outgoing traffic on the firewall.

Question 32

Which of the following plans should be invoked by an organization in an effort to remain operational during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident response plan

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Business contingency plan

Question 33

An information security manager is reporting on open items from the risk register to senior management. Which of the following is MOST important to communicate with regard to these risks?

Options:

A.

Responsible entities

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIS)

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Potential business impact

Question 34

Information security needs to invest in new tools to align with a recently updated bring your own device (BYOD) policy that now includes wearable technologies. Which of the following would BEST demonstrate return on investment (ROI) in risk management when presenting to the strategy committee for review?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Risk audit report

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 35

Without prior approval, a training department enrolled the company in a free cloud-based collaboration site and invited employees to use it. Which of the following is the BEST response of the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Allow temporary use of the site and monitor for data leakage

B.

Report the activity to senior management

C.

Conduct a risk assessment and develop an impact analysis

D.

Update the risk register and review the information security strategy

Question 36

A software vendor has announced a zero-day vulnerability that exposes an organization ' s critical business systems. The vendor has released an emergency patch. Which of the following should be the information security managers PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Ability to test the patch prior to deployment

B.

Documentation of patching procedures

C.

Adequacy of the incident response plan

D.

Availability of resources to implement controls

Question 37

Which of the following BEST enables the assignment of risk and control ownership?

Options:

A.

Aligning to an industry-recognized control framework

B.

Adopting a risk management framework

C.

Obtaining senior management buy-in

D.

Developing an information security strategy

Question 38

An information security manager learns that a risk owner has approved exceptions to replace key controls with weaker compensating controls to improve process efficiency. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Risk levels may be elevated beyond acceptable limits.

B.

Security audits may report more high-risk findings.

C.

The compensating controls may not be cost efficient.

D.

Noncompliance with industry best practices may result.

Question 39

Which of the following is the BEST approach to incident response for an organization migrating to a cloud-based solution?

Options:

A.

Adopt the cloud provider ' s incident response procedures.

B.

Transfer responsibility for incident response to the cloud provider.

C.

Continue using the existing incident response procedures.

D.

Revise incident response procedures to encompass the cloud environment.

Question 40

Of the following, who is MOST appropriate to own the risk associated with the failure of a privileged access control?

Options:

A.

Data owner

B.

Business owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Compliance manager

Question 41

Who is accountable for ensuring proper controls are in place to address the confidentiality and availability of an information system?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Information owner

C.

Business manager

D.

Information security manager

Question 42

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining which type of failover site to employ?

Options:

A.

Reciprocal agreements

B.

Disaster recovery test results

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

Data retention requirements

Question 43

Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring information stored by an organization is protected appropriately?

Options:

A.

Defining information stewardship roles

B.

Defining security asset categorization

C.

Assigning information asset ownership

D.

Developing a records retention schedule

Question 44

Which of the following would BEST support the business case for an increase in the information security budget?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis results

B.

Comparison of information security budgets with peer organizations

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Frequency of information security incidents

Question 45

When a critical system incident is reported, the FIRST step of the incident handler should be to:

Options:

A.

Notify the appropriate parties

B.

Determine the scope of the incident

C.

Validate the incident

D.

Power off the system

Question 46

Which of the following is MOST helpful for protecting an enterprise from advanced persistent threats (APTs)?

Options:

A.

Updated security policies

B.

Defined security standards

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Regular antivirus updates

Question 47

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is not co-mingled or exposed when using a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Obtain an independent audit report.

B.

Require the provider to follow stringent data classification procedures.

C.

Include high penalties for security breaches in the contract.

D.

Review the provider ' s information security policies.

Question 48

Which of the following is the BEST way to evaluate the effectiveness of physical and environmental security controls implemented for fire-related disasters?

Options:

A.

Conduct evacuation exercises

B.

Review the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Conduct awareness sessions

D.

Review emergency management team procedures

Question 49

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization has integrated information security governance with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Security performance metrics are measured against business objectives.

B.

Impact is measured according to business loss when assessing IT risk.

C.

Security policies are reviewed whenever business objectives are changed.

D.

Service levels for security vendors are defined according to business needs.

Question 50

Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain support for a new organization-wide information security program?

Options:

A.

Benchmark against similar industry organizations

B.

Deliver an information security awareness campaign.

C.

Publish an information security RACI chart.

D.

Establish an information security strategy committee.

Question 51

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure the alignment of an information security program with the organizational strategy?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking against industry peers

B.

Adoption of an industry recognized framework

C.

Approval from senior management

D.

Identification of business-specific risk factors

Question 52

Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the information security goxernance function?

Options:

A.

Administering information security awareness training

B.

Defining security strategies to support organizational programs

C.

Ensuring adequate support for solutions using emerging technologies

D.

Advising senior management on optimal levels of risk appetite and tolerance

Question 53

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure compliance with an organization ' s information security requirements by an IT service provider?

Options:

A.

Requiring an external security audit of the IT service provider

B.

Requiring regular reporting from the IT service provider

C.

Defining information security requirements with internal IT

D.

Defining the business recovery plan with the IT service provider

Question 54

Which of the following is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Purchasing insurance

B.

Discontinuing the activity associated with the risk

C.

Improving security controls

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

Question 55

Which of the following is MOST likely to reduce the effectiveness of a SIEM system?

Options:

A.

Complex user interface

B.

Misconfiguration of alert thresholds

C.

Weakly encrypted log files

D.

Lack of multi-factor authentication (MFA) for system access

Question 56

Which of the following is the MOST important factor in an organization ' s selection of a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

Return on investment (ROI)

B.

Compliance requirements

C.

Target audience

D.

Criticality of information

Question 57

An information security team has started work to mitigate findings from a recent penetration test. Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Some findings were reclassified to low risk after evaluation

B.

Not all findings from the penetration test report were fixed

C.

The penetration testing report did not contain any high-risk findings

D.

Risk classification of penetration test findings was not performed

Question 58

Which of the following would MOST effectively ensure that a new server is appropriately secured?

Options:

A.

Performing secure code reviews

B.

Enforcing technical security standards

C.

Conducting penetration testing

D.

Initiating security scanning

Question 59

Which of the following is MOST useful to an information security manager when reporting the performance of the information security program to senior management?

Options:

A.

Number of policy exceptions

B.

Number of incidents identified and remediated

C.

System vulnerability scan results

D.

Results of an independent security audit

Question 60

When drafting the corporate privacy statement for a public website, which of the following MUST be included?

Options:

A.

Limited liability clause

B.

Explanation of information usage

C.

Information encryption requirements

D.

Access control requirements

Question 61

A recent audit found that an organization ' s new user accounts are not set up uniformly. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to review?

Options:

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Standards

Question 62

An organization is about to purchase a rival organization. The PRIMARY reason for performing information security due diligence prior to making the purchase is to:

Options:

A.

determine the security exposures.

B.

assess the ability to integrate the security department operations.

C.

ensure compliance with international standards.

D.

evaluate the security policy and standards.

Question 63

The PRIMARY objective of a post-incident review of an information security incident is to:

Options:

A.

update the risk profile

B.

minimize impact

C.

prevent recurrence.

D.

determine the impact

Question 64

Which of the following is the BEST defense-in-depth implementation for protecting high value assets or for handling environments that have trust concerns?

Options:

A.

Compartmentalization

B.

Overlapping redundancy

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Multi-factor authentication

Question 65

Of the following, who is accountable for data loss in the event of an information security incident at a third-party provider?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The service provider that hosts the data

C.

The incident response team

D.

The business data owner

Question 66

For event logs to be acceptable for incident investigation, which of the following is the MOST important consideration to establish chain of evidence?

Options:

A.

Centralized logging

B.

Time clock synchronization

C.

Available forensic tools

D.

Administrator log access

Question 67

Which of the following will ensure confidentiality of content when accessing an email system over the Internet?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Digital encryption

C.

Data masking

D.

Digital signatures

Question 68

In addition to executive sponsorship and business alignment, which of the following is MOST critical for information security governance?

Options:

A.

Ownership of security

B.

Compliance with policies

C.

Auditability of systems

D.

Allocation of training resources

Question 69

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when establishing information security policies for an organization?

Options:

A.

Job descriptions include requirements to read security policies.

B.

The policies are updated annually.

C.

Senior management supports the policies.

D.

The policies are aligned to industry best practices.

Question 70

When multiple Internet intrusions on a server are detected, the PRIMARY concern of the information security manager should be to ensure:

Options:

A.

the integrity of evidence is preserved.

B.

forensic investigation software is loaded on the server.

C.

the incident is reported to senior management.

D.

the server is unplugged from power.

Question 71

An information security team has confirmed that threat actors are taking advantage of a newly announced critical vulnerability within an application. Which of the following should be done

FIRST?

Options:

A.

Install additional application controls.

B.

Notify senior management.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Prevent access to the application.

Question 72

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for the development of a business case to obtain support for an information security project?

Options:

A.

Budgetary requirements

B.

Feasibility study

C.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Risk tolerance levels

Question 73

Which of the following is MOST important for responding effectively to security breaches?

Options:

A.

Incident classification

B.

Chain of custody

C.

Communication plan

D.

Log monitoring

Question 74

During the selection of a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor for a business process, the vendor provides evidence of a globally accepted information security certification. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration?

Options:

A.

The certification includes industry-recognized security controls.

B.

The certification was issued within the last five years.

C.

The certification is issued for the specific scope.

D.

The certification is easily verified.

Question 75

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of performing a tabletop exercise of the business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

It identifies appropriate follow-up work to address shortcomings in the plan.

B.

It allows for greater participation and planning from the business side.

C.

It helps in assessing the availability of compatible backup hardware.

D.

It provides a low-cost method of assessing the BCP ' s completeness.

Question 76

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor for information security program success?

Options:

A.

comprehensive risk assessment program for information security

B.

The information security manager ' s knowledge of the business

C.

Security staff with appropriate training and adequate resources

D.

Ongoing audits and addressing open items

Question 77

In the context of developing an information security strategy, which of the following provides the MOST useful input to determine the or

Options:

A.

Security budget

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk score

D.

Laws and regulations

Question 78

During the initiation phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) for a software project, information security activities should address:

Options:

A.

baseline security controls.

B.

benchmarking security metrics.

C.

security objectives.

D.

cost-benefit analyses.

Question 79

A data discovery project uncovers an unclassified process document. Of the following, who is BEST suited to determine the classification?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Security policy author

C.

Creator of the document

D.

Data custodian

Question 80

Reevaluation of risk is MOST critical when there is:

Options:

A.

resistance to the implementation of mitigating controls.

B.

a management request for updated security reports.

C.

a change in security policy.

D.

a change in the threat landscape.

Question 81

Which of the following BEST indicates that information assets are classified accurately?

Options:

A.

Appropriate prioritization of information risk treatment

B.

Increased compliance with information security policy

C.

Appropriate assignment of information asset owners

D.

An accurate and complete information asset catalog

Question 82

To ensure the information security of outsourced IT services, which of the following is the MOST critical due diligence activity?

Options:

A.

Request the service provider comply with information security policy.

B.

Review a recent independent audit report of the service provider.

C.

Assess the level of security awareness of the service provider.

D.

Review samples of service level reports from the service provider.

Question 83

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an organization ' s information security status?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection log analysis

B.

Controls audit

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Penetration test

Question 84

Which of the following is the BEST reason for senior management to support a business case for developing a monitoring system for a critical application?

Options:

A.

An industry peer experienced a recent breach with a similar application.

B.

The system can be replicated for additional use cases.

C.

The cost of implementing the system is less than the impact of downtime.

D.

The solution is within the organization ' s risk tolerance.

Question 85

An employee of an organization has reported losing a smartphone that contains sensitive information The BEST step to address this situation is to:

Options:

A.

disable the user ' s access to corporate resources.

B.

terminate the device connectivity.

C.

remotely wipe the device

D.

escalate to the user ' s management

Question 86

An online bank identifies a successful network attack in progress. The bank should FIRST:

Options:

A.

isolate the affected network segment.

B.

report the root cause to the board of directors.

C.

assess whether personally identifiable information (Pll) is compromised.

D.

shut down the entire network.

Question 87

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the risk associated with using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Verify that information security requirements are included in the contract.

B.

Request customer references from the vendor.

C.

Require vendors to complete information security questionnaires.

D.

Review the results of the vendor ' s independent control reports.

Question 88

Which of the following BEST supports information security management in the event of organizational changes in security personnel?

Options:

A.

Formalizing a security strategy and program

B.

Developing an awareness program for staff

C.

Ensuring current documentation of security processes

D.

Establishing processes within the security operations team

Question 89

A Seat a-hosting organization ' s data center houses servers, appli

BEST approach for developing a physical access control policy for the organization?

Options:

A.

Review customers’ security policies.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine security risks and mitigating controls.

C.

Develop access control requirements for each system and application.

D.

Design single sign-on (SSO) or federated access.

Question 90

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of post-incident review activities?

Options:

A.

Evidence collection

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Incident triage

D.

Incident documentation

Question 91

When developing security processes for handling credit card data on the business unit ' s information system, the information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

ensure alignment with industry encryption standards.

B.

ensure that systems that handle credit card data are segmented.

C.

review industry best practices for handling secure payments.

D.

review corporate policies regarding credit card information.

Question 92

A global organization has outsourced security processes to a service provider by means of a global agreement. What is the MOST efficient approach to meet country-specific regulatory requirements?

Options:

A.

Include binding corporate rules into the global agreement

B.

Set up a governance organization for each country

C.

Review the agreement for each country separately

D.

Set up companion agreements for each country

Question 93

Which of the following Is MOST useful to an information security manager when conducting a post-incident review of an attack?

Options:

A.

Cost of the attack to the organization

B.

Location of the attacker

C.

Method of operation used by the attacker

D.

Details from intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

Question 94

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when creating information security policies?

Options:

A.

The information security framework

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Information security metrics

D.

Risk assessment results

Question 95

Which of the following would be MOST effective in reducing the impact of a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack?

Options:

A.

Impose state limits on servers.

B.

Spread a site across multiple ISPs.

C.

Block the attack at the source.

D.

Harden network security.

Question 96

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to consider when developing a business continuity plan (BCP) for ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Backups are maintained offline and regularly tested.

B.

Impacted networks can be detached at the network switch level.

C.

Production data is continuously replicated between primary and secondary sites.

D.

Backups are maintained on multiple sites and regularly reviewed.

Question 97

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of conducting an organization-wide security awareness program?

Options:

A.

The security strategy is promoted.

B.

Fewer security incidents are reported.

C.

Security behavior is improved.

D.

More security incidents are detected.

Question 98

Which of the following metrics provides the BEST evidence of alignment of information security governance with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Average return on investment (ROI) associated with security initiatives

B.

Average number of security incidents across business units

C.

Mean time to resolution (MTTR) for enterprise-wide security incidents

D.

Number of vulnerabilities identified for high-risk information assets

Question 99

An organization ' s marketing department wants to use an online collaboration service, which is not in compliance with the information security policy, A risk assessment is performed, and risk acceptance is being pursued. Approval of risk acceptance should be provided by:

Options:

A.

the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

business senior management.

C.

the information security manager.

D.

the compliance officer.

Question 100

An organization has acquired a new system with strict maintenance instructions and schedules. Where should this information be documented?

Options:

A.

Standards

B.

Policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Procedures

Question 101

When investigating an information security incident, details of the incident should be shared:

Options:

A.

widely to demonstrate positive intent.

B.

only with management.

C.

only as needed,

D.

only with internal audit.

Question 102

Which of the following BEST encourages staff to report issues related to information security?

Options:

A.

Tabletop exercises are performed on a regular basis

B.

Incentives are offered for security skills training

C.

The leaders set a positive security culture

D.

Formal incident response processes are in place

Question 103

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful intrusion into an organization ' s systems?

Options:

A.

Decrease in internal network traffic

B.

Increase in the number of failed login attempts

C.

Increase in the number of irregular application requests

D.

Decrease in available storage space

Question 104

ACISO learns that a third-party service provider did not notify the organization of a data breach that affected the service provider ' s data center. Which of the following should the CISO do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recommend canceling the outsourcing contract.

B.

Request an independent review of the provider ' s data center.

C.

Notify affected customers of the data breach.

D.

Determine the extent of the impact to the organization.

Question 105

During which phase of new system development should an organization FIRST address emerging risk?

Options:

A.

Design

B.

Implementation

C.

Planning

D.

Testing

Question 106

When management changes the enterprise business strategy which of the following processes should be used to evaluate the existing information security controls as well as to select new information security controls?

Options:

A.

Configuration management

B.

Risk management

C.

Access control management

D.

Change management

Question 107

Which of the following BEST supports the incident management process for attacks on an organization ' s supply chain?

Options:

A.

Including service level agreements (SLAs) in vendor contracts

B.

Establishing communication paths with vendors

C.

Requiring security awareness training for vendor staff

D.

Performing integration testing with vendor systems

Question 108

An information security manager has identified that privileged employee access requests to production servers are approved; but user actions are not logged. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

Lack of availability

B.

Lack of accountability

C.

Improper authorization

D.

Inadequate authentication

Question 109

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk associated with a bring your own device (BYOD) program?

Options:

A.

Implement a mobile device policy and standard.

B.

Provide employee training on secure mobile device practices.

C.

Implement a mobile device management (MDM) solution.

D.

Require employees to install an effective anti-malware app.

Question 110

Which of the following should be an information security manager s MOST important consideration when determining the priority for implementing security controls?

Options:

A.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

B.

Results of business impact analyses (BIAs)

C.

Possibility of reputational loss due to incidents

D.

Availability of security budget

Question 111

Which of the following tasks should be performed once a disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been developed?

Options:

A.

Develop the test plan.

B.

Analyze the business impact.

C.

Define response team roles.

D.

Identify recovery time objectives (RTOs).

Question 112

An organization has purchased an Internet sales company to extend the sales department. The information security manager ' s FIRST step to ensure the security policy framework encompasses the new business model is to:

Options:

A.

perform a gap analysis.

B.

implement both companies ' policies separately

C.

merge both companies ' policies

D.

perform a vulnerability assessment

Question 113

An organization has multiple data repositories across different departments. The information security manager has been tasked with creating an enterprise strategy for protecting data. Which of the following information security initiatives should be the HIGHEST priority for the organization?

Options:

A.

Data masking

B.

Data retention strategy

C.

Data encryption standards

D.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

Question 114

The PRIMARY purpose of vulnerability identification is to:

Options:

A.

Remediate vulnerabilities before they are exploited

B.

Discover control deficiencies

C.

Provide vulnerability identifiers for risk reporting

D.

Prioritize vulnerability remediation

Question 115

Which of the following will provide the MOST guidance when deciding the level of protection for an information asset?

Options:

A.

Impact on information security program

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Impact to business function

D.

Cost to replace

Question 116

The results of a risk assessment for a potential network reconfiguration reveal a high likelihood of sensitive data being compromised. What is the information security manager ' s BEST course of

action?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional network segmentation.

B.

Seek an independent opinion to confirm the findings.

C.

Determine alignment with existing regulations.

D.

Report findings to key stakeholders.

Question 117

Which of the following should have the MOST influence on the development of information security policies?

Options:

A.

Business strategy

B.

Past and current threats

C.

IT security framework

D.

Industry standards

Question 118

Which of the following is the MOST important criterion when deciding whether to accept residual risk?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the asset

B.

Cost of additional mitigation

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Annual rate of occurrence

Question 119

Which of the following activities is MOST appropriate to conduct during the eradication phase of a cyber incident response?

Options:

A.

Restore affected systems for normal operations.

B.

Mitigate exploited vulnerabilities to stop future incidents.

C.

Estimate the amount of damage caused by the incident.

D.

Isolate affected systems to prevent further damage

Question 120

Which of the following should be updated FIRST to account for new regulatory requirements that impact current information security controls?

Options:

A.

Control matrix

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Risk register

D.

Information security policy

Question 121

Which of the following is MOST important when designing security controls for new cloud-based services?

Options:

A.

Evaluating different types of deployment models according to the associated risks

B.

Understanding the business and IT strategy for moving resources to the cloud

C.

Defining an incident response policy to protect data moving between onsite and cloud applications

D.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA) to gather information needed to develop recovery strategies

Question 122

From a business perspective, the GREATEST benefit of an incident response plan is that it:

Options:

A.

Promotes efficiency by providing predefined response procedures

B.

Improves security responsiveness to disruptive events

C.

Limits the negative impact of disruptive events

D.

Ensures compliance with regulatory requirements

Question 123

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure compliance with password standards?

Options:

A.

Implementing password-synchronization software

B.

Using password-cracking software

C.

Automated enforcement of password syntax rules

D.

A user-awareness program

Question 124

Which of the following BEST determines the allocation of resources during a security incident response?

Options:

A.

Senior management commitment

B.

A business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

An established escalation process

D.

Defined levels of severity

Question 125

Following an information security risk assessment of a critical system, several significant issues have been identified. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to confirm?

Options:

A.

The risks are reported to the business unit’s senior management

B.

The risks are escalated to the IT department for remediation

C.

The risks are communicated to the central risk function

D.

The risks are entered in the organization ' s risk register

Question 126

The executive management of a domestic organization has announced plans to expand operations to multiple international locations. Which of the following should be the information security manager ' s FIRST step upon learning of these plans?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis against international information security standards

B.

Update security training and awareness resources accordingly

C.

Research legal and regulatory requirements impacting the new locations

D.

Prepare localized information security policies for each new location

Question 127

Which of the following is the BEST control to protect customer personal information that is stored in the cloud?

Options:

A.

Timely deletion of digital records

B.

Appropriate data anonymization

C.

Strong encryption methods

D.

Strong physical access controls

Question 128

An incident management team is alerted ta a suspected security event. Before classifying the suspected event as a security incident, it is MOST important for the security manager to:

Options:

A.

notify the business process owner.

B.

follow the business continuity plan (BCP).

C.

conduct an incident forensic analysis.

D.

follow the incident response plan.

Question 129

An organization ' s main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS). The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider. Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data owner

C.

The application owner

D.

The security engineer

Question 130

If civil litigation is a goal for an organizational response to a security incident, the PRIMARY step should be to:

Options:

A.

contact law enforcement.

B.

document the chain of custody.

C.

capture evidence using standard server-backup utilities.

D.

reboot affected machines in a secure area to search for evidence.

Question 131

What should an information security manager do FIRST when an organization is planning to use a third-party cloud computing service for a critical business process?

Options:

A.

Identify the data to be hosted.

B.

Perform a gap analysis.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Analyze the business requirements.

Question 132

The MOST appropriate time to conduct a disaster recovery test would be after:

Options:

A.

major business processes have been redesigned.

B.

the business continuity plan (BCP) has been updated.

C.

the security risk profile has been reviewed

D.

noncompliance incidents have been filed.

Question 133

Behavioral analytics tools are used PRIMARILY to manage risks within an organization by:

Options:

A.

Preventing the exfiltration of sensitive data

B.

Analyzing communications from external users for malware

C.

Establishing security baselines on endpoints

D.

Detecting anomalous user activities

Question 134

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when recovering a compromised system that needs a complete rebuild?

Options:

A.

Patch management files

B.

Network system logs

C.

Configuration management files

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

Question 135

A PRIMARY benefit of adopting an information security framework is that it provides:

Options:

A.

credible emerging threat intelligence.

B.

security and vulnerability reporting guidelines.

C.

common exploitability indices.

D.

standardized security controls.

Question 136

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to convey information security responsibilities across an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing security awareness programs

B.

Documenting information security responsibilities within job descriptions

C.

Developing a skills matrix

D.

Defining information security responsibilities in the security policy

Question 137

Following a successful attack, an information security manager should be confident the malware @ continued to spread at the completion of which incident response phase?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Eradication

D.

Identification

Question 138

Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve compliance with new global regulations related to the protection of personal information?

Options:

A.

Execute a risk treatment plan.

B.

Review contracts and statements of work (SOWs) with vendors.

C.

Implement data regionalization controls.

D.

Determine current and desired state of controls.

Question 139

Which of the following BEST supports effective communication during information security incidents?

Options:

A.

Frequent incident response training sessions

B.

Centralized control monitoring capabilities

C.

Responsibilities defined within role descriptions

D.

Predetermined service level agreements (SLAs)

Question 140

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Helping to determine the recovery point objective (RPO)

B.

Providing a basis for implementing a need-to-know policy

C.

Supporting segregation of duties

D.

Defining resource ownership

Question 141

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure alignment of the information security program with organizational objectives?

Options:

A.

Establish an information security steering committee.

B.

Employ a process-based approach for information asset classification.

C.

Utilize an industry-recognized risk management framework.

D.

Provide security awareness training to board executives.

Question 142

An organization recently identified a significant risk related to data exfiltration, and the information security manager is asked to quickly address this issue. The security team suggests a number of different security controls. Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to manage the risk?

Options:

A.

Implement controls recommended by an industry-recognized security framework.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of each control in reducing residual risk.

C.

Prioritize the controls based on ease of implementation and resource availability.

D.

Choose the most economical controls for risk mitigation based on a cost-benefit analysis.

Question 143

Information security controls should be designed PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

regulatory requirements.

C.

business risk scenarios,

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

Question 144

Which of the following is the BEST option to lower the cost to implement application security controls?

Options:

A.

Perform security tests in the development environment.

B.

Integrate security activities within the development process

C.

Perform a risk analysis after project completion.

D.

Include standard application security requirements

Question 145

Reverse lookups can be used to prevent successful:

Options:

A.

denial of service (DoS) attacks

B.

session hacking

C.

phishing attacks

D.

Internet protocol (IP) spoofing

Question 146

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to assign a risk owner in an organization?

Options:

A.

To remediate residual risk

B.

To define responsibilities

C.

To ensure accountability

D.

To identify emerging risk

Question 147

In a cloud technology environment, which of the following would pose the GREATEST challenge to the investigation of security incidents?

Options:

A.

Access to the hardware

B.

Data encryption

C.

Non-standard event logs

D.

Compressed customer data

Question 148

Information security policies should PRIMARILY reflect alignment with:

Options:

A.

an information security framework.

B.

industry best practices.

C.

data security standards.

D.

senior management intent.

Question 149

Which of the following should be an information security manager ' s FIRST course of action when one of the organization ' s critical third-party providers experiences a data breach?

Options:

A.

Inform the public relations officer.

B.

Monitor the third party ' s response.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Inform customers of the breach.

Question 150

A common drawback of email software packages that provide native encryption of messages is that the encryption:

Options:

A.

cannot encrypt attachments

B.

cannot interoperate across product domains.

C.

has an insufficient key length.

D.

has no key-recovery mechanism.

Question 151

An organization wants to migrate a proprietary application to be hosted by a third-party cloud hosting provider using a Platform as a Service (PaaS) model. Prior to selecting the cloud provider, what is MOST important for the organization to ensure?

Options:

A.

The cloud provider can meet recovery point objectives (RPOs).

B.

The cloud provider adheres to applicable regulations.

C.

The cloud provider’s service level agreement (SLA) includes availability requirements.

D.

The hosting contract has a termination clause.

Question 152

Management has announced the acquisition of a new company. The information security manager of the parent company is concerned that conflicting access rights may cause critical information to be exposed during the integration of the two companies. To BEST address this concern, the information security manager should:

Options:

A.

review access rights as the acquisition integration occurs.

B.

perform a risk assessment of the access rights.

C.

escalate concerns for conflicting access rights to management.

D.

implement consistent access control standards.

Question 153

Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement a comprehensive information security management system?

To ensure continuous alignment with the organizational strategy

To gain senior management support for the information security program

To support identification of key risk indicators (KRIs)

Options:

A.

To facilitate compliance with external regulatory requirements

Question 154

Which of the following is MOST important to determine following the discovery and eradication of a malware attack?

Options:

A.

The malware entry path

B.

The creator of the malware

C.

The type of malware involved

D.

The method of detecting the malware

Question 155

A business impact analysis (BIA) should be periodically executed PRIMARILY to:

Options:

A.

validate vulnerabilities on environmental changes.

B.

analyze the importance of assets.

C.

check compliance with regulations.

D.

verify the effectiveness of controls.

Question 156

An information security manager is considering options for protecting the data on a web-facing legacy application that cannot be patched. Which of the following would provide the BEST information about the effectiveness of compensating controls?

Options:

A.

Threat assessment

B.

Intrusion detection system logs

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Firewall rules

Question 157

Who is BEST suited to determine how the information in a database should be classified?

Options:

A.

Database analyst

B.

Database administrator (DBA)

C.

Information security analyst

D.

Data owner

Question 158

An organization ' s HR department requires that employee account privileges be removed from all corporate IT systems within three days of termination to comply with a government regulation However, the systems all have different user directories, and it currently takes up to four weeks to remove the privileges Which of the following would BEST enable regulatory compliance?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) system

B.

Identity and access management (IAM) system

C.

Privileged access management (PAM) system

D.

Governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) system

Question 159

What is the MOST important consideration for an organization operating in a highly regulated market when new regulatory requirements with high impact to the business need to be implemented?

Options:

A.

Engaging an external audit

B.

Establishing compensating controls

C.

Enforcing strong monitoring controls

D.

Conducting a gap analysis

Question 160

Of the following, who is accountable for ensuring the incident response plan is tested?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity manager

C.

Incident response team members

D.

Information security manager

Question 161

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern resulting from the lack of severity criteria in incident classification?

Options:

A.

Statistical reports will be incorrect.

B.

The service desk will be staffed incorrectly.

C.

Escalation procedures will be ineffective.

D.

Timely detection of attacks will be impossible.

Question 162

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability reduction

B.

Compliance management

C.

Risk management

D.

Threat minimization

Question 163

An organization finds it necessary to quickly shift to a work-fromhome model with an increased need for remote access security.

Which of the following should be given immediate focus?

Options:

A.

Moving to a zero trust access model

B.

Enabling network-level authentication

C.

Enhancing cyber response capability

D.

Strengthening endpoint security

Question 164

Which of the following should an organization do FIRST upon learning that a subsidiary is located in a country where civil unrest has just begun?

Options:

A.

Assess changes in the risk profile.

B.

Activate the disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Conduct security awareness training.

Question 165

Which of the following would pose the GREATEST risk to the preparedness of an incident response team?

Options:

A.

Lack of formal incident response scenarios

B.

A change in information security management

C.

Outdated incident response plans

D.

New attack vectors used by hackers

Question 166

When mitigation is the chosen risk treatment, which of the following roles is responsible for effective implementation of the chosen treatment?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Control owner

C.

Business system owner

D.

Application owner

Question 167

Which type of plan is PRIMARILY intended to reduce the potential impact of security events that may occur?

Options:

A.

Security awareness plan

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Incident response plan

Question 168

Which of the following is a desired outcome of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Penetration test

B.

Improved risk management

C.

Business agility

D.

A maturity model

Question 169

When taking a risk-based approach to vulnerability management, which of the following is MOST important to consider when prioritizing a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

The information available about the vulnerability

B.

The sensitivity of the asset and the data it contains

C.

IT resource availability and constraints

D.

Whether patches have been developed and tested

Question 170

Which of the following BEST facilitates an information security manager ' s efforts to obtain senior management commitment for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Presenting evidence of inherent risk

B.

Reporting the security maturity level

C.

Presenting compliance requirements

D.

Communicating the residual risk

Question 171

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective method for assessing an organization’s incident response capabilities?

Options:

A.

Tabletop exercise

B.

Senior management interview

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Third-party assessment

Question 172

Risk treatment options should PRIMARILY focus on:

Options:

A.

The criticality of impacted assets

B.

Reducing risk to an acceptable level

C.

High- and medium-rated risks

D.

Inherent and residual risks

Question 173

A global organization is considering its geopolitical security risks. Which of the following is the information security manager ' s BEST approach?

Options:

A.

Seek advice from environmental and physical security experts

B.

Implement a third-party risk management framework

C.

Implement controls that deny access from specific jurisdictions

D.

Seek advice from enterprise risk and legal experts

Question 174

Which of the following is the BEST way to align security and business strategies?

Options:

A.

Establish key performance indicators for the business

B.

Integrate information security governance into corporate governance

C.

Ensure the information security program conforms to industry standards

D.

Include security risk as part of ongoing metrics reporting

Question 175

Which of the following is the GREATEST inherent risk when performing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) test?

Options:

A.

Poor documentation of results and lessons learned

B.

Lack of communication to affected users

C.

Disruption to the production environment

D.

Lack of coordination among departments

Question 176

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after discovering that a business unit has implemented a newly purchased application and bypassed the change management process?

Options:

A.

Revise the procurement process.

B.

Update the change management process.

C.

Discuss the issue with senior leadership.

D.

Remove the application from production.

Question 177

To effectively manage an organization ' s information security risk, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

assign risk management responsibility to an experienced consultant.

B.

periodically identify and correct new systems vulnerabilities.

C.

establish and communicate risk tolerance.

D.

benchmark risk scenarios against peer organizations.

Question 178

Which of the following is MOST important when responding to a major securi ty incident?

Options:

A.

Contacting forensic investigators

B.

Following the escalation process

C.

Notifying law enforcement

D.

Identifying the indicators of compromise

Question 179

An organization ' s disaster recovery plan (DRP) is documented and kept at a disaster recovery site. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the plan can be carried out in an emergency?

Options:

A.

Store disaster recovery documentation in a public cloud.

B.

Maintain an outsourced contact center in another country.

C.

Require disaster recovery documentation be stored with all key decision makers.

D.

Provide annual disaster recovery training to appropriate staff.

Question 180

An organization recently activated its business continuity plan (BCP). Employees were notified during the event, but some did not fully follow the communications plan. What is the BEST way to prevent a recurrence?

Options:

A.

Enhance external communication instructions in the BCP

B.

Perform tabletop testing with appropriate employees

C.

Incentivize employees for following the plan

D.

Update the business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 181

Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement an information security architecture?

Options:

A.

Assess the cost-effectiveness of the integration.

B.

Fast-track the deployment of information security components.

C.

Serve as a post-deployment information security road map.

D.

Facilitate consistent implementation of security requirements.

Question 182

A backdoor has been identified that enabled a cyberattack on an organization’s systems. Integrating which of the following into the software development life cycle would BEST enable the organization to mitigate similar attacks in the future?

Options:

A.

Enhanced user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Separation of duties

C.

Customized developer training

D.

Vulnerability testing

Question 183

Which of the following analyses will BEST identify the external influences to an organization ' s information security?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Gap analysis

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Vulnerability analysis

Question 184

Which of the following will have the MOST negative impact on the effectiveness of incident response processes?

Options:

A.

Ambiguous severity criteria

B.

High organizational risk tolerance

C.

Decentralized incident monitoring

D.

Manual incident reporting processes

Question 185

Which of the following metrics would provide an accurate measure of an information security program ' s performance?

Options:

A.

A collection of qualitative indicators that accurately measure security exceptions

B.

A combination of qualitative and quantitative trends that enable decision making

C.

A collection of quantitative indicators that are compared against industry benchmarks

D.

A single numeric score derived from various measures assigned to the security program

Question 186

How would the information security program BEST support the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Conducting a control assessment

B.

Developing an emerging technology roadmap

C.

Providing effective risk governance

D.

Developing an acceptable use policy

Question 187

Which of the following BEST determines an information asset ' s classification?

Options:

A.

Value of the information asset in the marketplace

B.

Criticality to a business process

C.

Risk assessment from the data owner

D.

Cost of producing the information asset

Question 188

Which of the following would BEST mitigate accidental data loss events?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic user awareness training.

B.

Obtain senior management support for the information security strategy.

C.

Conduct a data loss prevention (DLP) audit.

D.

Enforce a data hard drive encryption policy.

Question 189

A business impact analysis (BIA) BEST enables an organization to establish:

Options:

A.

annualized loss expectancy (ALE).

B.

recovery methods.

C.

total cost of ownership (TCO).

D.

restoration priorities.

Question 190

The effectiveness of an incident response team will be GREATEST when:

Options:

A.

the incident response team meets on a regular basis to review log files.

B.

the incident response team members are trained security personnel.

C.

the incident response process is updated based on lessons learned.

D.

incidents are identified using a security information and event monitoring {SIEM) system.

Question 191

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the information security function when an organization adopts emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Developing security training for the new technologies

B.

Designing new security controls

C.

Creating an acceptable use policy for the technologies

D.

Assessing the potential security risk

Question 192

Following an unsuccessful denial of service (DoS) attack, identified weaknesses should be:

Options:

A.

Tracked and reported on until their final resolution

B.

Noted and re-examined later if similar weaknesses are found

C.

Documented in security awareness programs

D.

Quickly resolved and eliminated regardless of cost

Question 193

Meeting which of the following security objectives BEST ensures that information is protected against unauthorized disclosure?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Nonrepudiation

Question 194

Management would like to understand the risk associated with engaging an Infrastructure-as-a-Service (laaS) provider compared to hosting internally. Which of the following would provide the BEST method of comparing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Mapping risk scenarios according to sensitivity of data

B.

Reviewing mitigating and compensating controls for each risk scenario

C.

Mapping the risk scenarios by likelihood and impact on a chart

D.

Performing a risk assessment on the laaS provider

Question 195

Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring that incident management plans are executed effectively?

Options:

A.

Management support and approval has been obtained.

B.

The incident response team has the appropriate training.

C.

An incident response maturity assessment has been conducted.

D.

A reputable managed security services provider has been engaged.

Question 196

Which of the following would be the GREATEST threat posed by a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack on a public-facing web server?

Options:

A.

Execution of unauthorized commands

B.

Prevention of authorized access

C.

Defacement of website content

D.

Unauthorized access to resources

Question 197

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

Options:

A.

Threat management is enhanced.

B.

Compliance status is improved.

C.

Security metrics are enhanced.

D.

Proactive risk management is facilitated.

Question 198

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an information security manager to archive and retain the organization ' s electronic communication and email data?

Options:

A.

To track personal use of electronic communication by users

B.

To provide as evidence in legal proceedings when required

C.

To meet the requirements of global security standards

D.

To identify and scan attachments for malware

Question 199

Which of the following is the PRIMARY outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Streamlining of event triage and implementation of incident response procedures

B.

Allocation of budget for technical security controls and enhancements to security culture

C.

Assurance of compliance with industry-specific regulations and improvement to business processes

D.

Identification of critical business functions and prioritization of recovery efforts

Question 200

An organization involved in e-commerce activities operating from its home country opened a new office in another country with stringent security laws. In this scenario, the overall security strategy should be based on:

Options:

A.

the security organization structure.

B.

international security standards.

C.

risk assessment results.

D.

the most stringent requirements.

Question 201

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing key performance indicators (KPIs) for the information security program?

Options:

A.

Alignment with financial reporting

B.

Alignment with business initiatives

C.

Alignment with industry frameworks

D.

Alignment with risk appetite

Question 202

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization ' s security controls?

Options:

A.

Some controls are performing outside of an acceptable range.

B.

No key control indicators (KCIs) have been implemented.

C.

Control ownership has not been updated.

D.

Control gap analysis is outdated.

Question 203

Which of the following is the MOST important role of the information security manager when the organization is in the process of adopting emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Assessing how peer organizations using the same technologies have been impacted

B.

Understanding the impact on existing resources

C.

Reviewing vendor contracts and service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Developing training for end users to familiarize them with the new technology

Question 204

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an information security manager when evaluating a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Data retention policies are not documented

B.

There is no right to audit the security of the provider

C.

The provider is new to the market and lacks references

D.

Security controls offered by the provider are inadequate

Question 205

Which of the following is the GREATEST privacy concern when personal data is collected and processed?

Options:

A.

More storage required to store collected data

B.

Increased time and resources needed

C.

Data collected without consent

D.

Outdated privacy policy

Question 206

In order to understand an organization ' s security posture, it is MOST important for an organization ' s senior leadership to:

Options:

A.

evaluate results of the most recent incident response test.

B.

review the number of reported security incidents.

C.

ensure established security metrics are reported.

D.

assess progress of risk mitigation efforts.

Question 207

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after a new cybersecunty regulation has been introduced?

Options:

A.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Consult corporate legal counsel

C.

Update the information security policy.

D.

Perform a gap analysis.

Question 208

Which of the following will BEST facilitate timely and effective incident response?

Options:

A.

Including penetration test results in incident response planning

B.

Assessing the risk of compromised assets

C.

Classifying the severity of an incident

D.

Notifying stakeholders when invoking the incident response plan

Question 209

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective information security metric?

Options:

A.

The metric expresses residual risk relative to risk tolerance.

B.

The metric is frequently reported to senior management.

C.

The metric directly maps to an industry risk management framework.

D.

The metric compares the organization ' s inherent risk against its risk appetite.

Question 210

Which of the following should occur FIRST in the process of managing security risk associated with the transfer of data from unsupported legacy systems to supported systems?

Options:

A.

Perform security testing on legacy systems

B.

Identify all information assets in the legacy environment

C.

Assign owners to be responsible for the transfer of each asset

D.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 211

The MOST important reason for an organization to establish a social media policy is to:

Options:

A.

Protect the company brand

B.

Increase employee productivity

C.

Monitor employee activity on the internet

D.

Prevent the spread of malware

Question 212

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when a vulnerability has been disclosed?

Options:

A.

Perform a patch update.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment.

C.

Perform a penetration test.

D.

Conduct an impact assessment.

Question 213

Which of the following is MOST helpful for aligning security operations with the IT governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security risk assessment

B.

Security operations program

C.

Information security policy

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 214

When an organization experiences a disruptive event, the business continuity plan (BCP) should be triggered PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

expected duration of outage.

B.

management direction.

C.

type of security incident.

D.

the root cause of the event.

Question 215

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to demonstrate the effectiveness of the information security and risk program to senior management?

Options:

A.

Updated risk assessments

B.

Counts of information security incidents

C.

Audit reports

D.

Monthly metrics

Question 216

A daily monitoring report reveals that an IT employee made a change to a firewall rule outside of the change control process. The information security manager ' s FIRST step in addressing the issue should be to:

Options:

A.

require that the change be reversed

B.

review the change management process

C.

perform an analysis of the change

D.

report the event to senior management

Question 217

An incident response policy should include:

Options:

A.

A description of testing methodology.

B.

Notification requirements.

C.

An infrastructure diagram.

D.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs).

Question 218

An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resolve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify. What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?

Options:

A.

Implement a SIEM solution.

B.

Perform a threat analysis.

C.

Establish performance metrics for the team.

D.

Perform a post-incident review.

Question 219

Which of the following is the MOST essential element of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking the program with global standards for relevance

B.

Prioritizing program deliverables based on available resources

C.

Involving functional managers in program development

D.

Applying project management practices used by the business

Question 220

Which type of test is MOST effective in communicating the roles of end users to support timely identification and response to information security incidents?

Options:

A.

Parallel

B.

Complete failover

C.

Checklist

D.

Walkthrough

Question 221

The GREATEST benefit of an effective information security awareness program is the organization’s ability to:

Options:

A.

Meet compliance requirements

B.

Reduce security incidents

C.

Establish accountability

D.

Develop meaningful metrics

Question 222

Which of the following is MOST important for a healthcare organization to address during the requirements gathering phase of AI development?

Options:

A.

Algorithm selection challenges

B.

Data privacy concerns

C.

Inadequate computational resources

D.

Data labeling inefficiencies

Question 223

The business value of an information asset is derived from:

Options:

A.

the threat profile.

B.

its criticality.

C.

the risk assessment.

D.

its replacement cost.

Question 224

In information security governance, which of the following has PRIMARY responsibility for ensuring compliance with regulations?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Enterprise risk management

C.

Control owners

D.

Legal counsel

Question 225

What is the PRIMARY objective of performing a vulnerability assessment following a business system update?

Options:

A.

Determine operational losses.

B.

Improve the change control process.

C.

Update the threat landscape.

D.

Review the effectiveness of controls

Question 226

In a call center, the BEST reason to conduct a social engineering is to:

Options:

A.

Identify candidates for additional security training.

B.

minimize the likelihood of successful attacks.

C.

gain funding for information security initiatives.

D.

improve password policy.

Question 227

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

The impact of the incident is reported to senior management.

B.

The system affected by the incident is restored to its prior state.

C.

The person responsible for the incident is identified.

D.

The root cause of the incident is determined.

Question 228

An organization has identified IT failures in a call center application. Of the following, who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Head of the call center

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Head of the IT department

Question 229

The PRIMARY advantage of single sign-on (SSO) is that it will:

Options:

A.

increase efficiency of access management

B.

increase the security of related applications.

C.

strengthen user passwords.

D.

support multiple authentication mechanisms.

Question 230

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place to determine the effectiveness of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Program metrics

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Risk register

D.

Security strategy

Question 231

The information security manager has been notified of a new vulnerability that affects key data processing systems within the organization Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management

B.

Re-evaluate the risk

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Ask the business owner for the new remediation plan

Question 232

A small organization needs to use a solution that is out of support in order to meet business objectives. Which of the following is the information security manager’s BEST course of action to manage the associated risk?

Options:

A.

Run periodic vulnerability scans

B.

Advise business units to change the system

C.

Recommend that the risk be accepted by senior leadership

D.

Implement compensating security controls

Question 233

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to prevent proliferation of shadow IT?

Options:

A.

Install a solution to detect unlicensed software.

B.

Conduct software audits.

C.

Implement a software allow list.

D.

Conduct periodic vulnerability scanning.

Question 234

Which of the following devices, when placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ), would be considered the MOST significant exposure?

Options:

A.

Mail relay server

B.

Proxy server

C.

Database server

D.

Application server

Question 235

Which of the following is the BEST indication of information security strategy alignment with the “ &

Options:

A.

Percentage of information security incidents resolved within defined service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Percentage of corporate budget allocated to information security initiatives

C.

Number of business executives who have attended information security awareness sessions

D.

Number of business objectives directly supported by information security initiatives

Question 236

Which of the following is the BEST way to improve an organization ' s ability to detect and respond to incidents?

Options:

A.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Conduct periodic awareness training.

C.

Perform a security gap analysis.

D.

Perform network penetration testing.

Question 237

The MOST important reason to classify security incidents is to:

Options:

A.

Improve the efficiency and effectiveness of incident resolution

B.

Better manage security event and incident logging

C.

Align the incident response plan with corporate policy

D.

Enhance the reporting of incident status to the incident lead

Question 238

Which of the following is the BEST way to improve an organization’s ability to detect and respond to incidents?

Options:

A.

Perform a security gap analysis.

B.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA).

C.

Conduct periodic awareness training.

D.

Perform network penetration testing.

Question 239

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

Options:

A.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives

B.

All critical systems are successfully tested

C.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery strategy

D.

The business gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

Question 240

Company A, a cloud service provider, is in the process of acquiring Company B to gain new benefits by incorporating their technologies within its cloud services.

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of Company A ' s information security manager?

Options:

A.

The organizational structure of Company B

B.

The cost to align to Company A ' s security policies

C.

Company A ' s security architecture

D.

Company B ' s security policies

Question 241

Which of the following is the GREATEST challenge when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Limiting the number of KRIs

B.

Comprehensively reporting on KRIs

C.

Aggregating common KRIs

D.

Linking KRIs to specific risks

Question 242

When deciding to move to a cloud-based model, the FIRST consideration should be:

Options:

A.

storage in a shared environment.

B.

availability of the data.

C.

data classification.

D.

physical location of the data.

Question 243

An incident response team has established that an application has been breached. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Maintain the affected systems in a forensically acceptable state

B.

Conduct a risk assessment on the affected application

C.

Inform senior management of the breach.

D.

Isolate the impacted systems from the rest of the network

Question 244

Prior to implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

select mobile device management (MDM) software.

B.

survey employees for requested applications.

C.

develop an acceptable use policy.

D.

review currently utilized applications.

Question 245

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a forensic investigation?

Options:

A.

Analyzing system memory

B.

Documenting analysis steps

C.

Capturing full system images

D.

Maintaining a chain of custody

Question 246

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to consider organizational culture when developing an information security program?

Options:

A.

Everyone in the organization is responsible for information security.

B.

It helps expedite approval for the information security budget.

C.

It helps the organization meet compliance requirements.

D.

Security incidents have an adverse impact on the entire organization.

Question 247

What should be the PRIMARY objective of an information security policy?

Options:

A.

To ensure alignment with industry best practices

B.

To outline management expectations

C.

To comply with regulatory requirements

D.

To detail security procedures

Question 248

A financial company executive is concerned about recently increasing cyberattacks and needs to take action to reduce risk. The organization would BEST respond by:

Options:

A.

increasing budget and staffing levels for the incident response team.

B.

implementing an intrusion detection system (IDS).

C.

revalidating and mitigating risks to an acceptable level.

D.

testing the business continuity plan (BCP).

Question 249

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an organization to communicate to affected parties that a security incident has occurred?

Options:

A.

To improve awareness of information security

B.

To disclose the root cause of the incident

C.

To increase goodwill toward the organization

D.

To comply with regulations regarding notification

Question 250

Which of the following is the BEST strategy when determining an organization’s approach to risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Advancing the maturity of existing controls based on risk tolerance

B.

Prioritizing controls that directly mitigate the organization ' s most critical risks

C.

Implementing risk mitigation controls that are considered quick wins

D.

Implementing a one-size-fits-all set of controls across all organizational units

Question 251

Which is MOST important to identify when developing an effective information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Security awareness training needs

B.

Potential savings resulting from security governance

C.

Business assets to be secured

D.

Residual risk levels

Question 252

Detailed business continuity plans (BCPs) should be PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

strategies validated by senior management.

B.

capabilities of available local vendors.

C.

strategies that cover all applications.

D.

cost and resources needed to execute.

Question 253

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of an information security awareness training program?

Options:

A.

Influencing human behavior

B.

Evaluating organizational security culture

C.

Defining risk accountability

D.

Enforcing security policy

Question 254

When establishing classifications of security incidents for the development of an incident response plan, which of the following provides the MOST valuable input?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Vulnerability assessment results

C.

The business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Recommendations from senior management

Question 255

To support effective risk decision making, which of the following is MOST important to have in place?

Options:

A.

Established risk domains

B.

Risk reporting procedures

C.

An audit committee consisting of mid-level management

D.

Well-defined and approved controls

Question 256

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a newly implemented security awareness program has been effective?

Options:

A.

Senior management supports funding for ongoing awareness training.

B.

Employees from each department have completed the required training.

C.

There has been an increase in the number of phishing attempts reported.

D.

There have been no reported successful phishing attempts since the training started.

Question 257

Which of the following is the MOST important detail to capture in an organization ' s risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk severity level

C.

Risk acceptance criteria

D.

Risk ownership

Question 258

An organization is planning to outsource the execution of its disaster recovery activities. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the outsourcing agreement?

Options:

A.

Definition of when a disaster should be declared

B.

Requirements for regularly testing backups

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

The disaster recovery communication plan

Question 259

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge when assessing the impact of emerging risk?

Options:

A.

Complexity of the emerging risk

B.

Insufficient data related to the emerging risk

C.

Outdated risk management strategy

D.

Lack of resources to perform risk assessments

Question 260

An information security manager has learned of an increasing trend in attacks that use phishing emails impersonating an organization ' s CEO in an attempt to commit wire transfer fraud. Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk associated with this type of attack?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend wire transfers for the organization.

B.

Provide awareness training to the CEO for this type of phishing attack.

C.

Provide awareness training to staff responsible for wire transfers.

D.

Disable emails for staff responsible for wire transfers.

Question 261

An investigation of a recent security incident determined that the root cause was negligent handing of incident alerts by system admit manager to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment and share the result with senior management.

B.

Revise the incident response plan-to align with business processes.

C.

Provide incident response training to data custodians.

D.

Provide incident response training to data owners.

Question 262

An information security manager has been notified about a compromised endpoint device Which of the following is the BEST course of action to prevent further damage?

Options:

A.

Wipe and reset the endpoint device.

B.

Isolate the endpoint device.

C.

Power off the endpoint device.

D.

Run a virus scan on the endpoint device.

Question 263

Which of the following provides the BEST indication of the return on information security investment?

Options:

A.

Increased annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Increased number of reported incidents

C.

Reduced annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Decreased number of reported incidents

Question 264

Which of the following provides the MOST effective response against ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Automatic quarantine of systems

B.

Thorough communication plans

C.

Effective backup plans and processes

D.

Strong password requirements

Question 265

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for determining the value of assets?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the assets

B.

Business cost when assets are not available

C.

Original cost of the assets minus depreciation

D.

Total cost of ownership (TCO)

Question 266

Who is accountable for approving an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

The board of directors

B.

The chief information security officer (ClSO)

C.

The enterprise risk committee

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

Question 267

Which of the following would BEST enable the timely execution of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The introduction of a decision support tool

B.

Definition of trigger events

C.

Clearly defined data classification process

D.

Centralized service desk

Question 268

A security incident has been reported within an organization. When should an information security manager contact the information owner?

Options:

A.

After the incident has been contained

B.

After the incident has been mitigated

C.

After the incident has been confirmed

D.

After the potential incident has been logged

Question 269

Which of the following would be of GREATEST assistance in determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical security system?

Options:

A.

Available annual budget

B.

Cost-benefit analysis of mitigating controls

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum tolerable outage (MTO)

Question 270

Which of the following is a prerequisite for formulating a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) for the business processes

B.

Process maps for production applications

C.

System recovery procedures for alternate-site processing

D.

Comprehensive property inventory

Question 271

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining whether new risks exist in legacy systems?

Options:

A.

Frequent updates to the risk register

B.

Regularly scheduled security audits

C.

Frequent security architecture reviews

D.

Regularly scheduled risk assessments

Question 272

An organization has identified an active cyberattack on its internal network. Which of the following considerations is MOST important to the success of the incident response?

Options:

A.

The data loss prevention tool is functioning properly

B.

Contact details for forensics support are readily available

C.

The recovery time objective can be met

D.

Communication to stakeholders is conducted through a separate channel

Question 273

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help staff members understand their responsibilities for information security?

Options:

A.

Communicate disciplinary processes for policy violations.

B.

Require staff to participate in information security awareness training.

C.

Require staff to sign confidentiality agreements.

D.

Include information security responsibilities in job descriptions.

Question 274

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should be responsible for determining the initial recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

External consultant

B.

Information owners

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business continuity coordinator

Question 275

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure the security of services and solutions delivered by third-party vendors?

Options:

A.

Integrate risk management into the vendor management process.

B.

Conduct security reviews on the services and solutions delivered.

C.

Review third-party contracts as part of the vendor management process.

D.

Perform an audit on vendors ' security controls and practices.

Question 276

An organization has implemented a new customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should be responsible for enforcing authorized and controlled access to the CRM data?

Options:

A.

Internal IT audit

B.

The data custodian

C.

The information security manager

D.

The data owner

Question 277

Which of the following is established during the preparation phase of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Chain of custody procedures

C.

Stakeholder communication plan

D.

Mean time to respond (MTTR)

Question 278

Which of the following would BEST ensure that security is integrated during application development?

Options:

A.

Employing global security standards during development processes

B.

Providing training on secure development practices to programmers

C.

Performing application security testing during acceptance testing

D.

Introducing security requirements during the initiation phase

Question 279

An information security team has discovered that users are sharing a login account to an application with sensitive information, in violation of the access policy. Business management indicates that the practice creates operational efficiencies. What is the information security manager ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Enforce the policy.

B.

Modify the policy.

C.

Present the risk to senior management.

D.

Create an exception for the deviation.

Question 280

Which of the following is the MOST critical input to developing policies, standards, and procedures to secure information assets?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Industry best practices

D.

Enterprise goals

Question 281

In order to gain organization-wide support for an information security program, which of the following is MOST important to consider?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the security policy

B.

Clarity of security roles and responsibilities

C.

Corporate culture

D.

Corporate risk framework

Question 282

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to have documented security procedures?

Options:

A.

To guide the implementation of policy requirements

B.

To facilitate the process of information security metrics reporting

C.

To meet regulatory requirements related to standard operating procedures

D.

To demonstrate alignment with business security objectives

Question 283

Which of the following BEST illustrates residual risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Heat map

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Balanced scorecard

Question 284

An organization is planning to outsource network management to a service provider. Including which of the following in the contract would be the MOST effective way to mitigate information security risk?

Options:

A.

Requirement for regular information security awareness

B.

Right-to-audit clause

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Requirement to comply with corporate security policy

Question 285

During which of the following phases should an incident response team document actions required to remove the threat that caused the incident?

Options:

A.

Post-incident review

B.

Eradication

C.

Containment

D.

Identification

Question 286

Which of the following is the FIRST step to establishing an effective information security program?

Options:

A.

Conduct a compliance review.

B.

Assign accountability.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Create a business case.

Question 287

Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST after a ransomware attack is confirmed?

Options:

A.

Perform hardening of the affected endpoints

B.

Rebuild the affected endpoints

C.

Restore data backup from the cloud

D.

Isolate the impacted endpoints

Question 288

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to demonstrate alignment of information security strategy with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Heat map

Question 289

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are an output of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 290

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of classifying information security incidents?

Options:

A.

Reporting capabilities

B.

Improved chain of custody

C.

Comprehensive documentation

D.

Prioritized recovery

Question 291

An information security team is investigating an alleged breach of an organization ' s network. Which of the following would be the BEST single source of evidence to review?

Options:

A.

File integrity monitoring software

B.

Security information and event management (SIEM) tool

C.

Antivirus software

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

Question 292

What should be the GREATEST concern for an information security manager of a large multinational organization when outsourcing data processing to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Vendor service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Independent review of the vendor

C.

Local laws and regulations

D.

Backup and restoration of data

Question 293

Which of the following BEST ensures timely and reliable access to services?

Options:

A.

Nonrepudiation

B.

Authenticity

C.

Availability

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

Question 294

An information security manager has been asked to provide contract guidance from a security perspective for outsourcing the organization’s payroll processing. Which of the following is MOST important to address?

Options:

A.

Vendor compliance with the most stringent data security regulations

B.

Vendor compliance with recognized industry security standards

C.

Vendor compliance with the organization’s information security policies

D.

Vendor compliance with organizational service level agreement requirements

Question 295

Which of the following BEST enables staff acceptance of information security policies?

Options:

A.

Strong senior management support

B.

Gomputer-based training

C.

Arobust incident response program

D.

Adequate security funding

Question 296

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of a vulnerability scanning tool to an organization?

Options:

A.

Identifying potential risks posed by devices on the network

B.

Identifying vulnerabilities within organizational processes

C.

Ensuring complex vulnerabilities are not missed

D.

Automating the information security risk analysis program

Question 297

An organization is close to going live with the implementation of a cloud-based application. Independent penetration test results have been received that show a high-rated vulnerability. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?

Options:

A.

Implement the application and request the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability.

B.

Assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization ' s risk tolerance levels.

C.

Commission further penetration tests to validate initial test results,

D.

Postpone the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed.

Question 298

Which type of system is MOST effective for prioritizing cyber incidents based on impact and tracking them until they are closed?

Options:

A.

Security information and event management (SIEM)

B.

Extended detection and response (XDR)

C.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

D.

Network intrusion detection system (NIDS)

Question 299

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit achieved when an information security governance framework is aligned with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Protection of business value and assets

B.

Identification of core business strategiesC, Easier entrance into new businesses and technologies

C.

Improved regulatory compliance posture

Question 300

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when evaluating the performance of existing security controls?

Options:

A.

Obtaining senior management support to facilitate testing

B.

Interviewing control owners to accurately collect metrics data

C.

Selecting testing methods that match the purpose of the testing

D.

Establishing testing scenarios based on international standards

Question 301

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help assure the integrity of an organization’s accounting system?

Options:

A.

Providing security awareness training to accounting staff

B.

Implementing two-factor authentication

C.

Performing frequent security reviews of the audit log

D.

Conducting an annual security audit of the system

Question 302

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a lessons learned exercise following a successful response to a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Establishing the root cause of the incident

B.

Identifying attack vectors utilized in the incident

C.

When business operations were restored after the incident

D.

How incident management processes were executed

Question 303

Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to present quarterly reports to the board on the status of the information security program?

Options:

A.

A capability and maturity assessment

B.

Detailed analysis of security program KPIs

C.

An information security dashboard

D.

An information security risk register

Question 304

Which of the following is an information security manager ' s BEST course of action when a penetration test reveals a security exposure due to a firewall that is not configured correctly?

Options:

A.

Ensure a plan with milestones is developed.

B.

Implement a distributed denial of service (DDoS) control.

C.

Engage the incident response team.

D.

Define new key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 305

An information security manager has identified that security risks are not being treated in a timely manner. Which of the following

Options:

A.

Provide regular updates about the current state of the risks.

B.

Re-perform risk analysis at regular intervals.

C.

Assign a risk owner to each risk

D.

Create mitigating controls to manage the risks.

Question 306

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify before conducting full-functional continuity testing?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance by the business has been documented

B.

Teams and individuals responsible for recovery have been identified

C.

Copies of recovery and incident response plans are kept offsite

D.

Incident response and recovery plans are documented in simple language

Question 307

Which of the following BEST facilitates effective incident response testing?

Options:

A.

Including all business units in testing

B.

Simulating realistic test scenarios

C.

Reviewing test results quarterly

D.

Testing after major business changes

Question 308

The PRIMARY purpose for conducting cybersecurity risk assessments is to:

Options:

A.

Assist in security reporting to senior management

B.

Provide metrics to indicate cybersecurity program effectiveness

C.

Verify compliance across multiple sectors

D.

Understand the organization ' s current security posture

Question 309

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for a vulnerability scanner to return incomplete results?

Options:

A.

Unauthenticated vulnerability scans are being performed.

B.

Scan results are not ingested into a security information and event management (SIEM) tool.

C.

Host names have not been fully enumerated.

D.

Zero-day vulnerability signatures have not been ingested.

Question 310

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to regularly update business continuity and disaster recovery documents?

Options:

A.

To enforce security policy requirements

B.

To maintain business asset inventories

C.

To ensure audit and compliance requirements are met

D.

To ensure the availability of business operations

Question 311

As part of a risk assessment, a security control was discovered to be inadequate. When assigning a risk owner, which of the following attributes is MOST important to consider?

Options:

A.

The risk owner is able to reassess the risk following remediation.

B.

The risk owner has the authority to take action on the risk.

C.

The risk owner is able to make timely updates to the risk register.

D.

The risk owner also owns the associated control that failed.

Question 312

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization that maintains an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Resources are prioritized to maximize return on investment (ROI)

B.

Information security guidelines are communicated across the enterprise_

C.

The organization remains compliant with regulatory requirements.

D.

Business risks are managed to an acceptable level.

Question 313

Which of the following BEST contributes to establishing an information security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Conducting regular information security awareness initiatives

B.

Obtaining executive approval of information security policy

C.

Following industry best practices for information security

D.

Incorporating information security requirements in the software development life cycle

Question 314

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to influence organizational culture to align with security guidelines?

Options:

A.

Adhere to regulatory requirements

B.

Conduct security awareness

C.

Document and distribute security procedures

D.

Communicate and enforce security policies

Question 315

When collecting admissible evidence, which of the following is the MOST important requirement?

Options:

A.

Need to know

B.

Preserving audit logs

C.

Due diligence

D.

Chain of custody

Question 316

Which of the following is the GREATEST value provided by a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a repository base of security policies

B.

Measuring impact of exploits on business processes

C.

Facilitating the monitoring of risk occurrences

D.

Redirecting event logs to an alternate location for business continuity plan

Question 317

Management decisions concerning information security investments will be MOST effective when they are based on:

Options:

A.

a process for identifying and analyzing threats and vulnerabilities.

B.

an annual loss expectancy (ALE) determined from the history of security events,

C.

the reporting of consistent and periodic assessments of risks.

D.

the formalized acceptance of risk analysis by management,

Question 318

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk associated with the use of an automated security information and event management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Low number of false positives

B.

Low number of false negatives

C.

High number of false positives

D.

High number of false negatives

Question 319

Within the confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) triad, which of the following activities BEST supports the concept of

confidentiality?

Options:

A.

Ensuring hashing of administrator credentials

B.

Enforcing service level agreements (SLAs)

C.

Ensuring encryption for data in transit

D.

Utilizing a formal change management process

Question 320

Determining the risk for a particular threat/vulnerability pair before controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact, should a threat exploit a vulnerability.

B.

the magnitude of the impact, should a threat exploit a vulnerability.

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls over a vulnerability.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat attempting to exploit a vulnerability

Question 321

Which risk is introduced when using only sanitized data for the testing of applications?

Options:

A.

Data loss may occur during the testing phase.

B.

Data disclosure may occur during the migration event

C.

Unexpected outcomes may arise in production

D.

Breaches of compliance obligations will occur.

Question 322

From an information security perspective, legal issues associated with a transborder flow of technology-related items are MOST often

Options:

A.

website transactions and taxation.

B.

software patches and corporate date.

C.

encryption tools and personal data.

D.

lack of competition and free trade.

Question 323

Which of the following business units should own the data that populates an identity management system?

Options:

A.

Human resources (HR)

B.

Legal

C.

Information technology

D.

Information security

Question 324

An information security manager finds a legacy application has no defined data owner. Of the following, who would be MOST helpful in identifying the appropriate data owner?

Options:

A.

The individual who has the most privileges within the application

B.

The individual who manages the process supported by the application

C.

The individual responsible for providing support for the application

D.

The individual who manages users of the application

Question 325

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on efforts to improve an organization ' s security posture?

Options:

A.

Regular reporting to senior management

B.

Supportive tone at the top regarding security

C.

Automation of security controls

D.

Well-documented security policies and procedures

Question 326

Which of the following provides an information security manager with the MOST accurate indication of the organization ' s ability to respond to a cyber attack?

Options:

A.

Walk-through of the incident response plan

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Simulated phishing exercise

D.

Red team exercise

Question 327

When selecting metrics to monitor the effectiveness of an information security program, it is MOST important for an information security manager to:

Options:

A.

consider the organizations business strategy.

B.

consider the strategic objectives of the program.

C.

leverage industry benchmarks.

D.

identify the program ' s risk and compensating controls.

Question 328

Which of the following is the BEST approach when creating a security policy for a global organization subject to varying laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Incorporate policy statements derived from third-party standards and benchmarks.

B.

Adhere to a unique corporate privacy and security standard

C.

Establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required

D.

Require that all locations comply with a generally accepted set of industry

Question 329

Which of the following is ESSENTIAL to ensuring effective incident response?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Classification scheme

D.

Senior management support

Question 330

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an emerging incident?

Options:

A.

A weakness identified within an organization ' s information systems

B.

Customer complaints about lack of website availability

C.

A recent security incident at an industry competitor

D.

Attempted patching of systems resulting in errors

Question 331

A PRIMARY purpose of creating security policies is to:

Options:

A.

define allowable security boundaries.

B.

communicate management ' s security expectations.

C.

establish the way security tasks should be executed.

D.

implement management ' s security governance strategy.

Question 332

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration during the design phase of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Selecting quality metrics to monitor business performance

B.

Estimating the likelihood that end-to-end processes will be disrupted

C.

Obtaining reserve funding to prepare for possible business failures

D.

Identifying critical functions for business operations

Question 333

A KEY benefit of effective information security governance is:

Options:

A.

Prioritization of information security projects

B.

Alignment with information security compliance requirements

C.

Informed information security decision-making

D.

Information security risk avoidance

Question 334

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when defining control objectives?

Options:

A.

Senior management support

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Threat environment

D.

Budget allocation

Question 335

Which of the following would BEST enable a new information security manager to obtain senior management support for an information security governance program?

Options:

A.

Demonstrating the program ' s value to the organization

B.

Discussing governance programs found in similar organizations

C.

Providing the results of external audits

D.

Providing examples of information security incidents within the organization

Question 336

Which of the following BEST describes a buffer overflow?

Options:

A.

A function is carried out with more data than the function can handle

B.

A program contains a hidden and unintended function that presents a security risk

C.

Malicious code designed to interfere with normal operations

D.

A type of covert channel that captures data

Question 337

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of testing security controls within a critical infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the continued resilience and security of IT services

B.

Decreasing the percentage of security deployments that cause failures in production

C.

Reducing the number of control assessments to optimize resources

D.

Identifying and addressing security team performance issues

Question 338

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

To define security roles and responsibilities

B.

To determine return on investment (ROI)

C.

To establish incident severity levels

D.

To determine the criticality of information assets

Question 339

Which of the following is the PRIMARY impact of organizational culture on the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

The culture shapes behaviors toward information security.

B.

The culture defines responsibilities necessary for program implementation.

C.

The culture helps determine budget for information security controls.

D.

The culture has minimal impact as long as information security controls are adhered to.

Question 340

Which of the following is MOST likely to be the cause of systems and applications missing critical patches?

Options:

A.

Insufficient management oversight

B.

Inadequate reporting on damaged hardware

C.

Lack of a release and deployment policy

D.

Outdated configuration management database (CMDB)

Question 341

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure the effective execution of an organization ' s disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

The plan is reviewed by senior and IT operational management.

B.

The plan is based on industry best practices.

C.

Process steps are documented by the disaster recovery team.

D.

Procedures are available at the primary and failover location.

Question 342

What is the BEST way to address vulnerabilities associated with a recent increase in the number of zero-day attacks?

Options:

A.

Implement USB port control throughout the company.

B.

Implement automated antivirus updates.

C.

Implement a behavior anomaly detection solution.

D.

Develop a patching program.

Question 343

Which of the following would BEST guide the development and maintenance of an information security program?

Options:

A.

A business impact assessment

B.

A comprehensive risk register

C.

An established risk assessment process

D.

The organization ' s risk appetite

Question 344

Which of the following is the MOST important function of an information security steering committee?

Options:

A.

Assigning data classifications to organizational assets

B.

Developing organizational risk assessment processes

C.

Obtaining multiple perspectives from the business

D.

Defining security standards for logical access controls

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