Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers
An organization is planning to outsource its payroll function to an external service provider Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when selecting the provider?
Options:
Disaster recovery plan (DRP) of the system
Right to audit the provider
Internal controls to ensure data privacy
Transparency of key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most important consideration when selecting an external service provider for outsourcing the payroll function is the internal controls to ensure data privacy. The payroll function involves processing and storing sensitive personal and financial information of the employees, such as salaries, taxes, benefits, bank accounts, etc. This information needs to be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss, as it may result in legal, regulatory, reputational, or financial consequences for the organization and the employees. Therefore, the external service provider should have adequate internal controls, such as encryption, access control, backup, logging, monitoring, etc., to ensure data privacy and compliance with the organization’s policies and standards. Disaster recovery plan, right to audit, and transparency of KPIs are also important considerations when selecting an external service provider, but they are not as important as internal controls to ensure data privacy. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1.2, page 2461
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 648.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst? The reviewers are:
Options:
accountable for the affected processes.
members of senior management.
authorized to select risk mitigation options.
independent from the business operations.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst is that the reviewers are accountable for the affected processes. This is because the reviewers need to have a clear understanding of the business processes that are exposed to the risks, and the potential impact and consequences of the risk scenarios. The reviewers also need to have the authority and responsibility to implement the risk responses and monitor the risk performance. By involving the stakeholders who are accountable for the affected processes, the risk analyst can ensure that the risk scenarios are realistic, relevant, and comprehensive, and that the risk management process is aligned with the business objectives and expectations. The other options are not as important as the accountability for the affected processes, because they do not guarantee that the reviewers have the necessary knowledge, experience, and involvement in the risk management process, as explained below:
B. Members of senior management are not the most important consideration, because they may not have the detailed or operational knowledge of the business processes that are exposed to the risks, or the technical or practical aspects of the risk scenarios. Senior management may also have different or conflicting priorities or perspectives on the risk management process, which may affect the quality and validity of the review.
C. Authorized to select risk mitigation options are not the most important consideration, because they may not have the direct or regular involvement in the business processes that are exposed to the risks, or the specific or contextual understanding of the risk scenarios. The authority to select risk mitigation options may also depend on other factors, such as the risk appetite, the budget, or the organizational structure, which may limit or influence the review.
D. Independent from the business operations are not the most important consideration, because they may not have the sufficient or relevant knowledge of the business processes that are exposed to the risks, or the potential or actual impact and consequences of the risk scenarios. The independence from the business operations may also create a gap or disconnect between the risk management process and the business objectives and expectations, which may affect the effectiveness and efficiency of the review. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 45. A Stakeholder Approach to Risk Management, Module 2. Project risk management: stakeholders’ risks and the project manager’s role, What Is Risk Management Scenario Analysis?
Which of the following would be of GREATEST assistance when justifying investment in risk response strategies?
Options:
Total cost of ownership
Resource dependency analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
Business impact analysis
Answer:
CExplanation:
A cost-benefit analysis is a technique that compares the costs and benefits of different risk response strategies, such as mitigating, transferring, avoiding, or accepting risks. A cost-benefit analysis can help justify investment in risk response strategies by showing the expected return on investment, the net present value, the break-even point, and the cost-effectiveness of each option. A cost-benefit analysis can also help prioritize the most optimal risk response strategies based on the available resources, the risk appetite, and the stakeholder expectations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.4: Risk Response Selection, p. 156-157.
An IT organization is replacing the customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should own the risk associated with customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new system?
Options:
Chief information security officer
Business process owner
Chief risk officer
IT controls manager
Answer:
BExplanation:
The business process owner is the stakeholder who is responsible for the business process that is supported by the IT system, such as the CRM system. The business process owner has the authority and accountability to manage the risk and its response associated with the business process and the IT system. The business process owner should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new system, as it directly affects the performance, functionality, and compliance of the business process. The other options are not the correct answer, as they involve different roles or responsibilities in the risk management process:
The chief information security officer is the senior executive who oversees the enterprise-wide information security program, and provides guidance and direction to the information security managers and practitioners. The chief information security officer may advise or support the business process owner in managing the risk of customer data leakage, but does not own the risk.
The chief risk officer is the senior executive who oversees the enterprise-wide risk management program, and provides guidance and direction to the risk managers and practitioners. The chief risk officer may advise or support the business process owner in managing the risk of customer data leakage, but does not own the risk.
The IT controls manager is the person who designs, implements, and monitors the IT controls that mitigate the IT risks, such as the IT security controls for the new system. The IT controls manager may advise or support the business process owner in managing the risk of customer data leakage, but does not own the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.1, pp. 95-96.
Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?
Options:
Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management
Review of internal audit and third-party reports
Management review and sign-off on system documentation
First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation
Answer:
DExplanation:
First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation is the best way to confirm the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls because it provides the most reliable and persuasive evidence. Direct observation involves inspecting the physical and logical aspects of the controls, such as the hardware, software, network, data, procedures, and personnel involved in the information systems. Direct observation also allows the auditor to verify that the controls are functioning as intended, and to identify any deviations or weaknesses that may affect the reliability of the information systems. Direct observation can be performed by using various techniques, such as walkthroughs, inquiries, inspections, reperformance, and analytical procedures1. References = Auditing Standard No. 13, The Auditor’s Responses to the Risks of Material Misstatement, PCAOB, 2010
An organization has completed a project to implement encryption on all databases that host customer data. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated the reflect this change?
Options:
Risk likelihood
Inherent risk
Risk appetite
Risk tolerance
Answer:
AExplanation:
The risk likelihood is the element of the risk register that should be updated to reflect the change of implementing encryption on all databases that host customer data. The risk likelihood is the probability or frequency of a risk event occurring, and it is one of the factors that determine the risk level and priority. By implementing encryption, the organization reduces the risk likelihood of unauthorized access, disclosure, or breach of the customer data, as encryption protects the data from being read or modified by anyone who does not have the decryption key. Therefore, the risk likelihood should be updated to reflect the lower probability of the risk event after applying the encryption control. The other options are not the elements that should be updated, as they are either not affected by or not related to the change of implementing encryption. The inherent risk is the level of risk before applying any controls or mitigation measures, and it does not change after implementing encryption. The risk appetite is the amount of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and it is not influenced by the change of implementing encryption. The risk tolerance is the acceptable variation between the risk thresholds and the business objectives, and it is not determined by the change of implementing encryption. References = Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana; Risk Assessment in Project Management | PMI; Risk Assessment Process: Definition, Steps, and Examples; Risk Assessment - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
Which of the following is MOST important when discussing risk within an organization?
Options:
Adopting a common risk taxonomy
Using key performance indicators (KPIs)
Creating a risk communication policy
Using key risk indicators (KRIs)
Answer:
AExplanation:
A common risk taxonomy is a framework that defines and categorizes the sources, types, and impacts of risks within an organization1. It helps to establish a consistent and shared understanding of risk across the organization, and to facilitate effective risk identification, assessment, reporting, and communication2. A common risk taxonomy also enables comparison and aggregation of risks at different levels and domains, and supports alignment of risk management with business objectives and strategies3. Using key performance indicators (KPIs) and key risk indicators (KRIs) are important for measuring and monitoring risk and performance, but they are not the most important factor when discussing risk within an organization. KPIs and KRIs should be derived from the common risk taxonomy and aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance4. Creating a risk communication policy is also important for ensuring that risk information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time and in the right format, but it is not the most important factor either. A risk communication policy should be based on the common risk taxonomy and the risk roles and responsibilities within the organization5. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2: Risk Taxonomy, pp. 25-29.
A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Options:
Report it to the chief risk officer.
Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.
follow incident reporting procedures.
Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best course of action for the risk practitioner is to follow the incident reporting procedures established by the organization. This will ensure that the incident is properly documented, escalated, and resolved in a timely and consistent manner. Reporting the incident to the chief risk officer, advising the employee to forward the email to the phishing team, or advising the employee to permanently delete the email are not the best courses of action, as they may not comply with the organization’s policies and standards, and may not address the root cause and impact of the incident. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2.1, page 193.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when performing a risk assessment of a fire suppression system within a data center?
Options:
Insurance coverage
Onsite replacement availability
Maintenance procedures
Installation manuals
Answer:
CExplanation:
The MOST important consideration when performing a risk assessment of a fire suppression system within a data center is the maintenance procedures, because they ensure that the fire suppression system is functioning properly and reliably, and that it can prevent or minimize the damage caused by fire incidents. The maintenance procedures should include regular testing, inspection, and servicing of the fire suppression system components, such as sprinklers, detectors, alarms, and extinguishers. The other options are not as important as the maintenance procedures, because:
Option A: Insurance coverage is a financial measure that can compensate for the loss or damage caused by fire incidents, but it does not prevent or reduce the likelihood or impact of the fire incidents. Insurance coverage is also dependent on the terms and conditions of the insurance policy, which may not cover all the scenarios or costs of the fire incidents.
Option B: Onsite replacement availability is a contingency measure that can facilitate the recovery or restoration of the fire suppression system after a fire incident, but it does not prevent or reduce the likelihood or impact of the fire incidents. Onsite replacement availability is also dependent on the availability and compatibility of the replacement parts, which may not match the original fire suppression system specifications or requirements.
Option D: Installation manuals are a reference source that can provide guidance on how to install or configure the fire suppression system, but they do not ensure that the fire suppression system is functioning properly and reliably. Installation manuals are also static documents that may not reflect the current or updated fire suppression system standards or practices. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 211.
Which of the following would qualify as a key performance indicator (KPI)?
Options:
Aggregate risk of the organization
Number of identified system vulnerabilities
Number of exception requests processed in the past 90 days
Number of attacks against the organization's website
Answer:
BExplanation:
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization is achieving its key objectives. A KPI should be relevant, specific, measurable, achievable, and time-bound. The number of identified system vulnerabilities is a KPI that measures the security posture and performance of the organization’s information systems. It also helps to identify the areas that need improvement or remediation. The number of identified system vulnerabilities is relevant to the organization’s objective of protecting its information assets, specific to the system level, measurable by using tools or methods, achievable by implementing security controls or practices, and time-bound by setting a target or threshold. Aggregate risk of the organization, number of exception requests processed in the past 90 days, and number of attacks against the organization’s website are not KPIs, as they are either too broad, not relevant, or not measurable. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.1.1, page 1741
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 647.
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?
Options:
Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets
Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments
A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents
A large number of control exceptions
Answer:
BExplanation:
A risk management program is a set of processes, policies, and tools that enable an enterprise to identify, analyze, evaluate, treat, monitor, and communicate its risks. The maturity level of a risk management program indicates how well the program is integrated, standardized, and aligned with the enterprise’s objectives, culture, and values. The best indication that an organization’s risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level is large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments. Risk ratings are the measures of the impact and likelihood of the risks, and they should be consistent and comparable across the enterprise and over time. Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments suggest that the risk management program is not stable, reliable, or effective, and that the risk identification and analysis methods are not robust, accurate, or transparent. The other options are not as indicative of the maturity level of the risk management program, as they involve different aspects or outcomes of the risk management program:
Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets means that the enterprise is spending more resources on implementing risk responses, such as controls, policies, or procedures. This may indicate that the enterprise is facing more or higher risks, or that the risk responses are more costly or complex, but it does not necessarily reflect the maturity level of the risk management program, as it may also depend on the enterprise’s risk appetite, tolerance, and strategy.
A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents means that the enterprise is taking longer to restore its normal operations after a disruption or a loss. This may indicate that the enterprise is not prepared or resilient enough to deal with the incidents, or that the incidents are more frequent or severe, but it does not necessarily reflect the maturity level of the risk management program, as it may also depend on the nature and source of the incidents, or the availability and effectiveness of the recovery plans.
A large number of control exceptions means that the enterprise is deviating from the established controls, policies, or procedures, either intentionally or unintentionally. This may indicate that the enterprise is not complying with the risk management program, or that the controls are not adequate or appropriate for the enterprise’s needs, but it does not necessarily reflect the maturity level of the risk management program, as it may also depend on the reasons and justifications for the exceptions, or the approval and monitoring processes for the exceptions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.1.3.1, pp. 14-15.
Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?
Options:
Defining risk taxonomy
Identifying vulnerabilities
Conducting an impact analysis
Defining risk response options
Answer:
DExplanation:
Defining risk response options is performed after a risk assessment is completed. A risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that affect the enterprise’s objectives and operations. After a risk assessment is completed, the enterprise needs to define the risk response options, which are the actions that can be taken to address the risks. The risk response options include accepting, avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or exploiting the risks. Defining risk response options helps to select the most appropriate and effective strategy to manage the risks. Defining risk taxonomy, identifying vulnerabilities, and conducting an impact analysis are performed before or during a risk assessment, not after. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.4, page 541
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 644.
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?
Options:
The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services
Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management
Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business
Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing
Answer:
CExplanation:
The MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios is the potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business, because they are the key elements of a risk scenario that describe the sources and causes of the risk, and the potential consequences and impacts of the risk on the business objectives and processes. The other options are not as important as the potential threats and vulnerabilities, because:
Option A: The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services is a secondary consideration that may affect the cost-benefit analysis of the risk response, but it does not directly affect the identification and assessment of the risk scenario.
Option B: Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management is a good practice that ensures the alignment and integration of the IT risk management with the overall enterprise risk management, but it does not directly affect the identification and assessment of the risk scenario.
Option D: Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing are useful sources of information that may reveal some of the threats and vulnerabilities in the IT environment, but they are not the only or the most important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios, as they may not cover all the aspects and dimensions of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 104.
Which of the following provides the MOST helpful reference point when communicating the results of a risk assessment to stakeholders?
Options:
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Risk awareness
Risk policy
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that management is willing to allow for any particular risk as it pursues its objectives. Risk tolerance provides a helpful reference point when communicating the results of a risk assessment to stakeholders, as it helps to compare the current level of risk exposure with the desired level of risk exposure, and to prioritize and allocate resources for risk response. Risk tolerance also helps to align the risk assessment results with the stakeholder expectations and preferences, and to facilitate risk-based decision making. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 192.
An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?
Options:
Number of business change management requests
Number of revisions to security policy
Number of security policy exceptions approved
Number of changes to firewall rules
Answer:
CExplanation:
A security policy exception is a deviation from the established security policy that is granted to an individual or a group for a specific purpose or period of time. A security policy exception may be necessary when the security policy is too restrictive, outdated, or incompatible with the business requirements or objectives. However, a security policy exception also introduces a risk to the organization, as it may weaken the security posture, expose the organization to threats or vulnerabilities, or violate the compliance or regulatory obligations. Therefore, an upward trend in the number of security policy exceptions approved should be of most concern, as it indicates that the security policy is not effective or aligned with the organization’s needs and goals, and that the organization is accepting more risk than desired. The other options are not as concerning as the number of security policy exceptions approved, because they do not imply a direct or immediate risk to the organization, but rather reflect the normal or expected activities of the security management process, as explained below:
A. Number of business change management requests is a metric that measures the volume and frequency of the requests to modify the business processes, systems, or functions. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the organization is undergoing a transformation, innovation, or improvement, which may have positive or negative impacts on the organization’s performance and security. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the change management requests may be properly assessed, approved, and implemented, following the established change management procedures and controls.
B. Number of revisions to security policy is a metric that measures the amount and extent of the changes made to the security policy over time. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the security policy is being updated, refined, or enhanced, which may improve or maintain the security posture and compliance of the organization. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the revisions to the security policy may be based on the best practices, standards, and expectations for security management, and may be communicated and enforced effectively across the organization.
D. Number of changes to firewall rules is a metric that measures the number and type of the modifications made to the firewall configuration, which controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the firewall is being adjusted, optimized, or customized, which may increase or decrease the firewall performance and security. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the changes to the firewall rules may be justified, authorized, and validated, following the established firewall management procedures and controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 115. Security Policy Exceptions: What Are They and How to Manage Them, Security Policy Exceptions: How to Handle Them in a Secure Manner, Security Policy Exceptions: A Necessary Evil?
Implementing which of the following controls would BEST reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited?
Options:
Detective control
Deterrent control
Preventive control
Corrective control
Answer:
DExplanation:
A vulnerability is a system flaw or weakness that can be exploited by a threat actor, potentially leading to a security breach or incident. A vulnerability that has been exploited means that a threat actor has successfully taken advantage of the vulnerability and compromised the system or network. Implementing controls can help reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited, by limiting or preventing the damage or loss caused by the security breach or incident. Controls are the mechanisms or procedures that ensure the security, reliability, and quality of an IT system or process. Controls can be classified into different types, depending on their purpose and function. The four types of controls mentioned in the question are:
Detective control: A control that monitors and detects the occurrence or attempt of a security breach or incident, and alerts the appropriate personnel or system. For example, a log analysis tool that identifies and reports any unauthorized access or activity on the system or network.
Deterrent control: A control that discourages or prevents a threat actor from exploiting a vulnerability or performing a malicious action, by increasing the perceived difficulty, risk, or cost of doing so. For example, a warning message that informs the user of the legal consequences of unauthorized access or use of the system or network.
Preventive control: A control that blocks or stops a threat actor from exploiting a vulnerability or performing a malicious action, by eliminating or reducing the vulnerability or the opportunity. For example, a firewall that filters and blocks any unwanted or malicious traffic from entering or leaving the system or network.
Corrective control: A control that restores or repairs the system or network to its normal or desired state, after a security breach or incident has occurred, by fixing or removing the vulnerability or the impact. For example, a backup and recovery tool that restores the data or functionality of the system or network that has been corrupted or lost due to the security breach or incident.
The best type of control for reducing the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited is the corrective control, because it directly addresses the damage or loss caused by the security breach or incident, and restores the system or network to its normal or desired state. Corrective controls can help minimize the negative consequences of a security breach or incident, such as downtime, data loss, reputational harm, legal liability, or regulatory sanctions. Corrective controls can also help prevent or reduce the recurrence of the security breach or incident, by fixing or removing the vulnerability that has been exploited. References = Types of Security Controls, Security Controls: What They Are and Why You Need Them, Security Controls: Definition, Types & Examples.
An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Options:
Identify staff members who have access to the organization's sensitive data.
Identify locations where the organization's sensitive data is stored.
Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.
Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The first step in assessing the current risk level of data loss is to identify where the sensitive data is stored, such as servers, databases, laptops, mobile devices, etc. This will help to determine the scope and boundaries of the risk assessment, as well as the potential exposure and impact of data loss. Identifying staff members who have access to the data, risk scenarios and owners, and existing controls are important steps, but they should be done after identifying the data locations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 51.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness training program?
Options:
To enable risk-based decision making
To promote awareness of the risk governance function
To clarify fundamental risk management principles
To ensure sufficient resources are available
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary objective of a risk awareness training program is to enable risk-based decision making, which means making decisions that take into account the potential risks and opportunities associated with each option. A risk awareness training program should aim to develop a common understanding of risk across multiple functions and business units, achieve a better understanding of risk for competitive advantage, and build safeguards against earnings-related surprises1. A risk awareness training program should also cover the basics of risk management, such as the risk management process, the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders, the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and the tools and techniques for identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating risks234. A risk awareness training program should also include practical examples and case studies to illustrate how risk management can be applied in different scenarios and contexts5. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.11: Risk Awareness, pp. 34-354
Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?
Options:
Organizational strategy
Cost-benefit analysis
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Business requirements
Answer:
AExplanation:
The first factor that should be considered when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies is the organizational strategy. The organizational strategy defines the vision, mission, goals, and objectives of the enterprise, and provides the direction and guidance for its activities and decisions. The adoption of emerging technologies should be aligned with the organizational strategy, and support its achievement and performance. The organizational strategy also helps to determine the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise, and the criteria for evaluating the risks and benefits of the emerging technologies. Cost-benefit analysis, control self-assessment, and business requirements are also important factors to consider when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies, but they are not the first factor to consider. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1.1, page 181
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 656.
A risk practitioner notices that a particular key risk indicator (KRI) has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Options:
Recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI.
Notify management that KRIs are being effectively managed.
Update the risk rating associated with the KRI In the risk register.
Update the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The FIRST thing that should be done when a KRI has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time is to recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI, because it may indicate that the trigger point is set too high or too low, or that the KRI is not relevant or effective in measuring the risk exposure. A re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI may result in adjusting the trigger point, changing the KRI, or removing the KRI. The other options are not the first thing that should be done, because:
Option B: Notifying management that KRIs are being effectively managed is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not reflect the true risk status and performance. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not be a valid or reliable indicator of the risk exposure, and it may not capture the changes or trends in the risk environment.
Option C: Updating the risk rating associated with the KRI in the risk register is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not be accurate or consistent. A risk rating is based on the likelihood and impact of the risk, and it should be derived from a comprehensive risk analysis, not just from a single KRI. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not reflect the actual likelihood and impact of the risk, and it may not be aligned with the other risk indicators and assessments.
Option D: Updating the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not be appropriate or feasible. Risk tolerance and risk appetite are the acceptable level of risk exposure and variation that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and they are determined by the executive management and the board of directors, based on the enterprise’s strategy and goals. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not represent the desired or optimal level of risk exposure and variation, and it may not be aligned with the enterprise’s strategy and goals. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 121.
Which of the following is the MOST important input when developing risk scenarios?
Options:
Key performance indicators
Business objectives
The organization's risk framework
Risk appetite
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most important input when developing risk scenarios is the business objectives, as they provide the context and scope for the risk identification and analysis process. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the possible causes, events, and consequences of a risk. Risk scenarios help to understand and communicate the nature and impact of the risk, and to support the risk assessment and response planning. The business objectives are the goals and targets that the organization wants to achieve through its processes, functions, and projects. The business objectives define the expected outcomes and performance of the organization, and the criteria for measuring and evaluating the success or failure of the organization. The business objectives also reflect the organization’s vision, mission, values, and strategy, and the needs and expectations of the stakeholders. The other options are not the most important inputs when developing risk scenarios, although they may be useful or relevant information. Key performance indicators are metrics that measure and monitor the progress and achievement of the business objectives, but they do not provide the context or scope for the risk scenarios. The organization’s risk framework is the set of principles, policies, and processes that guide and support the risk management activities across the organization, but it does not provide the context or scope for the risk scenarios. Risk appetite is the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or avoid in pursuit of its business objectives, but it does not provide the context or scope for the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 58.
Which of the following is MOST important to review when determining whether a potential IT service provider’s control environment is effective?
Options:
Independent audit report
Control self-assessment
MOST important to update when an
Service level agreements (SLAs)
Answer:
AExplanation:
The MOST important thing to review when determining whether a potential IT service provider’s control environment is effective is an independent audit report, because it provides an objective and reliable assessment of the service provider’s controls and compliance with standards and regulations. The other options are not as important as an independent audit report, because:
Option B: Control self-assessment is a subjective and voluntary process that may not reflect the actual effectiveness of the service provider’s controls.
Option C: This option is incomplete and irrelevant to the question.
Option D: Service level agreements (SLAs) are contractual agreements that specify the expected performance and availability of the service provider, but they do not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of the service provider’s controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 195.
Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?
Options:
Results of the latest risk assessment
Results of a risk forecasting analysis
A review of compliance regulations
Findings of the most recent audit
Answer:
AExplanation:
A risk register is a document that is used as a risk management tool to identify and track risks that may affect a project or an organization1. A risk register should be updated regularly to reflect the current status and changes of the risks, as well as the actions taken to mitigate or resolve them2. The most comprehensive information for updating a risk register would come from the results of the latest risk assessment, which is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks and their potential impacts3. A risk assessment provides a detailed and systematic overview of the risks, their sources, causes, likelihood, severity, and consequences, as well as the existing and planned controls and responses4. A risk assessment also helps to prioritize the risks based on their level of exposure and urgency, and to align them with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance5. Therefore, the results of the latest risk assessment would provide the most relevant and complete information for updating a risk register and ensuring that it reflects the current risk profile and situation of the project or the organization. Results of a risk forecasting analysis are not the most comprehensive information for updating a risk register, as they do not provide a complete picture of the risks and their impacts. A risk forecasting analysis is a technique that uses historical data, trends, and scenarios to estimate the potential outcomes and impacts of future events that may affect the organization’s objectives and performance6. A risk forecasting analysis can help to anticipate and prepare for the risks, but it does not provide specific information on the sources, causes, likelihood, severity, and consequences of the risks, nor the existing and planned controls and responses. A review of compliance regulations is not the most comprehensive information for updating a risk register, as it does not cover all the aspects and dimensions of risk management. A review of compliance regulations is a process that involves checking and verifying that the organization’s activities, processes, and systems are in accordance with the applicable laws, rules, and standards7. A review of compliance regulations can help to identify and mitigate the risks related to legal or regulatory violations, but it does not provide specific information on the other types and sources of risks, such as operational, strategic, financial, or reputational risks, nor the existing and planned controls and responses. Findings of the most recent audit are not the most comprehensive information for updating a risk register, as they do not provide a current and holistic view of the risks and their impacts. An audit is an independent examination and evaluation of the organization’s activities, processes, and systems, to provide assurance and advice on their adequacy and effectiveness. An audit can help to identify and report the issues or gaps in the organization’s risk management, but it does not provide specific information on the current status and changes of the risks, nor the existing and planned controls and responses. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.
When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:
Options:
high impact scenarios.
high likelihood scenarios.
treated risk scenarios.
known risk scenarios.
Answer:
DExplanation:
When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log the known risk scenarios, because they are the risk scenarios that have been identified and assessed in the IT risk assessment process. The risk register should document and track the known risk scenarios, their characteristics, their status, and their responses. The other options are not the ones that should be logged, because:
Option A: High impact scenarios are the risk scenarios that have a high potential impact on the business objectives and processes, but they are not the only ones that should be logged. The risk register should include all the known risk scenarios, regardless of their impact level.
Option B: High likelihood scenarios are the risk scenarios that have a high probability of occurrence, but they are not the only ones that should be logged. The risk register should include all the known risk scenarios, regardless of their likelihood level.
Option C: Treated risk scenarios are the risk scenarios that have been addressed by the risk response actions, but they are not the only ones that should be logged. The risk register should include all the known risk scenarios, regardless of their treatment status. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 108.
Which of the following BEST enables the risk profile to serve as an effective resource to support business objectives?
Options:
Engaging external risk professionals to periodically review the risk
Prioritizing global standards over local requirements in the risk profile
Updating the risk profile with risk assessment results
Assigning quantitative values to qualitative metrics in the risk register
Answer:
CExplanation:
A risk profile is a summary of the key risks that affect an organization, a business unit, a process, or a project. A risk profile can help stakeholders understand the current and potential exposure to various sources of uncertainty, and prioritize the risk response accordingly. A risk profile should be aligned with the business objectives, which are the desired outcomes or results that the organization or the business unit wants to achieve. Updating the risk profile with risk assessment results best enables the risk profile to serve as an effective resource to support business objectives, because it ensures that the risk profile reflects the most accurate and up-to-date information about the risks and their impacts. Risk assessment is the process of analyzing and evaluating the likelihood and consequences of the identified risks, and comparing them with the risk criteria and appetite. Risk assessment results can provide valuable insights into the risk level, trend, and exposure, and help identify the most critical and relevant risks that need attention and action. Updating the risk profile with risk assessment results can help align the risk profile with the business objectives, by showing how the risks may affect the achievement of the objectives, and how the risk response can support or enhance the objectives. Updating the risk profile with risk assessment results can also help communicate and justify the risk profile to the business stakeholders, and obtain their feedback and approval. References = Risk Management Essentials: How to Develop a Risk Profile (TRN2-J07), Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative - ISACA, Using Risk Assessment to Support Decision Making - ISACA.
Which of the following observations would be GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans?
Options:
Management has not determined a final implementation date.
Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone.
Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities.
Management has not begun the implementation.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The observation that would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans is that management has not begun the implementation, because it indicates that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored, and that the risks are not being addressed or mitigated. The lack of implementation may also imply that the management action plans are not realistic, feasible, or aligned with the enterprise’s strategy and objectives. The other options are not as concerning as the lack of implementation, because:
Option A: Management has not determined a final implementation date is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may affect the timely completion and delivery of the management action plans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored.
Option B: Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may indicate a delay or deviation in the progress and performance of the management action plans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored.
Option C: Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may affect the quality and effectiveness of the management action plans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 123.
A large organization is replacing its enterprise resource planning (ERP) system and has decided not to deploy the payroll module of the new system. Instead, the current payroll system will continue to be
used. Of the following, who should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected?
Options:
The business owner
The ERP administrator
The project steering committee
The IT project manager
Answer:
AExplanation:
The business owner should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected, because the business owner is ultimately responsible for the business processes and objectives that depend on the systems. The other options are not the risk owners, because:
Option B: The ERP administrator is responsible for the technical aspects of the ERP system, but not the payroll system or the business outcomes.
Option C: The project steering committee is responsible for overseeing the project of replacing the ERP system, but not the ongoing operation and maintenance of the systems or the business risks.
Option D: The IT project manager is responsible for managing the project of replacing the ERP system, but not the payroll system or the business risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 90.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in developing key risk indicator (KRl) thresholds?
Options:
Loss expectancy information
Control performance predictions
IT service level agreements (SLAs)
Remediation activity progress
Answer:
AExplanation:
Key risk indicator (KRI): A metric that measures the level of risk exposure or the likelihood of a risk event1.
KRI threshold: A predefined value or range that triggers an alert or action when the KRI reaches or exceeds it2.
Loss expectancy: The estimated amount of loss that an organization may incur due to a risk event3.
The most helpful thing in developing KRI thresholds is loss expectancy information. Loss expectancy information provides an estimate of the potential or expected impact of a risk event on the organization’s operations, reputation, or objectives. Loss expectancy information can help an organization to:
Quantify and prioritize the risks that pose the greatest threat to the organization
Determine the acceptable level of risk exposure or tolerance for each risk
Set the appropriate value or range for the KRI threshold that reflects the risk appetite and the risk mitigation strategy
Monitor and measure the performance and effectiveness of the risk management process and controls
Loss expectancy information can be derived from various sources, such as historical data, statistical analysis, expert judgment, or simulation models3.
The other options are not as helpful as loss expectancy information in developing KRI thresholds, because they do not directly address the potential or expected impact of a risk event. Control performance predictions, which are the forecasts or estimates of how well the risk management controls will perform in preventing, detecting, or mitigating risks, may help to evaluate the adequacy and efficiency of the risk management process and controls, but they do not provide a clear and quantifiable measure of the risk impact. IT service level agreements (SLAs), which are the contracts or agreements that define the quality and availability of IT services, may help to establish the standards and expectations for IT service delivery and performance, but they do not provide a comprehensive and current view of the risk exposure or likelihood. Remediation activity progress, which is the status or outcome of the actions taken to address and resolve a risk event, may help to monitor and report the effectiveness and compliance of the risk management process and controls, but it is usually done after the risk event has occurred and resolved, not before.
References = Key Risk Indicators: Definition, Examples, and Best Practices, KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva, Loss Expectancy: Definition, Calculation, and Examples
A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Options:
Recommend avoiding the risk.
Validate the risk response with internal audit.
Update the risk register.
Evaluate outsourcing the process.
Answer:
CExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the risk register is a tool that records the results of risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment. The risk register should be updated whenever there is a change in the risk profile, such as when a risk response is implemented or a new risk is identified. Updating the risk register allows the organization to monitor the current status of risks and the effectiveness of risk responses. Therefore, the next step for the risk practitioner after identifying a risk with high impact and very low likelihood that is covered by insurance is to update the risk register with the new information. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 191.
A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner
recommend be done NEXT?
Options:
Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.
Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.
Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.
Reduce the risk tolerance level.
Answer:
CExplanation:
A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. This means that the potential benefits of BYOD outweigh the potential risks, and that the controls in place are adequate to mitigate those risks.
The next step for the risk practitioner is to identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact. Log sources are records of events or activities that occur in a system or network, such as file access, network traffic, user behavior, etc. Log sources can provide valuable information about how BYOD devices are used, what data they access, what applications they run, what threats they encounter, etc.
By monitoring log sources, the risk practitioner can track and measure the actual performance and security of BYOD devices, compare them with the expected outcomes and standards, identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate a breach or a vulnerability, and take appropriate actions to address them.
Therefore, identifying log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact is a recommended action after a successful risk assessment.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 10
Information Technology & Security, page 4
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 2
An organization is planning to acquire a new financial system. Which of the following stakeholders would provide the MOST relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution?
Options:
Project sponsor
Process owner
Risk manager
Internal auditor
Answer:
BExplanation:
The process owner is the stakeholder who is responsible for the business process that will be supported by the new IT solution. The process owner has the best knowledge of the business requirements, objectives, and risks associated with the process. The process owner can provide the most relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution, such as the expected benefits, costs, performance, functionality, security, and compliance of the solution. The process owner can also help to identify and evaluate the potential impact and likelihood of the risk scenarios related to the new IT solution. The other stakeholders may have some information or insights, but they are not as directly involved or affected by the new IT solution as the process owner. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1.1, pp. 58-59.
An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?
Options:
Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.
Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.
Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.
Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The risk practitioner’s BEST course of action is to validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change, because outsourcing the backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider does not eliminate the risk, but rather transfers it to the service provider. The risk practitioner should verify that the service provider has adequate controls and capabilities to handle the backup and recovery procedures, and that the contractual agreement specifies the roles and responsibilities of both parties. The risk practitioner should also update the risk register to reflect the new risk owner and the residual risk level. The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Option A: Accepting the risk and documenting contingency plans for data disruption is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still responsible for the risk, even though it has been transferred to the service provider. Contingency plans are also reactive measures, rather than proactive ones.
Option B: Removing the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk has been eliminated, which is not the case. The risk still exists, but it has been transferred to the service provider. The risk register should reflect the current risk status and ownership.
Option C: Mitigating the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still involved in the risk management process, even though the risk has been transferred to the service provider. The risk practitioner should rely on the service provider’s controls and capabilities, and monitor their performance and compliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 196.
The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:
Options:
highlight trends of developing risk.
ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.
take appropriate actions in a timely manner.
set different triggers for each stakeholder.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The primary reason for establishing various threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to take appropriate actions in a timely manner. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given risk or the effectiveness of the controls in place. Threshold levels are predefined values that indicate when the risk level is acceptable, tolerable, or unacceptable. By establishing various threshold levels for a set of KRIs, the enterprise can monitor the risk situation and trigger the necessary responses before the risk becomes too severe or costly to mitigate. The other options are not the primary reasons for establishing various threshold levels, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 189.
During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?
Options:
Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.
Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.
Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.
Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment
Answer:
AExplanation:
A new risk scenario without controls means that there is a potential threat or event that could adversely affect the organization’s objectives, and there are no existing measures to prevent or reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment, so that the risk practitioner can analyze the risk, evaluate its severity and priority, and recommend suitable controls to mitigate the risk. By including the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment, the risk practitioner can ensure that the risk register is updated and reflects the current risk profile of the organization. The other options are not appropriate because they either ignore the new risk scenario, delay the risk assessment process, or remove valuable information from the risk register. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 95.
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?
Options:
Audit engagement letter
Risk profile
IT risk register
Change control documentation
Answer:
CExplanation:
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the IT risks that have been identified and assessed by the risk practitioner. It contains information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk level, the risk response, the risk status, and the risk monitoring and reporting activities. An IT risk register is a dynamic document that needs to be updated regularly to reflect the changes in the IT environment and the risk landscape. When a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective, the risk practitioner should update the IT risk register to indicate the new risk level, the new risk response, and the new risk monitoring and reporting activities. This will ensure that the IT risk register remains accurate, relevant, and useful for IT risk management. Updating the IT risk register is more important than updating the audit engagement letter, the risk profile, or the change control documentation, because the IT risk register is the primary source of information and guidance for managing IT risks. The audit engagement letter is a formal agreement between the auditor and the auditee that defines the scope, objectives, and terms of the audit. The risk profile is a summary of the organization’s risk appetite, risk tolerance, and risk exposure. The change control documentation is a record of the changes that have been made to the IT systems and processes. These documents are important for IT risk management, but they are not as critical as the IT risk register for updating when a key control becomes ineffective. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: Risk Register, pp. 69-711
Within the three lines of defense model, the accountability for the system of internal control resides with:
Options:
the chief information officer (CIO).
the board of directors
enterprise risk management
the risk practitioner
Answer:
AExplanation:
The three lines of defense model is a framework that describes the roles and responsibilities of different functions in an organization for managing risks and controls.
The first line of defense is the operational management, which is responsible for implementing and maintaining effective controls, identifying and assessing risks, and reporting on risk and control performance.
The second line of defense is the risk management and compliance functions, which are responsible for establishing and overseeing the risk management framework, providing guidance and support to the operational management, and monitoring and reporting on risk and compliance issues.
The third line of defense is the internal audit function, which is responsible for providing independent and objective assurance on the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk management and control system, and recommending improvements.
Within the three lines of defense model, the accountability for the system of internal control resides with the chief information officer (CIO). The CIO is the senior executive who oversees the IT function of the organization, and is responsible for ensuring that the IT risks and controls are aligned with the business objectives and strategies, and are integrated with the enterprise risk management and governance processes.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 20
Information Technology & Security, page 14
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 12
A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:
Options:
obtain management approval for policy exception.
develop an improved password software routine.
select another application with strong password controls.
continue the implementation with no changes.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A policy exception is a deviation from the established policies, standards, or procedures of the enterprise, such as the information security policy. A policy exception may be granted by the management when there is a valid business reason or justification for the deviation, and when the risk associated with the deviation is acceptable or mitigated. The best course of action when a business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls is to obtain management approval for policy exception. This will ensure that the business unit is aware of the implications and consequences of the policy exception, and that the management agrees with the risk acceptance and approves the policy exception. The other options are not the best course of action, as they involve different risk response strategies or outcomes:
Develop an improved password software routine means that the business unit modifies or enhances the password controls of the software package, such as by increasing the password length, complexity, or expiration. This may not be a feasible or effective way to address the risk of weak password controls, as it may violate the terms and conditions of the software vendor, or may not be compatible or consistent with the software package.
Select another application with strong password controls means that the business unit replaces the software package with another application that has better password controls, such as by using encryption, authentication, or authorization. This may not be a desirable or efficient way to address the risk of weak password controls, as it may incur additional costs, delays, or complexities, or may not meet the business requirements or expectations of the business unit.
Continue the implementation with no changes means that the business unit proceeds with the software package without any modifications or improvements to the password controls, or without any approval or documentation of the policy exception. This may not be a responsible or ethical way to address the risk of weak password controls, as it may expose the enterprise to legal, financial, or reputational risks, or may compromise the security or compliance of the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1.1, pp. 121-122.
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?
Options:
Time between control failure and failure detection
Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count
Time spent on internal control assessment reviews
Number of internal control failures within the measurement period
Answer:
AExplanation:
The effectiveness of a control monitoring program can be measured by how quickly it can detect and correct any control failures that may compromise the achievement of the organization’s objectives. A shorter time between control failure and failure detection means that the control monitoring program is able to identify and report the issues promptly, and initiate the remediation actions accordingly. This can reduce the impact and likelihood of the risks associated with the control failures, and enhance the performance and reliability of the controls. The other options are not as good indicators of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program, because they do not reflect the timeliness and responsiveness of the program, but rather the scope, effort, or frequency of the program. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization's IT systems via personal or public computers?
Options:
Risk appetite
Inherent risk
Key risk indicator (KRI)
Risk tolerance
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, inherent risk is the risk that exists before any controls or mitigating factors are considered. Inherent risk is influenced by the nature and complexity of the business activities, the environment, and the technology involved. A new policy that allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization’s IT systems via personal or public computers is likely to increase the inherent risk of the organization, as it introduces new threats and vulnerabilities that may compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the IT systems and data. For example, personal or public computers may not have adequate security measures, such as antivirus software, firewalls, encryption, or authentication, and may expose the organization to malware, hacking, data leakage, or unauthorized access. Therefore, the answer is B. Inherent risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, Page 97. Remote Work: How to Secure Your Data
Deviation from a mitigation action plan's completion date should be determined by which of the following?
Options:
Change management as determined by a change control board
Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects
Project governance criteria as determined by the project office
The risk owner as determined by risk management processes
Answer:
DExplanation:
Deviation from a mitigation action plan’s completion date should be determined by the risk owner as determined by risk management processes, because the risk owner is the person or entity who has the accountability and authority to manage the risk and its associated mitigation actions. The risk owner should monitor and report the progress and status of the mitigation action plan, and determine if there is any deviation from the expected completion date, based on the risk management processes and criteria. The other options are not the ones who should determine the deviation, because:
Option A: Change management as determined by a change control board is a process that ensures that any changes to the project scope, schedule, cost, or quality are controlled and approved, but it does not determine the deviation from the mitigation action plan’s completion date, which is a risk management activity.
Option B: Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects is a technique that compares the performance and practices of the current project with those of similar or successful projects, but it does not determine the deviation from the mitigation action plan’s completion date, which is a risk management activity.
Option C: Project governance criteria as determined by the project office is a set of rules and standards that define the roles, responsibilities, and authority of the project stakeholders, but it does not determine the deviation from the mitigation action plan’s completion date, which is a risk management activity. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 122.
A business manager wants to leverage an existing approved vendor solution from another area within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Options:
Recommend allowing the new usage based on prior approval.
Request a new third-party review.
Request revalidation of the original use case.
Assess the risk associated with the new use case.
Answer:
DExplanation:
A risk practitioner’s best course of action when a business manager wants to leverage an existing approved vendor solution from another area within the organization is to assess the risk associated with the new use case. This is because the new use case may introduce different or additional risks that were not considered or addressed in the original approval. For example, the new use case may involve different data types, volumes, or sensitivities; different business processes, functions, or objectives; different regulatory or contractual requirements; or different technical or operational dependencies. Therefore, the risk practitioner should perform a vendor risk assessment (VRA) to identify, evaluate, and mitigate the potential risks of the new use case and ensure that the vendor solution meets the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance12. Recommending allowing the new usage based on prior approval is not the best course of action, as it may overlook or underestimate the risks of the new use case and expose the organization to unacceptable levels of risk. Requesting a new third-party review is not the best course of action, as it may be unnecessary or redundant if the vendor solution has already been reviewed and approved for another use case within the organization. Requesting revalidation of the original use case is not the best course of action, as it may not address the specific risks of the new use case and may also delay or disrupt the existing use case. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.
A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Options:
Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.
Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.
Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.
Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The risk practitioner’s best course of action is to review the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, because this will help to evaluate the suitability, effectiveness, and reliability of the model as a control measure. A machine learning model is a type of artificial intelligence that can learn from data and make predictions or decisions based on the data. A machine learning model can be used to automate or enhance the access management process, such as by identifying excessive access privileges, detecting unauthorized access, or recommending access rights. However, a machine learning model also introduces new risks and challenges, such as data quality, model accuracy, model bias, model explainability, model security, and model governance. Therefore, the risk practitioner should review the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, which are the specific goals or outcomes that the control is intended to achieve. The control objectives can be derived from the IT risk management strategy, the IT governance framework, the IT policies and standards, and the regulatory requirements. The review of the machine learning model should cover the following aspects: - The data sources and inputs: The risk practitioner should verify that the data used to train and test the machine learning model is relevant, complete, accurate, consistent, and representative of the access management process and the access rights. The risk practitioner should also check that the data is collected, stored, processed, and transmitted in a secure and compliant manner, and that the data privacy and confidentiality are protected. - The model algorithms and outputs: The risk practitioner should validate that the model algorithms are appropriate, robust, and transparent for the access management process and the control objectives. The risk practitioner should also evaluate that the model outputs are accurate, reliable, and interpretable, and that they provide meaningful and actionable insights or recommendations for the access management process and the control objectives. - The model performance and monitoring: The risk practitioner should measure and monitor the model performance and effectiveness against the control objectives and the predefined metrics and indicators. The risk practitioner should also ensure that the model is updated and maintained regularly to reflect the changes in the access management process and the access rights, and that the model is audited and reviewed periodically to ensure its compliance and quality. By reviewing the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, the risk practitioner can ensure that the model is fit for purpose and adds value to the access management process and the control objectives. The risk practitioner can also identify and mitigate any potential risks or issues that may arise from the use of the machine learning model as a control measure. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3: Control Design and Implementation, pp. 124-1271, Manage roles in your workspace - Azure Machine Learning2, Dataset Inference: Ownership Resolution in Machine Learning3
An organization is considering modifying its system to enable acceptance of credit card payments. To reduce the risk of data exposure, which of the following should the organization do FIRST?
Options:
Conduct a risk assessment.
Update the security strategy.
Implement additional controls.
Update the risk register.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The FIRST thing that the organization should do to reduce the risk of data exposure when modifying its system to enable acceptance of credit card payments is to conduct a risk assessment, because it is a process that involves identifying and analyzing the potential risks, threats, and vulnerabilities that may affect the system and the data, and their likelihood and impact on the business objectives and processes. A risk assessment can help to determine the current risk level and exposure, and to provide the basis for selecting and implementing the appropriate risk responses and controls. The other options are not the first thing that the organization should do, because:
Option B: Updating the security strategy is a result of conducting a risk assessment, but not the first thing that the organization should do. A security strategy is a plan that defines the security objectives, policies, standards, and procedures for the system and the data, and it should be aligned with the risk assessment results and the business requirements and expectations.
Option C: Implementing additional controls is a response to the risk assessment results, but not the first thing that the organization should do. Controls are the measures that are designed and implemented to prevent or reduce the occurrence or impact of the risks, threats, and vulnerabilities, and to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system and the data.
Option D: Updating the risk register is a part of the risk assessment process, but not the first thing that the organization should do. A risk register is a tool that documents and tracks the identified risks, their characteristics, their status, and their responses, and it should be updated regularly to reflect the current risk profile and exposure of the system and the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 108.
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?
Options:
Self-assessments by process owners
Mitigation plan progress reports
Risk owner attestation
Change in the level of residual risk
Answer:
DExplanation:
Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk mitigation plans have been implemented. Residual risk reflects the effectiveness of the risk response in reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk. The best evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively is the change in the level of residual risk. A change in the level of residual risk can be measured by comparing the risk level before and after the risk mitigation plans have been executed. A change in the level of residual risk can also be evaluated by comparing the actual residual risk with the target or acceptable residual risk. A change in the level of residual risk can demonstrate how well the risk mitigation plans have achieved the risk objectives and met the risk criteria. A change in the level of residual risk can also provide feedback and lessons learned for future risk management activities. References = Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management, Residual Risk: What It Is and How to Manage It, Residual Risk: How to Calculate and Manage It.
An internally developed payroll application leverages Platform as a Service (PaaS) infrastructure from the cloud. Who owns the related data confidentiality risk?
Options:
IT infrastructure head
Human resources head
Supplier management head
Application development head
Answer:
BExplanation:
Data confidentiality risk is the risk that the data may be accessed, disclosed, or modified by unauthorized parties, resulting in breaches of privacy, trust, or compliance1. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing model that provides a platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications, without requiring the users to manage the underlying infrastructure2. An internally developed payroll application is an application that is created and maintained by the organization itself, rather than by a third-party vendor, and that is used to process and manage the payroll data of the organization’s employees3. The owner of the data confidentiality risk is the person or entity that has the authority and accountability for the data and its protection, and that is responsible for identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risk. The owner of the data confidentiality risk related to an internally developed payroll application that leverages PaaS infrastructure from the cloud is the human resources head, as they are the person who oversees the human resources function and the payroll data of the organization. The human resources head has the best understanding of the sensitivity, value, and usage of the payroll data, and the potential impacts and implications of a data confidentiality breach. The human resources head also has the ability and responsibility to define and implement the policies, procedures, and controls that are necessary to protect the payroll data, and to monitor and report on the performance and compliance of the data confidentiality risk management. The IT infrastructure head, the supplier management head, and the application development head are not the best choices for owning the data confidentiality risk related to an internally developed payroll application that leverages PaaS infrastructure from the cloud, as they do not have the same level of authority and accountability as the human resources head. The IT infrastructure head is the person who oversees the IT infrastructure function and the PaaS infrastructure of the organization. The IT infrastructure head may be involved in providing input and feedback to the human resources head on the data confidentiality risk management, especially those related to the PaaS infrastructure, but they do not have the final say or the overall responsibility for the payroll data and its protection. The supplier management head is the person who oversees the supplier management function and the relationship with the cloud service provider that provides the PaaS infrastructure. The supplier management head may be involved in negotiating and enforcing the service level agreements and the security requirements with the cloud service provider, but they do not have the authority or the expertise to manage the data confidentiality risk of the payroll data. The application development head is the person who oversees the application development function and the development, testing, and deployment of the payroll application. The application development head may be involved in designing and implementing the security features and controls of the payroll application, but they do not have the perspective or the influence to manage the data confidentiality risk of the payroll data. References = 3: Payroll Software: What Is It & How Does It Work? | QuickBooks2: What is Platform as a Service (PaaS)? | IBM1: Data Confidentiality: Identifying and Protecting Assets Against Data … : [Risk Ownership - Risk Management] : [Human Resources and Payroll Security Policy - University of …] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Concepts, pp. 17-19.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.]
A risk practitioner recently discovered that sensitive data from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following i the BEST recommendation to address this situation?
Options:
Enable data encryption in the test environment
Implement equivalent security in the test environment.
Prevent the use of production data for test purposes
Mask data before being transferred to the test environment.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Masking data before being transferred to the test environment is the best recommendation to address the situation where sensitive data from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data elements with realistic but fictitious data, preserving the format, structure, and meaning of the original data. Data masking ensures that the test data is sufficiently anonymized and de-identified, while still maintaining its functionality and validity for testing purposes. Data masking also reduces the risk of data leakage, exposure, or breach in the test environment, which may have lower security controls than the production environment. The other options are not the best recommendations, as they do not adequately protect the sensitive data or meet the testing requirements. Enabling data encryption in the test environment may protect the data from unauthorized access, but it does not prevent the data from being decrypted by authorized users who may misuse or mishandle it. Implementing equivalent security in the test environment may be costly, complex, or impractical, and it may not be feasible to replicate the same level of security controls as in the production environment. Preventing the use of production data for test purposes may not be possible or desirable, as production data may be required to ensure the accuracy, reliability, and quality of the testing results. References = P = NP: Cloud data protection in vulnerable non-production environments …; Data masking secures sensitive data in non-production environments …; CRISC EXAM TOPIC 2 LONG Flashcards | Quizlet
An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:
Options:
senior management has oversight of the process.
process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.
segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.
risk owners have decision-making authority.
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the 1.9 Ownership & Accountability - CRISC, risk ownership is best established by mapping risk to specific business process owners. Details of the risk owner should be documented in the risk register. Results of the risk monitoring should be discussed and communicated with the risk owner as they own the risk and are accountable for maintaining the risk within acceptable levels. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is most important that risk owners have decision-making authority, as this enables them to take timely and appropriate actions to manage the risk and ensure that it is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Without decision-making authority, risk owners may not be able to implement the necessary risk responses or escalate the issues to the relevant stakeholders. Therefore, the answer is D. risk owners have decision-making authority. References = 1.9 Ownership & Accountability - CRISC, The Importance of Effective Risk Governance in the C-suite - Aon
During the initial risk identification process for a business application, it is MOST important to include which of the following stakeholders?
Options:
Business process owners
Business process consumers
Application architecture team
Internal audit
Answer:
AExplanation:
The MOST important stakeholders to include during the initial risk identification process for a business application are the business process owners, because they are the ones who have the authority and responsibility for the business processes that are supported or enabled by the business application. The business process owners can provide valuable input and feedback on the business objectives, requirements, and expectations of the business application, as well as the potential risks, impacts, and opportunities that may affect the business processes and outcomes. The other options are not as important as the business process owners, because:
Option B: Business process consumers are the ones who use or benefit from the business processes that are supported or enabled by the business application, such as customers, employees, or partners. They can provide useful information and perspectives on the user needs, preferences, and satisfaction of the business application, but they are not as important as the business process owners, who have the ultimate accountability and authority for the business processes and outcomes.
Option C: Application architecture team is the one who designs and develops the technical architecture and components of the business application, such as the hardware, software, network, and data. They can provide technical expertise and guidance on the feasibility, functionality, and security of the business application, but they are not as important as the business process owners, who have the primary stake and interest in the business application and its alignment with the business processes and objectives.
Option D: Internal audit is the one who provides independent assurance and consulting services on the governance, risk management, and control processes of the organization, including the business application. They can provide objective and impartial evaluation and recommendation on the effectiveness and efficiency of the business application and its compliance with the internal and external standards and regulations, but they are not as important as the business process owners, who have the direct involvement and influence on the business application and its performance and value. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 103.
Which of the following is the BEST measure of the effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process?
Options:
Number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates
Number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions
Number of termination requests processed per reporting period
Number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates
Answer:
AExplanation:
The effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process can be measured by the number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates, as this indicates how quickly and completely the organisation can revoke the privileges of former employees and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions is a measure of the efficiency of the IT department, but not the overall process. The number of termination requests processed per reporting period is a measure of the volume of the process, but not the quality or timeliness. The number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates is a measure of the performance of the HR department, but not the entire process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 152.
Which of the following would BEST help secure online financial transactions from improper users?
Options:
Review of log-in attempts
multi-level authorization
Periodic review of audit trails
multi-factor authentication
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the 10 Tips for Secure Online Transactions - SmartAsset article, multi-factor authentication is a security measure that requires users to provide more than one piece of evidence to verify their identity when logging in to an online account. For example, users may need to enter a password and a code sent to their phone or email, or use a biometric feature such as a fingerprint or a face scan. Multi-factor authentication can help secure online financial transactions from improper users, as it makes it harder for hackers to access the account even if they have the password. Multi-factor authentication can also alert users to any suspicious login attempts and prevent unauthorized transactions. References = 10 Tips for Secure Online Transactions - SmartAsset
Which of the following would prompt changes in key risk indicator {KRI) thresholds?
Options:
Changes to the risk register
Changes in risk appetite or tolerance
Modification to risk categories
Knowledge of new and emerging threats
Answer:
BExplanation:
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. KRIs have upper and lower acceptable risk limits (warning thresholds) that trigger actions when exceeded2. These thresholds are based on the organization’s risk appetite or tolerance, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives3. Therefore, changes in risk appetite or tolerance would prompt changes in KRI thresholds, as the organization would need to adjust its risk monitoring and response accordingly. The other options are not the primary factors that would prompt changes in KRI thresholds, although they may have some influence on the risk management process. References = Risk IT Framework; IT Risk Resources; ISACA Risk Starter Kit; Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide
A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?
Options:
Reviewing access control lists
Authorizing user access requests
Performing user access recertification
Terminating inactive user access
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, authorizing user access requests is the process of granting or denying access to IT resources based on the user’s role, responsibilities, and business needs. Authorizing user access requests is a key control accountability that should be retained within the organization, as it helps to ensure that the principle of least privilege is applied, and that the access rights are aligned with the organization’s policies, standards, and risk appetite. Authorizing user access requests also helps to prevent unauthorized access, data leakage, fraud, and other potential risks associated with user access provisioning and termination. Therefore, the best control accountability to retain within the organization when a third-party vendor offers to perform user access provisioning and termination is authorizing user access requests. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 240.
Which of the following is MOST commonly compared against the risk appetite?
Options:
IT risk
Inherent risk
Financial risk
Residual risk
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses. Residual risk is most commonly compared against the risk appetite, which is the amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives. By comparing the residual risk with the risk appetite, the organization can determine if the risk response is adequate and effective, or if additional actions are needed to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. Residual risk should be monitored and reported regularly to ensure that it stays within the risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1, Page 222. A Comprehensive Guide to Risk Appetite and Risk Tolerance
Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?
Options:
Assigning control ownership
Assigning appropriate resources
Assigning a quality control review
Performing regular independent control reviews
Answer:
AExplanation:
Commitment to controls is the degree to which the organization and its stakeholders support and adhere to the controls that are designed and implemented to manage or mitigate the risks1. Commitment to controls is essential for ensuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, as well as the achievement of the organization’s objectives and strategies2. The best way to promote commitment to controls is to assign control ownership, which is the process of identifying and assigning the person or entity that has the authority and accountability for a control and its management3. By assigning control ownership, the organization can ensure that the controls are properly and promptly designed, implemented, monitored, and maintained, and that the issues or gaps in the controls are identified and resolved4. Assigning control ownership also helps to establish and communicate the roles and responsibilities of the control owners and the other stakeholders, and to enforce the accountability and performance of the control owners5. Assigning appropriate resources, assigning a quality control review, and performing regular independent control reviews are not the best ways to promote commitment to controls, as they do not provide the same level of authority and accountability as assigning control ownership. Assigning appropriate resources is the process of allocating and providing the necessary funds, staff, equipment, or technology that are required to support or enable the controls. Assigning appropriate resources can enhance the quality and performance of the controls, but it does not ensure that the controls are managed or maintained by a specific person or entity. Assigning a quality control review is the process of conducting and documenting a systematic and objective examination and evaluation of the controls, to ensure that they meet the established standards and requirements. Assigning a quality control review can improve the reliability and compliance of the controls, but it does not ensure that the controls are owned or operated by a specific person or entity. Performing regular independent control reviews is the process of performing and reporting an independent and impartial assessment and verification of the controls, to provide assurance and advice on the adequacy and effectiveness of the controls. Performing regular independent control reviews can provide feedback and recommendations for the controls, but it does not ensure that the controls are implemented or improved by a specific person or entity. References = 1: Commitment Controls - IMF2: 17 COSO Principles of Effective Internal Control | Weaver3: [Control Ownership - ISACA] 4: [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] 5: [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : Resource Allocation - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics : Quality Control Review - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics : IT Risk Resources | ISACA : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.]
An organization's HR department has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?
Options:
Number of malicious activities occurring during staff members leave
Percentage of staff members seeking exception to the policy
Percentage of staff members taking leave according to the policy
Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities during staff members' leave
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of the policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities is the percentage of staff members taking leave according to the policy. A KPI is a quantifiable measure that evaluates the performance of a process, activity, or outcome against a predefined target or objective. The percentage of staff members taking leave according to the policy is the best KPI, because it directly measures the compliance and adherence of the staff members to the policy, which is the main objective of the policy. The policy aims to reduce the risk of malicious insider activities by forcing the staff members to take a break from their work, which can help to deter, detect, or prevent any fraudulent or unauthorized actions, such as data theft, sabotage, or manipulation12. The percentage of staff members taking leave according to the policy can also help to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the policy implementation and enforcement, and to identify and address any gaps or issues in the policy design or execution. The other options are not the best KPI, although they may be related or influential to the policy effectiveness. The number of malicious activities occurring during staff members’ leave is a measure of the occurrence and impact of the risk events that the policy aims to mitigate, but it is not a direct measure of the policy performance or compliance. The number of malicious activities occurring during staff members’ leave may also be affected by other factors or controls, such as the security systems, the audit procedures, or the external threats, which may not reflect the policy effectiveness. The percentage of staff members seeking exception to the policy is a measure of the resistance or dissatisfaction of the staff members to the policy, but it is not a direct measure of the policy performance or compliance. The percentage of staff members seeking exception to the policy may also be influenced by other factors or circumstances, such as the workload, the personal preferences, or the organizational culture, which may not indicate the policy effectiveness. The financial loss incurred due to malicious activities during staff members’ leave is a measure of the consequence and severity of the risk events that the policy aims to mitigate, but it is not a direct measure of the policy performance or compliance. The financial loss incurred due to malicious activities during staff members’ leave may also vary depending on the type, scale, or frequency of the malicious activities, or the recovery or compensation actions, which may not represent the policy effectiveness. References = How To Measure Risk Management KPI & Metrics - ERM Software, Key Performance Indicators (KPIs): The Ultimate Guide - ClearPoint Strategy
Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management's understanding of the results?
Options:
Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results
Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments
A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed
The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results
Answer:
CExplanation:
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the level of risk for each risk area based on the impact and likelihood of occurrence. It also provides a summary of the risk assessment results, such as the number and severity of risks, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the risk response strategies. A risk heat map can help senior management to understand the risk profile of the organization, prioritize the risks that need attention, and allocate resources accordingly. A risk heat map is more effective than the other options because it can communicate complex information in a simple and visual way, and it can highlight the key risk areas and trends. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.2, page 97.
What is the MOST important consideration when aligning IT risk management with the enterprise risk management (ERM) framework?
Options:
Risk and control ownership
Senior management participation
Business unit support
Risk nomenclature and taxonomy
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, risk nomenclature and taxonomy is the set of terms and definitions that are used to describe and classify risks and their attributes. Risk nomenclature and taxonomy is the most important consideration when aligning IT risk management with the enterprise risk management (ERM) framework, as it helps to ensure a common and consistent understanding and communication of risks across the organization. Risk nomenclature and taxonomy also helps to integrate and harmonize the IT risk management processes and activities with the ERM framework, and to facilitate the aggregation and reporting of risks at different levels of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 197.
Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) is MOST effective for monitoring risk related to a bring your own device (BYOD) program?
Options:
Number of users who have signed a BYOD acceptable use policy
Number of incidents originating from BYOD devices
Budget allocated to the BYOD program security controls
Number of devices enrolled in the BYOD program
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most effective key risk indicator (KRI) for monitoring risk related to a bring your own device (BYOD) program is the number of incidents originating from BYOD devices, as it directly measures the impact and frequency of the potential threats and vulnerabilities associated with the use of personal devices for accessing company data and systems. A BYOD program can pose various risks to an organization, such as data loss or breach, malware infection, unauthorized access, compliance violation, or device theft or loss12. The number of incidents originating from BYOD devices can help to identify and quantify these risks, and to trigger appropriate risk response actions when the incidents exceed the acceptable thresholds. The other options are not the most effective KRIs, as they do not directly measure the risk level or impact of the BYOD program. The number of users who have signed a BYOD acceptable use policy may indicate the awareness and compliance of the users, but not the actual risk exposure or mitigation. The budget allocated to the BYOD program security controls may indicate the investment and efficiency of the risk management, but not the effectiveness or necessity. The number of devices enrolled in the BYOD program may indicate the scope and scale of the risk, but not the severity or likelihood. References = Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide; KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management
What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?
Options:
Documenting project lessons learned
Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed
Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded
Verifying that the risk level has been lowered
Answer:
DExplanation:
A post-implementation review (PIR) is a process to evaluate whether the objectives of the project were met and whether the project delivered the expected benefits and outcomes1. The primary objective of a risk practitioner performing a PIR of an IT risk mitigation project is to verify that the risk level has been lowered as a result of the project implementation2. This can be done by comparing the actual risk level with the expected risk level, assessing the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk mitigation controls, and identifying any residual or emerging risks3. Documenting project lessons learned, validating the project completion, and confirming the project budget are important aspects of a PIR, but they are not the primary objective for a risk practitioner, as they do not directly measure the impact of the project on the risk level4. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 5.4: Post-Implementation Review, pp. 239-241.
Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?
Options:
Informing business process owners of the risk
Reviewing and updating the risk register
Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals
Implementing new control technologies
Answer:
CExplanation:
A risk factor is a condition or event that may increase the likelihood or impact of a risk, which is the effect of uncertainty on objectives1. An information systems review is a process that involves examining and evaluating the adequacy and effectiveness of the information systems and their related controls, policies, and procedures2. The purpose of an information systems review is to identify and report the risk factors that may affect the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and performance of the information systems and their outputs3. The best way to ensure that the risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed is to assign action items and deadlines to specific individuals, who are responsible and accountable for implementing the appropriate risk responses. A risk response is an action taken or planned to mitigate or eliminate the risk, such as avoiding, transferring, reducing, or accepting the risk4. By assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals, the organization can ensure that the risk factors are properly and promptly addressed, and that the progress and results of the risk responses are monitored and reported5. Informing business process owners of the risk, reviewing and updating the risk register, and implementing new control technologies are not the best ways to ensure that the risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed, as they do not provide the same level of accountability and effectiveness as assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals. Informing business process owners of the risk is a process that involves communicating and sharing the risk information with the persons who have the authority and accountability for a business process that is supported or enabled by the information systems6. Informing business process owners of the risk can help to raise their awareness and understanding of the risk, but it does not ensure that they will take the necessary actions to address the risk. Reviewing and updating the risk register is a process that involves checking and verifying that the risk register, which is a document that records and tracks the risks and their related information, is current, complete, and consistent7. Reviewing and updating the risk register can help to reflect the changes and updates in the risk factors and their status, but it does not ensure that the risk factors are resolved or reduced. Implementing new control technologies is a process that involves introducing or applying new software or hardware that can help to prevent, detect, or correct the risk factors affecting the information systems8. Implementing new control technologies can help to improve the security and performance of the information systems, but it does not ensure that the risk factors are eliminated or mitigated. References = 1: Risk Factors - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2: Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA) - ISACA3: Information Systems Audit: The Basics4: Risk Response Strategy and Contingency Plans - ProjectManagement.com5: Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response, Section 3.1: Risk Response Options, pp. 113-115.6: [Business Process Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] 7: Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana8: Technology Control Automation: Improving Efficiency, Reducing … - ISACA : [Business Process Owner - Roles and Responsibilities] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.]
Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?
Vulnerability analysis
Options:
Control analysis
Scenario analysis
Heat map analysis
Answer:
CExplanation:
Scenario analysis is a technique that helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization by creating and exploring plausible alternative futures. Scenario analysis can help anticipate and prepare for potential changes, opportunities, or threats in the internal or external environment, such as technological, economic, social, political, legal, or environmental factors. Scenario analysis can also help evaluate the impact and likelihood of different risk scenarios, and test the effectiveness and robustness of various risk response strategies. Scenario analysis can provide a comprehensive and holistic view of risks and their interrelationships, and support the decision making and planning process for risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: IT Risk Scenarios, p. 49-50.
Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the:
Options:
overall effectiveness of risk management
consequences of risk materializing
necessity of developing a risk strategy,
organization s risk threshold.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the consequences of risk materializing, as it indicates how much impact or loss the organization would suffer if the asset is compromised, damaged, or destroyed by a threat. The value of an asset can be determined by various methods, such as the cost of acquisition, replacement, or restoration, the market value, the income or revenue generated, or the impact on the business objectives or reputation. The other options are not the best description of what quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand, as they are either too broad (overall effectiveness of risk management, necessity of developing a risk strategy) or not directly related to the asset value (organization’s risk threshold). References = IT Asset Valuation, Risk Assessment and Control Implementation Model; How to quantify assets?; Asset Valuation - Definition, Methods, and Importance
Which of the following would provide executive management with the BEST information to make risk decisions as a result of a risk assessment?
Options:
A companion of risk assessment results to the desired state
A quantitative presentation of risk assessment results
An assessment of organizational maturity levels and readiness
A qualitative presentation of risk assessment results
Answer:
AExplanation:
Risk assessment is the process of analyzing and evaluating the likelihood and consequences of the identified risks, and comparing them with the risk criteria and appetite. Risk assessment results can provide valuable information to support risk decisions, such as selecting and implementing the appropriate risk response strategies. The best way to provide executive management with the best information to make risk decisions as a result of a risk assessment is to present a comparison of risk assessment results to the desired state. The desired state is the optimal level of risk exposure that the organization wants to achieve, based on its risk objectives, goals, and strategy. A comparison of risk assessment results to the desired state can help executive management understand the current and potential gap between the actual and target risk levels, and prioritize the most critical and relevant risks that need attention and action. A comparison of risk assessment results to the desired state can also help executive management evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the existing risk response, and identify the opportunities and challenges for improvement. A comparison of risk assessment results to the desired state can also help communicate and justify the risk decisions to other stakeholders, and obtain their feedback and approval. References = Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative - ISACA, Risk Management Essentials: How to Develop a Risk Profile (TRN2-J07), Risk Response Strategies: Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept.
An organization has decided to implement an emerging technology and incorporate the new capabilities into its strategic business plan. Business operations for the technology will be outsourced. What will be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY role during the change?
Options:
Managing third-party risk
Developing risk scenarios
Managing the threat landscape
Updating risk appetite
Answer:
AExplanation:
The risk practitioner’s primary role during the change is to manage the third-party risk, as this involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks associated with outsourcing the business operations for the emerging technology. The risk practitioner should ensure that the third-party provider has the necessary capabilities, security, and compliance to deliver the expected outcomes and meet the contractual obligations. The risk practitioner should also monitor the performance and service levels of the third-party provider and report any issues or incidents. Developing risk scenarios, managing the threat landscape, and updating risk appetite are all important activities for the risk practitioner, but they are not the primary role during the change. Developing risk scenarios is a technique for identifying and analyzing potential risk events and their impacts. Managing the threat landscape is a process of identifying and responding to the external and internal threats that may affect the organization. Updating risk appetite is a decision that reflects the organization’s willingness to accept or avoid risk in pursuit of its objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 48.
An organization with a large number of applications wants to establish a security risk assessment program. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments?
Options:
Feedback from end users
Results of a benchmark analysis
Recommendations from internal audit
Prioritization from business owners
Answer:
BExplanation:
A benchmark analysis is a process of comparing the organization’s performance, practices, and processes with those of other organizations in the same industry or sector. A benchmark analysis can provide the most useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments, because it can help the organization to identify the best practices, standards, and expectations for security risk management in its industry. A benchmark analysis can also help the organization to assess its current level of maturity, capability, and compliance in relation to security risk management, and to determine the gaps and areas for improvement. By conducting a benchmark analysis, the organization can establish a realistic and appropriate frequency of risk assessments that aligns with its industry norms and its own risk profile. The other options are not as useful as a benchmark analysis, because they do not provide a comprehensive and relevant view of the security risk management landscape, but rather focus on specific or partial aspects of the organization’s situation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, page 18.
Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?
Options:
Threat to IT
Number of control failures
Impact on business
Risk ownership
Answer:
CExplanation:
Ineffective control implementation can result in increased risk exposure, reduced compliance, and diminished performance for the organization. Therefore, the most relevant information for stakeholders is the impact of ineffective control implementation on the business objectives, processes, and outcomes. The impact on business can include financial losses, reputational damage, operational inefficiencies, customer dissatisfaction, and legal liabilities. The other options are not as relevant as the impact on business, because they do not directly link the control effectiveness to the business value. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 128.
Which of the following BEST enables a proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure?
Options:
Cyber insurance
Data backups
Incident response plan
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Answer:
DWhen reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management's PRIMARY focus should be placed on the:
Options:
cost-benefit analysis.
investment portfolio.
key performance indicators (KPIs).
alignment with risk appetite.
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the What To Look For When Assessing Your Organization’s Security Risk Posture article, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite should be aligned with the organization’s strategy, goals, and values, and should reflect the organization’s risk culture and capabilities. When reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management’s primary focus should be placed on the alignment with risk appetite, as this indicates how well the risk response strategy supports the organization’s objectives and expectations, and how consistent it is with the organization’s risk tolerance and risk profile. By ensuring the alignment with risk appetite, senior management can evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response strategy, and determine if any adjustments or improvements are needed. References = What To Look For When Assessing Your Organization’s Security Risk Posture
Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?
Options:
Management intervention
Risk appetite
Board commentary
Escalation triggers
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best answer is D. Escalation triggers. Escalation triggers are predefined thresholds or conditions that indicate when a key risk indicator (KRI) has reached a critical level that requires immediate attention or action. Escalation triggers can be based on quantitative or qualitative measures, such as percentages, scores, ratings, or colors. Escalation triggers can help to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk, because they provide clear and timely signals that alert the risk owners, managers, and other stakeholders of the need to review and revise the risk response plan, or to implement additional or alternative controls. Escalation triggers can also help to communicate and report the risk status and the risk response actions to the senior management and the board, and to obtain their support and approval, if needed. The other options are not the best answer, although they may be related or influential to the KRI and the risk mitigation. Management intervention is a part of the risk response process, which involves the actions and decisions taken by the management to address the risk, such as approving, implementing, or monitoring the controls. Management intervention can help to mitigate risk, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a consequence or a result of the escalation triggers. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite can help to define and align the KRI and the escalation triggers with the organizational strategy and culture, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a factor or a driver of the KRI. Board commentary is a part of the risk reporting process, which involves the feedback and guidance provided by the board on the risk management process and performance. Board commentary can help to improve and enhance the KRI and the risk mitigation, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a source or a resource of the KRI. References = Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture, KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva
Which of the following could BEST detect an in-house developer inserting malicious functions into a web-based application?
Options:
Segregation of duties
Code review
Change management
Audit modules
Answer:
BExplanation:
Code review could BEST detect an in-house developer inserting malicious functions into a web-based application, because it is a process that involves examining and verifying the source code of the application for any errors, vulnerabilities, or malicious functions. Code review can help to identify and remove any unauthorized or harmful code that the developer may have inserted, either intentionally or unintentionally, and to ensure that the application meets the quality and security standards and requirements. The other options are not as effective as code review, because:
Option A: Segregation of duties is a control that involves separating the roles and responsibilities of the developer from those of the tester, the approver, and the deployer, to prevent any conflict of interest or misuse of authority. Segregation of duties can help to reduce the risk of the developer inserting malicious functions into the web-based application, but it does not detect them.
Option C: Change management is a process that involves controlling and documenting any changes to the web-based application, such as new features, enhancements, or bug fixes, to ensure that they are authorized, tested, and approved. Change management can help to track and monitor the changes that the developer may have made to the web-based application, but it does not detect the malicious functions.
Option D: Audit modules are components that are embedded in the web-based application to record and report the activities and transactions that occur within the application, such as user login, data input, or data output. Audit modules can help to audit and review the performance and functionality of the web-based application, but they do not detect the malicious functions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 214.
When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?
Options:
List of recent incidents affecting industry peers
Results of external attacks and related compensating controls
Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment
Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best thing to include when communicating changes in the IT risk profile is the gaps between the current and desired states of the control environment, as this shows the stakeholders the extent and impact of the changes, and the actions and resources needed to address them. The control environment is the set of policies, processes, and systems that provide reasonable assurance that the IT risks are identified, assessed, and treated effectively and efficiently. The current state of the control environment reflects the existing level and performance of the controls, and the residual risk that remains after the controls are applied. The desired state of the control environment reflects the target level and performance of the controls, and the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The gaps between the current and desired states of the control environment indicate the areas of improvement or enhancement for the IT risk management process, and the priorities and strategies for risk response. The other options are not the best things to include when communicating changes in the IT risk profile, although they may be useful or relevant information. A list of recent incidents affecting industry peers can provide some context and comparison for the IT risk profile, but it does not measure or explain the changes in the IT risk level or the control environment. Results of external attacks and related compensating controls can demonstrate the security and resilience of the IT systems and networks, but they do not cover the entire scope or spectrum of the IT risk profile or the control environment. A review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry can provide some insights and benchmarks for the IT risk management process, but it does not reflect the specific situation or needs of the organization or the stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 181.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process?
Options:
Percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level
Number of vulnerabilities identified during the period
Number of vulnerabilities re-opened during the period
Percentage of vulnerabilities escalated to senior management
Answer:
AExplanation:
A vulnerability management process is a process that identifies, analyzes, prioritizes, and remediates the vulnerabilities in the IT systems and applications. The effectiveness of a vulnerability management process can be measured by the key performance indicators (KPIs) that reflect the achievement of the process objectives and the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. The best KPI to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process is the percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level. This KPI indicates how well the process is able to address the vulnerabilities in a timely and efficient manner, and reduce the exposure and impact of the risks associated with the vulnerabilities. The other options are not as good as the percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level, as they may not reflect the quality or timeliness of the remediation actions, or the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2.1, pp. 171-172.
Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?
Options:
Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).
Define recovery time objectives (RTO).
Analyze capability maturity model gaps.
Simulate a disaster recovery.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of a disaster on the critical functions and processes of an organization1. A BIA helps to forecast the operational, financial, legal, and reputational impacts of a disaster, as well as the recovery priorities and resources needed to resume normal operations2. A BIA also helps to determine the recovery time objectives (RTO), which are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring the critical functions and processes after a disaster3. Therefore, developing a BIA is the most important step for an organization to forecast the effects of a disaster and plan for its recovery. Defining RTOs is a part of the BIA process, not a separate activity. Analyzing capability maturity model gaps is a method to assess the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s processes and practices, but it does not directly forecast the effects of a disaster4. Simulating a disaster recovery is a way to test and validate the recovery plans and procedures, but it does not forecast the effects of a disaster either5. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 5.3: Business Continuity Planning, pp. 227-238.
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Options:
Improving risk awareness
Obtaining buy-in from risk owners
Leveraging existing metrics
Optimizing risk treatment decisions
Answer:
AExplanation:
The main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs) is improving risk awareness, as it helps to communicate the risk exposure, appetite, and tolerance of the organization to the relevant parties. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. By involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, the risk practitioner can ensure that the KRIs are aligned with the stakeholder expectations, needs, and objectives, and that they reflect the most significant risks that affect the organization. This also helps to foster a risk culture and a shared understanding of risk among the stakeholders, which can enhance the risk management process and performance. The other options are not the main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, although they may be some of the outcomes or advantages of doing so. Obtaining buy-in from risk owners, leveraging existing metrics, and optimizing risk treatment decisions are all important aspects of risk management, but they are not the primary reason for involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide; The 10 Types of Stakeholders That You Meet in Business; What are Stakeholders? Stakeholder Definition | ASQ
An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?
Options:
Classification of the data
Type of device
Remote management capabilities
Volume of data
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most important factor when assessing the risk of allowing users to access company data from their personal devices is the classification of the data, as it indicates the level of sensitivity, confidentiality, and criticality of the data. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and controls that are needed to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss of the data. Data classification also helps to define the roles and responsibilities of the data owners, custodians, and users, and the acceptable use of the data. The other options are not the most important factors, although they may be relevant or influential in the risk assessment. The type of device may affect the security features and vulnerabilities of the device, but it does not determine the value or impact of the data. The remote management capabilities may affect the ability to monitor, control, or wipe the device in case of theft or loss, but they do not reflect the nature or purpose of the data. The volume of data may affect the storage capacity or performance of the device, but it does not indicate the importance or significance of the data. References = What is BYOD (Bring-Your-Own-Device) - CrowdStrike; Understanding BYOD Policy - Get Certified Get Ahead; Addressing cyber security concerns on employees’ personal devices; Personal Devices at Work – Nonprofit Risk Management Center; 10 Keys to an Effective BYOD and Remote Access Policy
An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?
Options:
Acceptance
Transfer
Mitigation
Avoidance
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the ERM - Step 3 - Risk Treatment article, risk transfer is a risk treatment option that involves passing ownership and/or liability of a risk to a third party, such as an insurance company, a contractor, or a supplier. Risk transfer is usually adopted when the organization does not have the capability or the resources to manage the risk internally, or when the cost of transferring the risk is lower than the cost of retaining the risk. In this case, the organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. This means that the organization has transferred the risk of non-compliance to the service provider, who is now responsible for ensuring that the lease payment process meets the regulatory requirements. Therefore, the answer is B. Transfer. References = ERM - Step 3 - Risk Treatment
Read" rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:
Options:
business process owner.
database administrator.
chief information officer.
systems administrator.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Read rights: The permission to view or access the content of a file or a folder1.
Application files: The files that contain the code, data, or resources of an application or a program2.
Controlled server environment: A server environment that is managed and secured by a set of policies, procedures, and tools3.
Business process owner: The person who is responsible for the design, execution, and performance of a business process.
Read rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the business process owner. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the business process that uses or depends on the application files. The business process owner should approve the read rights to application files in a controlled server environment to:
Ensure that the read rights are aligned with the business needs and objectives
Prevent unauthorized or unnecessary access to the application files
Protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the application files
Comply with the relevant laws and regulations that govern the access to the application files
The other options are not the best choices for approving the read rights to application files in a controlled server environment, because they do not have the same level of authority, responsibility, or knowledge as the business process owner. The database administrator, who is the person who manages and maintains the database systems and data, may have the technical skills and access to grant the read rights to application files, but they may not have the business insight or approval to do so. The chief information officer, who is the person who oversees the IT strategy and operations of the organization, may have the executive power and oversight to approve the read rights to application files, but they may not have the specific or detailed knowledge of the business process or the application files. The systems administrator, who is the person who configures and maintains the server systems and networks, may have the administrative privileges and tools to grant the read rights to application files, but they may not have the business understanding or authorization to do so.
References = Read Permission - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics, What is an Application File? - Definition from Techopedia, What is a Server Environment? - Definition from Techopedia, [Business Process Owner: Definition, Roles, and Responsibilities]
Which of the following is MOST helpful in verifying that the implementation of a risk mitigation control has been completed as intended?
Options:
An updated risk register
Risk assessment results
Technical control validation
Control testing results
Answer:
DExplanation:
Control testing is the process of verifying that the risk mitigation controls are designed and operating effectively, and that they achieve the intended objectives and outcomes. Control testing can involve various methods, such as observation, inspection, inquiry, re-performance, or simulation. Control testing results can provide evidence and assurance that the implementation of a risk mitigation control has been completed as intended, and that the control is functioning properly and consistently. Control testing results can also identify any issues or deficiencies in the control design or operation, and recommend corrective actions or improvements. The other options are not as helpful as control testing results, because they do not provide a direct and objective verification of the control implementation, but rather focus on other aspects or outputs of the risk management process, as explained below:
A. An updated risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their characteristics, and their status. An updated risk register can reflect the changes in the risk profile and exposure after the implementation of a risk mitigation control, but it does not verify that the control implementation has been completed as intended, or that the control is effective and reliable.
B. Risk assessment results are the outputs of the risk analysis and evaluation process, which measure the impact and likelihood of the risks, and assign a risk rating and priority. Risk assessment results can indicate the level of risk exposure and the need for risk mitigation controls, but they do not verify that the control implementation has been completed as intended, or that the control is effective and reliable.
C. Technical control validation is the process of ensuring that the technical aspects of a control, such as hardware, software, or network components, are configured and functioning correctly. Technical control validation can verify that the control implementation meets the technical specifications and requirements, but it does not verify that the control implementation has been completed as intended, or that the control is effective and reliable from a business perspective. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130.
A control owner has completed a year-long project To strengthen existing controls. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:
Options:
update the risk register to reflect the correct level of residual risk.
ensure risk monitoring for the project is initiated.
conduct and document a business impact analysis (BIA).
verify cost-benefit of the new controls being implemented.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The risk practitioner should verify the cost-benefit of the new controls being implemented to ensure that they are aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and strategy, and that they provide value to the business. The other options are not as important as verifying the cost-benefit of the new controls, because:
Option A: Updating the risk register is a good practice, but it does not provide assurance that the new controls are effective and efficient.
Option B: Ensuring risk monitoring for the project is initiated is also a good practice, but it is not as urgent as verifying the cost-benefit of the new controls, which should be done before the project is closed.
Option C: Conducting and documenting a BIA is not relevant to the scenario, as the project is already completed and the new controls are implemented. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 184.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?
Options:
An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.
Controls are not applied to the applications.
There is a lack of technology recovery options.
The applications are not captured in the risk profile.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs is:
B. Controls are not applied to the applications.
When end users create their own applications, there is often a lack of formal controls that would typically be applied in a structured development environment. This can lead to issues with data integrity, security vulnerabilities, and non-compliance with organizational policies and standards.
Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?
Options:
An annual contract review
A service level agreement (SLA)
A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework
A requirement to provide an independent audit report
Answer:
BExplanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a SaaS vendor and a customer that defines the quality and availability of the SaaS service, as well as the responsibilities and obligations of both parties. An SLA is most important to include in a SaaS vendor agreement because it sets the expectations and standards for the SaaS service, provides a mechanism for measuring and monitoring the service performance, and establishes the remedies and penalties for service failures or breaches. An SLA can also help to mitigate the risks and liabilities associated with SaaS delivery, such as data security, privacy, compliance, and disaster recovery. The other options are not the most important to include in a SaaS vendor agreement, although they may be beneficial or desirable depending on the context and nature of the SaaS service. An annual contract review is a process of evaluating and revising the SaaS vendor agreement to reflect the changing needs and circumstances of the customer and the vendor, but it is not a mandatory or essential element of the agreement. A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework is a way of ensuring that the SaaS vendor follows the best practices and standards for identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks related to the SaaS service, but it is not a specific or measurable term of the agreement. A requirement to provide an independent audit report is a way of verifying and validating the SaaS vendor’s compliance with the SLA and other contractual obligations, but it is not a direct or primary component of the agreement. References = SaaS Agreements: Key Contractual Provisions, SaaS Agreement: Everything You Need to Know, Essential checklist for SaaS agreement negotiations, Key Clauses To Understand and Evaluate in SaaS Contracts, SaaS Reseller Agreement: Everything You Need to Know
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis?
Options:
To enhance compliance with standards
To minimize subjectivity of assessments
To increase consensus among peers
To provide assessments for benchmarking
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, peer reviews are the process of evaluating the quality and validity of risk analysis by independent experts or colleagues. Peer reviews are conducted to ensure that the risk analysis is consistent, objective, and reliable, and that it follows the established standards and methods. The primary reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis is to minimize subjectivity of assessments, as peer reviews can help to reduce personal biases, preferences, and assumptions that may affect the risk analysis outcomes. Peer reviews can also help to identify and correct any errors, gaps, or inconsistencies in the risk analysis, and to improve the risk analysis skills and knowledge of the reviewers and the reviewees. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 209.
An external security audit has reported multiple findings related to control noncompliance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management?
Options:
A recommendation for internal audit validation
Plans for mitigating the associated risk
Suggestions for improving risk awareness training
The impact to the organization’s risk profile
Answer:
DExplanation:
The risk profile of an organization is a summary of the key risks that affect its objectives, operations, and performance. The risk profile can help senior management understand the current and potential exposure of the organization to various sources of uncertainty, and prioritize the risk response accordingly. An external security audit can reveal multiple findings related to control noncompliance, which indicate that the existing controls are not adequate, effective, or aligned with the organization’s risk appetite. These findings can have a significant impact on the organization’s risk profile, as they can increase the likelihood and/or impact of adverse events, such as data breaches, cyberattacks, regulatory fines, reputational damage, etc. Therefore, the most important information that the risk practitioner should communicate to senior management is the impact to the organization’s risk profile, as it can help them make informed decisions about the risk response and allocation of resources. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Risk Profile, p. 193-195.
The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the:
Options:
amount of risk reduced by compensating controls.
amount of risk present in the organization.
variance against objectives.
number of incidents.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the variance against objectives, because control metrics are measures that indicate the performance and effectiveness of the controls in achieving the desired outcomes and goals. Control metrics can help to identify and quantify the gaps or deviations between the actual and expected results of the controls, and to provide feedback and improvement for the control design and implementation. The other options are not the primary purpose, because:
Option A: Amount of risk reduced by compensating controls is a result of using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. Compensating controls are controls that provide an alternative or additional level of protection or assurance when the primary or preferred controls are not feasible or effective. Control metrics can help to measure and monitor the amount of risk reduced by compensating controls, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the control performance and effectiveness.
Option B: Amount of risk present in the organization is an input to using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. The amount of risk present in the organization is the level of exposure and uncertainty that the organization faces in pursuing its objectives and goals. Control metrics can help to assess and report the amount of risk present in the organization, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the risk profile and exposure.
Option D: Number of incidents is a source of using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. Incidents are events or occurrences that disrupt or threaten the normal operations or security of the organization. Control metrics can help to analyze and respond to the number of incidents, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the incident management and resolution. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 120.
Which of the following should be initiated when a high number of noncompliant conditions are observed during review of a control procedure?
Options:
Disciplinary action
A control self-assessment
A review of the awareness program
Root cause analysis
Answer:
DExplanation:
A root cause analysis is a systematic process of identifying the underlying factors that caused the noncompliant conditions during the review of a control procedure. A root cause analysis can help to prevent the recurrence of the noncompliance, improve the effectiveness of the control procedure, and enhance the risk management process. A root cause analysis can be performed using various tools and techniques, such as the 5 whys, fishbone diagram, Pareto chart, or fault tree analysis. The other options are not as appropriate as a root cause analysis, because they do not address the source of the problem, but rather the symptoms or consequences of the noncompliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130.
An organization has granted a vendor access to its data in order to analyze customer behavior. Which of the following would be the MOST effective control to mitigate the risk of customer data leakage?
Options:
Enforce criminal background checks.
Mask customer data fields.
Require vendor to sign a confidentiality agreement.
Restrict access to customer data on a "need to know'' basis.
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the Hierarchy of Controls, the most effective way to prevent and control hazards is to eliminate them or substitute them with safer alternatives. In this case, the hazard is the potential leakage of customer data by the vendor. Therefore, the most effective control would be to eliminate or substitute the customer data with masked or anonymized data fields. This would prevent the vendor from accessing or disclosing any sensitive or identifiable information about the customers. Masking customer data fields is an example of an engineering control, which reduces or prevents hazards from coming into contact with workers or third parties. References = Hierarchy of Controls, 5 Risk Control Measures In The Workplace
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase of the project management life cycle?
Options:
To deliver projects on time and on budget
To assess inherent risk
To include project risk in the enterprise-wide IT risk profit.
To assess risk throughout the project
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase of the project management life cycle is to assess inherent risk. Inherent risk is the risk that exists before any controls or mitigations are applied. By assessing inherent risk in the initiation phase, the project team can identify the potential sources, causes, and impacts of risk that may affect the project objectives, scope, and deliverables. Assessing inherent risk in the initiation phase also helps to prioritize the risks, determine the risk appetite and tolerance, and plan the risk responses. Delivering projects on time and on budget, including project risk in the enterprise-wide IT risk profile, and assessing risk throughout the project are important objectives of risk management, but they are not the most important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 511
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 658.
What is the GREATEST concern with maintaining decentralized risk registers instead of a consolidated risk register?
Options:
Aggregated risk may exceed the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance.
Duplicate resources may be used to manage risk registers.
Standardization of risk management practices may be difficult to enforce.
Risk analysis may be inconsistent due to non-uniform impact and likelihood scales.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and owners. A decentralized risk register is maintained by each business unit or function, while a consolidated risk register is maintained at the enterprise level. The greatest concern with maintaining decentralized risk registers instead of a consolidated risk register is that the aggregated risk may exceed the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, while risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation around the objectives. If the risk registers are not consolidated, the enterprise may not have a holistic view of its risk profile and may not be able to prioritize and allocate resources effectively. The other options are also concerns, but they are not as significant as the potential misalignment between the aggregated risk and the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2.2, pp. 21-22.
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT action after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system?
Options:
Enhance the security awareness program.
Increase the frequency of incident reporting.
Purchase cyber insurance from a third party.
Conduct a control assessment.
Answer:
DExplanation:
A control assessment is the process of evaluating the design and effectiveness of controls that are implemented to mitigate risks. A control assessment can help identify the root causes of data loss, the gaps in the existing controls, and the potential solutions to improve the control environment. A control assessment should be conducted after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system, as it can provide valuable information for risk response and reporting. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.2: Control Assessment, p. 147-149.
The BEST criteria when selecting a risk response is the:
Options:
capability to implement the response
importance of IT risk within the enterprise
effectiveness of risk response options
alignment of response to industry standards
Answer:
CExplanation:
The effectiveness of risk response options is the best criteria when selecting a risk response, because it reflects the degree to which the response can reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk, or enhance the benefit or opportunity of the risk. The effectiveness of risk response options can be evaluated by considering factors such as cost, feasibility, timeliness, and alignment with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite. The other options are not as good as the effectiveness of risk response options, because they do not measure the outcome or value of the response, but rather focus on the input or process of the response, as explained below:
A. Capability to implement the response is a criteria that considers the availability and adequacy of the resources, skills, and knowledge required to execute the response. While this is an important factor to consider, it does not indicate how well the response can address the risk or achieve the desired result.
B. Importance of IT risk within the enterprise is a criteria that considers the significance and priority of the risk in relation to the organization’s strategy, objectives, and operations. While this is an important factor to consider, it does not indicate how well the response can address the risk or achieve the desired result.
D. Alignment of response to industry standards is a criteria that considers the compliance and conformity of the response with the best practices, norms, and expectations of the industry or sector. While this is an important factor to consider, it does not indicate how well the response can address the risk or achieve the desired result. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 40. How to Select Your Risk Responses - Rebel’s Guide to Project Management, Risk Response Plan in Project Management: Key Strategies & Tips, Risk Responses - options for managing risk - Stakeholdermap.com
Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?
Options:
Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).
Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).
Interview the risk owner.
Conduct a gap analysis
Answer:
AExplanation:
The best way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization is to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. KRIs can help to monitor the changes in risk levels over time, identify emerging risks, and trigger risk response actions when the risk exceeds the acceptable thresholds2. KRIs can also help to align the risk management strategy with the business objectives and context. The other options are not the best ways to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization, as they do not provide the same level of insight and guidance as KRIs. Monitoring key performance indicators (KPIs) may show the results or outcomes of the business processes, but not the risks or uncertainties that affect them. Interviewing the risk owner may provide some subjective or qualitative information on the risk perception or attitude, but not the objective or quantitative data on the risk exposure or impact. Conducting a gap analysis may show the difference between the current and desired state of the organization, but not the causes or sources of the risk. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide
Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?
Options:
Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management
Review of internal audit and third-party reports
Management review and sign-off on system documentation
First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation
Answer:
DExplanation:
First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation is the best way to confirm the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls because it provides the auditor with the most reliable and persuasive evidence. Direct observation involves inspecting the physical and logical aspects of the controls, such as the hardware, software, network, data, procedures, and personnel involved in the information systems. Direct observation also allows the auditor to verify that the controls are functioning as intended, and to identify any deviations or weaknesses that may affect the reliability of the information systems. Direct observation can be performed by using various techniques, such as walkthroughs, inquiries, inspections, reperformance, and analytical procedures1. References = Auditing Standard No. 13, The Auditor’s Responses to the Risks of Material Misstatement, PCAOB, 20101
Which of the following methods would BEST contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios?
Options:
Brainstorming sessions
Control self-assessments
Vulnerability analysis
Monte Carlo analysis
Answer:
AExplanation:
Brainstorming sessions would best contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios, as they allow participants to generate and share ideas without being constrained by conventional thinking or assumptions. Brainstorming sessions can help to identify risks that are not obvious, not well understood, or not covered by existing controls. Control self-assessments, vulnerability analysis, and Monte Carlo analysis are useful methods for evaluating and quantifying risks, but they are not designed to identify obscure risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 59.
The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:
Options:
implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.
ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.
build a risk profile for management review.
quantify the organization's risk appetite.
Answer:
CExplanation:
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
A risk profile is a summary or representation of the organization’s exposure or level of risk, based on the results of the risk assessment and evaluation. A risk profile can show the distribution and comparison of the risks based on various criteria, such as likelihood, impact, category, source, etc. A risk profile can also indicate the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and the gaps or opportunities for improvement.
The primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to build a risk profile for management review, because it provides the data and information that are necessary and relevant for creating and updating the risk profile, and for communicating and reporting the risk profile to the management. Maintaining an up-to-date risk register can help to build a risk profile for management review by providing the following benefits:
It can ensure that the risk profile reflects the current and accurate state and performance of the organization’s risk management function, and that it covers all the relevant and significant risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations.
It can provide useful references and benchmarks for the identification, analysis, evaluation, and communication of the risks and their responses, and for the alignment and integration of the risks and their responses with the organization’s strategy and culture.
It can support the decision making and planning for the risk management function, and for the allocation and optimization of the resources, time, and budget for the risk management function.
The other options are not the primary benefits of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of building a risk profile for management review, which is to summarize and represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and to communicate and report it to the management.
Implementing uniform controls for common risk scenarios means applying and enforcing the same or similar controls or countermeasures for the risks that have the same or similar characteristics or features, such as source, cause, impact, etc. Implementing uniform controls for common risk scenarios can help to ensure the consistency and efficiency of the risk management function, but it is not the primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because it does not summarize or represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and it may not be relevant or appropriate for the organization’s objectives and needs.
Ensuring business unit risk is uniformly distributed means ensuring that the risks that are associated with the different business units or divisions of the organization are balanced or equalized, and that they do not exceed or fall below the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Ensuring business unit risk is uniformly distributed can help to optimize the performance and profitability of the organization, but it is not the primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because it does not summarize or represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and it may not be feasible or realistic for the organization.
Quantifying the organization’s risk appetite means measuring and expressing the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing and able to accept or take, in pursuit of its objectives and goals. Quantifying the organization’s risk appetite can help to establish and communicate the boundaries and expectations for the organization’s risk management function, but it is not the primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because it does not summarize or represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and it may not be consistent or compatible with the organization’s strategy and culture. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 201
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following would be MOST useful when measuring the progress of a risk response action plan?
Options:
Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios
Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes
Resource expenditure against budget
An up-to-date risk register
Answer:
DExplanation:
A risk response action plan is a document that outlines the specific tasks, resources, timelines, and deliverables for the risk responses, which are the actions or strategies that are taken to address the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation12.
The most useful tool when measuring the progress of a risk response action plan is an up-to-date risk register, which is a document that records and tracks the significant risks that the organization faces, and the responses and actions that are taken to address them34.
An up-to-date risk register is the most useful tool because it provides a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk landscape, and the status and performance of the risk responses and actions34.
An up-to-date risk register is also the most useful tool because it enables the monitoring and evaluation of the risk response action plan, and the identification and communication of any issues or gaps that need to be resolved or improved34.
The other options are not the most useful tools, but rather possible metrics or indicators that may be used to measure the progress of a risk response action plan. For example:
Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios is a metric that measures the proportion of risk scenarios that have been reduced or eliminated by the risk responses and actions56. However, this metric is not the most useful tool because it does not provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk landscape, and it may not capture the residual or emerging risks that may arise after the risk responses and actions56.
Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes is a metric that measures the difference between the expected annual losses before and after the risk responses and actions78. However, this metric is not the most useful tool because it does not provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk landscape, and it may not reflect the qualitative or intangible impacts of the risks or the risk responses and actions78.
Resource expenditure against budget is a metric that measures the amount of resources and funds that have been spent or allocated for the risk responses and actions, compared to the planned or estimated budget . However, this metric is not the most useful tool because it does not provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk landscape, and it may not indicate the effectiveness or efficiency of the risk responses and actions . References =
1: Risk Response Plan in Project Management: Key Strategies & Tips1
2: How to Create the Ultimate Risk Response Plan | Wrike2
3: Risk Register Template and Examples | Prioritize and Manage Risk3
4: Risk Register Examples for Cybersecurity Leaders4
5: Risk Scenarios Toolkit, ISACA, 2019
6: Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, ISACA, 2019
7: Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) - Definition and Examples5
8: Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) Calculator6
: Project Budgeting: How to Estimate Costs and Manage Budgets7
: Project Budget Template - Download Free Excel Template8
Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?
Options:
Delayed removal of employee access
Authorized administrative access to HR files
Corruption of files due to malware
Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), a vulnerability is a flaw or weakness in an asset’s design, implementation, or operation and management that could be exploited by a threat. A delayed removal of employee access is a vulnerability, as it allows former employees to retain access to the organization’s IT assets and processes, which could lead to unauthorized disclosure, modification, or destruction of data or resources. A delayed removal of employee access could be caused by poor personnel management, lack of security awareness, or inadequate access control policies and procedures.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 32-331
Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?
Options:
Maintain and review the classified data inventor.
Implement mandatory encryption on data
Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.
Define and implement a data classification policy
Answer:
DExplanation:
The risk associated with the leakage of confidential data is the possibility and impact of unauthorized disclosure, access, or use of sensitive information that may harm the organization or its stakeholders12.
The first step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data is to define and implement a data classification policy, which is a document that establishes the criteria, categories, roles, and responsibilities for identifying, labeling, and handling different types of data according to their sensitivity, value, and protection needs34.
Defining and implementing a data classification policy is the first step because it provides the foundation and framework for the data protection strategy, and enables the organization to prioritize and allocate the appropriate resources and controls for the most critical and confidential data34.
Defining and implementing a data classification policy is also the first step because it supports the compliance with the relevant laws and regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI-DSS, that require the organization to classify and protect the personal or financial data of its customers or clients34.
The other options are not the first step, but rather possible subsequent steps that may depend on or follow the data classification policy. For example:
Maintaining and reviewing the classified data inventory is a step that involves creating and updating a record of the data assets that have been classified, and verifying their accuracy and completeness over time34. However, this step is not the first step because it requires the data classification policy to provide the guidance and standards for the data inventory process34.
Implementing mandatory encryption on data is a step that involves applying a cryptographic technique that transforms the data into an unreadable format, and requires a key or a password to decrypt and access the data56. However, this step is not the first step because it requires the data classification policy to determine which data needs to be encrypted, and what level of encryption is appropriate56.
Conducting an awareness program for data owners and users is a step that involves educating and training the people who are responsible for or have access to the data, and informing them of their roles, obligations, and best practices for data protection78. However, this step is not the first step because it requires the data classification policy to define the data ownership and user rights, and the data protection policies and procedures78. References =
1: Top Four Damaging Consequences of Data Leakage | ZeroFox1
2: 8 Data Leak Prevention Strategies for 2023 | UpGuard2
3: Data Classification: What It Is, Why You Need It, and How to Do It3
4: Data Classification Policy Template - IT Governance USA4
5: Encryption: What It Is, How It Works, and Why You Need It5
6: Encryption Policy Template - IT Governance USA6
7: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky7
8: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US8
Calculation of the recovery time objective (RTO) is necessary to determine the:
Options:
time required to restore files.
point of synchronization
priority of restoration.
annual loss expectancy (ALE).
Answer:
CExplanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO) is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable time frame for restoring a system or service after a disruption. The RTO is determined by the business impact and requirements of the system or service, as well as the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The calculation of the RTO is necessary to determine the priority of restoration, which means the order and urgency of recovering the systems or services based on their criticality and dependency. The priority of restoration helps to optimize the use of resources and minimize the downtime and losses during a disaster recovery. The other options are not the correct answers, as they are not the main purpose of calculating the RTO. The time required to restore files is a factor that affects the RTO, but it is not the outcome of the RTO calculation. The point of synchronization is the point in time to which the data must be restored to ensure consistency and accuracy. The point of synchronization is related to the recovery point objective (RPO), not the RTO. The annual loss expectancy (ALE) is a measure of the expected loss per year due to a specific risk or threat. The ALE is calculated by multiplying the single loss expectancy (SLE) by the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO). The ALE is not directly related to the RTO, although it may influence the RTO determination. References = Recovery Time Objective (RTO) - What Is It, Examples, Calculation; CRISC Review Manual, pages 197-1981; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 842
An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?
Options:
Perform a cost-benefit analysis.
Conduct a SWOT analysis.
Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.
Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:A cost-benefit analysis evaluates the financial implications of acquiring cyber insurance versus the potential loss exposure. This approach enables informed decision-making by comparing the insurance cost with the potential savings from covered risks.
Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?
Options:
Sensitivity analysis
Level of residual risk
Cost-benefit analysis
Risk appetite
Answer:
BExplanation:
The risk practitioner’s primary focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk should be the level of residual risk, because this indicates the amount and type of risk that remains after applying the controls, and whether it is acceptable or not. Residual risk is the risk that is left over after the risk response actions have been taken, such as implementing or improving controls. Controls are the measures or actions that are designed and performed to reduce the likelihood and/or impact of a risk event, or to exploit the opportunities that a risk event may create. The adequacy of controls to mitigate risk depends on how well they address the root causes or sources of the risk, and how effectively and efficiently they reduce the risk exposure and value. The level of residual risk reflects the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it shows the gap between the inherent risk and the actual risk, and whether it is within the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. The risk practitioner should focus on the level of residual risk when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk, as it helps to evaluate and compare the benefits and costs of the controls, and to decide on the best risk response strategy, such as accepting, avoiding, transferring, or further reducing the risk. The other options are less important or relevant to focus on when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk. Sensitivity analysis is a technique that measures how the risk value changes when one or more input variables are changed, such as the probability, impact, or control effectiveness. Sensitivity analysis can help to identify and prioritize the most influential or critical variables that affect the risk value, and to test the robustness or reliability of the risk assessment. However, sensitivity analysis does not directly indicate the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it does not measure the level of residual risk or the risk acceptance criteria. Cost-benefit analysis is a technique that compares the expected benefits and costs of a control or a risk response action, and determines whether it is worthwhile or not. Cost-benefit analysis can help to justify and optimize the investment or resource allocation for the control or the risk response action, and to ensure that it is aligned with the organization’s objectives and value. However, cost-benefit analysis does not directly indicate the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it does not measure the level of residual risk or the risk acceptance criteria. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite can help to define and communicate the organization’s risk preferences and boundaries, and to guide the risk decision-making and behavior. However, risk appetite does not directly indicate the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it does not measure the level of residual risk or the actual risk performance. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
When an organization's business continuity plan (BCP) states that it cannot afford to lose more than three hours of a critical application's data, the three hours is considered the application’s:
Options:
Maximum tolerable outage (MTO).
Recovery point objective (RPO).
Mean time to restore (MTTR).
Recovery time objective (RTO).
Answer:
BExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) specifies the maximum tolerable period in which data might be lost due to an incident. In this case, the organization is indicating that it cannot afford to lose more than three hours of data, defining its RPO.
Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?
Options:
Vulnerability and threat analysis
Control remediation planning
User acceptance testing (UAT)
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Answer:
DExplanation:
Information systems control deficiencies are the weaknesses or flaws in the design or implementation of the controls that are intended to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and reliability of the information systems and resources. Information systems control deficiencies may reduce the effectiveness or efficiency of the controls, and expose the organization to various risks, such as unauthorized access, data loss, system failure, etc.
Reviewing results from control self-assessment (CSA) is the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because CSA is a process of evaluating and verifying the adequacy and effectiveness of the information systems controls, using the input and feedback from the individuals or groups that are involved or responsible for the information systems activities or functions. CSA can help the organization to identify and document the information systems control deficiencies, and to align them with the organization’s information systems objectives and requirements.
CSA can be performed using various techniques, such as questionnaires, surveys, interviews, workshops, etc. CSA can also be integrated with the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions, and aligned with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the best ways to identify information systems control deficiencies, because they do not provide the same level of detail and insight that CSA provides, and they may not be relevant or actionable for the organization.
Vulnerability and threat analysis is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses or flaws in the organization’s assets, processes, or systems that can be exploited or compromised by the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives or operations. Vulnerability and threat analysis can help the organization to assess and prioritize the risks, and to design and implement appropriate controls or countermeasures to mitigate or prevent the risks, but it is not the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because it does not indicate whether the existing information systems controls are adequate and effective, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Control remediation planning is a process of selecting and implementing the actions or plans to address or correct the information systems control deficiencies that have been identified, analyzed, and evaluated. Control remediation planning involves choosing one of the following types of control responses: mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept. Control remediation planning can help the organization to improve and optimize the information systems controls, and to reduce or eliminate the information systems control deficiencies, but it is not the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because it is a subsequent or follow-up process that depends on the prior identification of the information systems control deficiencies.
User acceptance testing (UAT) is a process of verifying and validating the functionality and usability of the information systems and resources, using the input and feedback from the end users or customers that interact with the information systems and resources. UAT can help the organization to ensure that the information systems and resources meet the user or customer expectations and requirements, and to identify and resolve any issues or defects that may affect the user or customer satisfaction, but it is not the best way to identify information systems control deficiencies, because it does not focus on the information systems controls, and it may not cover all the relevant or significant information systems control deficiencies that may exist or arise. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 186
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following would be a risk practitioners’ BEST recommendation for preventing cyber intrusion?
Options:
Establish a cyber response plan
Implement data loss prevention (DLP) tools.
Implement network segregation.
Strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts.
Answer:
DExplanation:
A cyber intrusion is an unauthorized or malicious access to a computer system or network by an attacker. A cyber intrusion can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or network, as well as the data and services that it hosts. A cyber intrusion can also cause damage, disruption, or theft to the organization or its stakeholders. One of the best ways to prevent cyber intrusion is to strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts, which means to identify and fix the weaknesses or flaws in the system or network that can be exploited by the attackers. Vulnerability remediation efforts can include conducting regular vulnerability assessments, applying security patches and updates, configuring security settings and policies, and implementing security controls and measures. By strengthening vulnerability remediation efforts, the organization can reduce the attack surface and the likelihood of cyber intrusion, as well as enhance the resilience and protection of the system or network. The other options are not the best recommendations for preventing cyber intrusion, although they may be helpful and complementary. Establishing a cyber response plan is a technique to prepare for and respond to a cyber incident, such as a cyber intrusion, by defining the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources that are needed to manage and recover from the incident. However, a cyber response plan is a reactive and contingency measure, while strengthening vulnerability remediation efforts is a proactive and preventive measure. Implementing data loss prevention (DLP) tools is a technology that tries to detect and stop sensitive data breaches, or data leakage incidents, in an organization. DLP tools can help to protect the data from being disclosed to an unauthorized person, whether it is deliberate or accidental. However, DLP tools do not prevent cyber intrusion itself, as they only focus on the data, not the system or network. Implementing network segregation is a method to divide a network into smaller segments or subnetworks, each with its own security policies and controls. Network segregation can help to isolate and contain the impact of a cyber intrusion, as well as to limit the access and movement of the attackers within the network. However, network segregation does not prevent cyber intrusion from occurring, as it does not address the vulnerabilities or flaws in the system or network. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1651; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 902; What Are Security Controls? - F53; Assessing Security Controls: Keystone of the Risk Management … - ISACA4
Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?
Options:
Percentage of changes with a fallback plan
Number of changes implemented
Percentage of successful changes
Average time required to implement a change
Answer:
CExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the percentage of successful changes is the most effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management, as it measures the quality and effectiveness of the change management process and its alignment with the organization’s objectives and requirements. The percentage of successful changes helps to:
Evaluate the extent to which the changes have met the expected outcomes and benefits
Identify and analyze the root causes of any failed or problematic changes and implement corrective actions or improvement measures
Monitor and report the performance and progress of the change management process and its impact on the organization
Enhance the confidence and satisfaction of the stakeholders and customers with the change management process and its results
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Scenarios, pp. 107-1081
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?
Options:
Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.
New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.
The risk environment is subject to change.
The information security budget must be justified.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The primary reason to perform ongoing risk assessments is that the risk environment is subject to change. The risk environment is the external and internal factors that influence the level and nature of the risks that the organization faces1. These factors include economic, political, social, technological, legal, and environmental aspects, as well as the organization’s objectives, strategies, culture, and resources2. The risk environment is dynamic and unpredictable, and may change due to various events, trends, or developments that create new or modify existing risks3. Therefore, it is important to perform ongoing risk assessments to identify, analyze, and evaluate the changes in the risk environment, and to adjust the risk response and management accordingly. Ongoing risk assessments help to ensure that the organization’s risk profile is up to date and reflects the current reality, and that the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance are aligned with the changing risk environment4. The other options are not the primary reason to perform ongoing risk assessments, as they are either less comprehensive or less relevant than the changing risk environment. Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management. This option is a consequence or outcome of performing ongoing risk assessments, not a reason for doing so. Emerging risk is a new or evolving risk that has the potential to affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance5. Ongoing risk assessments can help to identify and monitor emerging risks, and to report them to management for decision making and action. However, this is not the main reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not cover the existing or modified risks that may also change due to the risk environment. New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals. This option is a specific or narrow example of a changing risk environment, not a general or broad reason for performing ongoing risk assessments. System vulnerabilities are weaknesses or flaws in the design, implementation, or operation of information systems that can be exploited by threats to cause harm or loss6. Ongoing risk assessments can help to discover and assess new system vulnerabilities that may emerge due to technological changes, cyberattacks, or human errors. However, this is not the primary reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not encompass the other types or sources of risks that may also change due to the risk environment. The information security budget must be justified. This option is a secondary or incidental benefit of performing ongoing risk assessments, not a primary or essential reason for doing so. The information security budget is the amount of money that the organization allocates for implementing and maintaining information security measures and controls7. Ongoing risk assessments can help to justify the information security budget by demonstrating the value and effectiveness of the security measures and controls in reducing the risks, and by identifying the gaps or needs for additional or improved security measures and controls. However, this is not the main reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not address the purpose or objective of risk assessment, which is to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks and their impact on the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, Page 47.
The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:
Options:
establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.
compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.
alignment of business goals with IT objectives.
Answer:
AExplanation:
An IT risk management framework is a set of principles, processes, and practices that guide and support the identification, analysis, evaluation, treatment, monitoring, and communication of IT-related risks within an organization12.
The primary advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making, which enables the organization to balance the potential benefits and adverse effects of using IT, and to allocate resources and prioritize actions accordingly12.
A reliable basis for risk-aware decision making consists of the following elements12:
A common language and understanding of IT risk, its sources, impacts, and responses
A consistent and structured approach to IT risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment
A clear and transparent governance structure and accountability for IT risk management
A comprehensive and up-to-date IT risk register and profile that reflects the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
A regular and effective IT risk monitoring and reporting process that provides relevant and timely information to stakeholders
A continuous and proactive IT risk improvement process that incorporates feedback and lessons learned
The other options are not the primary advantage, but rather possible outcomes or benefits of implementing an IT risk management framework. For example:
Compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements is an outcome of implementing an IT risk management framework that ensures the organization meets its obligations and avoids penalties or sanctions12.
Improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses is a benefit of implementing an IT risk management framework that reduces the likelihood and impact of IT-related incidents and events12.
Alignment of business goals with IT objectives is a benefit of implementing an IT risk management framework that ensures the IT strategy and activities support the organization’s mission and vision12. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?
Options:
Risk assessment
Risk reporting
Risk mitigation
Risk identification
Answer:
DExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:SWOT analysis (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) is used in the risk identification phase to comprehensively analyze the organization's internal and external environments. By understanding strengths and weaknesses, internal risks can be identified, while opportunities and threats help to identify external risks. This method provides a foundation for proactive risk management.
Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?
Options:
Complexity of the IT infrastructure
Value of information assets
Management culture
Threats and vulnerabilities
Answer:
BExplanation:
When determining an appropriate risk assessment approach, the most important factor to understand is the value of information assets. This is because the value of information assets determines the potential impact of risks and the level of protection required. The value of information assets can be assessed based on their confidentiality, integrity, availability, and relevance to the business objectives and processes. A risk assessment approach should be aligned with the value of information assets and the risk appetite of the organization. The other options are not the most important factors to understand when determining a risk assessment approach, although they may influence the choice of methods and tools. The complexity of the IT infrastructure may affect the scope and depth of the risk assessment, but it does not indicate the level of risk or the priority of risk management. The management culture may affect the risk tolerance and the risk communication, but it does not reflect the value of information assets or the risk exposure. The threats and vulnerabilities may affect the likelihood and severity of risks, but they do not measure the value of information assets or the risk acceptance. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 582
Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?
Options:
To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors
To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk
To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance
To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions
Answer:
CExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the main reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk is to ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization’s risk appetite and risk tolerance. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, while the risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in outcomes related to specific performance measures linked to objectives. Continuous monitoring is a process that tracks the security state of an information system on an ongoing basis and maintains the security authorization for the system over time. Continuous monitoring helps to:
Provide ongoing assurance that the implemented security controls are operating effectively and efficiently
Detect changes in the risk profile of the information system and the environment of operation
Identify new or emerging threats and vulnerabilities that may affect the information system
Support risk-based decisions by providing timely and relevant risk information to stakeholders
Facilitate the implementation of corrective actions and risk mitigation strategies
Promote accountability and transparency in the risk management process
Enhance the security awareness and culture within the organization
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 213-2141
Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?
Options:
Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
Inherent risk
Risk likelihood and impact
Risk velocity
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds are the most likely elements of a risk register to change as a result of change in management’s risk appetite, as they reflect the acceptable levels of risk exposure for the organization. KRI thresholds are the values or ranges that trigger an alert or a response when the actual KRI values deviate from the expected or desired values. KRI thresholds help to:
Monitor and measure the current risk levels and performance of the IT assets and processes
Identify and report any risk issues or incidents that may require attention or action
Evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response actions and controls
Align the risk management activities and decisions with the organization’s risk appetite and risk tolerance
If the management’s risk appetite changes, the KRI thresholds may need to be adjusted accordingly to ensure that the risk register reflects the current risk preferences and expectations of the organization.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 217-2181
Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?
Options:
The risk manager's expertise
Regulatory requirements
Board of directors' expertise
The organization's culture
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the organization’s culture is the most important factor affecting risk management in an organization, as it influences the risk awareness, risk attitude, risk behavior and risk communication of all stakeholders. The organization’s culture is defined as the shared values, beliefs, norms and expectations that guide the actions and interactions of the members of the organization. The organization’s culture affects how risk management is perceived, supported, implemented and integrated within the organization. A strong risk culture is one that:
Aligns with the organization’s vision, mission, strategy and objectives
Promotes a common understanding of risk and its implications for the organization
Encourages the identification, assessment, response and monitoring of risks at all levels
Fosters a proactive, collaborative and transparent approach to risk management
Empowers and rewards the stakeholders for taking ownership and accountability of risks
Enables continuous learning and improvement of risk management capabilities and maturity
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Culture, pp. 23-251
Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's change management process?
Options:
Increase in the frequency of changes
Percent of unauthorized changes
Increase in the number of emergency changes
Average time to complete changes
Answer:
BExplanation:
A change management process is a set of procedures and activities that aim to ensure that changes in an organization’s IT systems and services are implemented in a controlled and coordinated manner. The effectiveness of a change management process can be measured by how well it reduces the risks and costs associated with changes, and how well it supports the business objectives and customer expectations. One of the best metrics to demonstrate the effectiveness of a change management process is the percent of unauthorized changes. Unauthorized changes are changes that are made without following the established change management process, such as obtaining approval, documenting the change, testing the change, and communicating the change. Unauthorized changes can introduce errors, defects, security breaches, and disruptions to the IT systems and services, and can negatively affect the business performance and customer satisfaction. Therefore, a low percent of unauthorized changes indicates that the change management process is effective in ensuring that changes are properly planned, approved, executed, and monitored. The other options are not the best metrics to demonstrate the effectiveness of a change management process, as they do not directly reflect the quality and control of the changes. An increase in the frequency of changes may indicate that the organization is agile and responsive to the changing business needs and customer demands, but it does not necessarily mean that the changes are well-managed and beneficial. An increase in the number of emergency changes may indicate that the organization is able to handle urgent and critical situations, but it may also suggest that the organization is reactive and lacks proper planning and analysis of the changes. The average time to complete changes may indicate the efficiency and speed of the change management process, but it does not measure the effectiveness and value of the changes. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 156-1571; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 712
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?
Options:
Benchmark of industry standards
Internal and external risk reports
Recommendations from IT risk experts
Outcome of control self-assessments
Answer:
BExplanation:
The primary input when designing IT controls should be internal and external risk reports. IT controls are specific activities performed by persons or systems to ensure that business objectives are met, and that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and the overall management of the IT function are ensured1. Designing IT controls means creating and implementing the appropriate measures or actions to reduce the likelihood or impact of the IT risks that may affect the organization2. Internal and external risk reports are documents that provide information and analysis on the current and potential IT risks that the organization faces, as well as their sources, drivers, consequences, and responses3. Internal risk reports are generated by the organization itself, such as by the IT risk management function, the internal audit function, or the business units. External risk reports are obtained from external sources, such as regulators, industry associations, or third-party service providers. Internal and external risk reports are the primary input when designing IT controls, because they help to:
Identify and prioritize the IT risks that need to be addressed by the IT controls;
Evaluate the likelihood and impact of the IT risks, and compare them against the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance;
Determine the most suitable and effective IT control objectives and activities to mitigate the IT risks;
Align the IT control design and implementation with the organization’s objectives, strategies, and values;
Monitor and measure the performance and effectiveness of the IT controls in reducing the IT risks. The other options are not the primary input when designing IT controls, as they are either less relevant or less specific than internal and external risk reports. Benchmark of industry standards is a comparison of the organization’s IT control practices and performance with those of other organizations in the same industry or sector4. Benchmark of industry standards can help to improve the quality and consistency of the IT control design and implementation, as well as to identify the best practices and gaps. However, benchmark of industry standards is not the primary input when designing IT controls, as it does not address the specific IT risks that the organization faces, or the IT control objectives and activities that are appropriate and effective for the organization. Recommendations from IT risk experts are the suggestions or advice from the professionals or specialists who have the knowledge and experience in IT risk management and IT control design and implementation5. Recommendations from IT risk experts can help to enhance the IT control design and implementation, as well as to provide guidance and support to the organization. However, recommendations from IT risk experts are not the primary input when designing IT controls, as they are based on the opinions and perceptions of the experts, and may not reflect the actual or objective level and nature of the IT risks, or the IT control objectives and activities that are suitable and efficient for the organization. Outcome of control self-assessments is the result or conclusion of the evaluation and testing of the design and operation of the existing IT controls by the organization itself, such as by the IT control owners, the IT risk management function, or the business units6. Outcome of control self-assessments can help to improve the IT control design and implementation, as well as to detect and correct any issues or deficiencies. However, outcome of control self-assessments is not the primary input when designing IT controls, as it does not cover the new or emerging IT risks that the organization may face, or the IT control objectives and activities that are relevant and necessary for the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 189.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?
Options:
Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.
Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.
Risk appetite cascades to business unit management
The organization-wide control budget is expanded.
Answer:
BExplanation:
IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the sources, causes, and consequences of IT-related risks, and the potential impacts on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation12.
A corporate risk register is a document that records and tracks the significant risks that the organization faces, and the responses and actions that are taken to address them34.
The greatest benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register is that exposure is integrated into the organization’s risk profile, which is a comprehensive and integrated representation of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation56.
Exposure is integrated into the organization’s risk profile means that the organization has a complete and consistent view of the IT risk landscape, and the potential impacts and interdependencies of IT risks on other types of risks, such as financial, operational, strategic, or reputational risks56.
Exposure is integrated into the organization’s risk profile also means that the organization can make informed and balanced decisions on the risk responses and actions, and allocate the appropriate resources and priorities to the IT risk management and control processes56.
The other options are not the greatest benefit, but rather possible outcomes or consequences of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register. For example:
Corporate incident escalation protocols are established is an outcome of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register that indicates the organization has defined and implemented the procedures and mechanisms for reporting and resolving IT-related incidents, and for escalating them to the appropriate authorities or levels when necessary78. However, this outcome does not measure or reflect the exposure or the risk profile of the organization, which may depend on other factors such as the frequency, severity, or complexity of the incidents78.
Risk appetite cascades to business unit management is a consequence of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register that indicates the organization has communicated and aligned the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue, to the business unit management, who are responsible for executing the risk strategy and objectives at the operational level . However, this consequence does not indicate or imply the exposure or the risk profile of the organization, which may vary depending on the context, environment, or stakeholder expectations .
The organization-wide control budget is expanded is an outcome of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register that indicates the organization has increased the amount of resources and funds that are allocated to the control processes, which are the procedures and activities that aim to ensure the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s operations, the reliability of its information, and the compliance with its policies and regulations . However, this outcome does not affect or determine the exposure or the risk profile of the organization, which is independent of the control budget . References =
1: IT Risk Scenarios - Morland-Austin3
2: Risk Scenarios Toolkit, ISACA, 2019
3: Risk Register Template and Examples | Prioritize and Manage Risk1
4: Risk Register Examples for Cybersecurity Leaders4
5: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
6: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
7: Security Incident Reporting and Response, University of Toronto, 2017
8: Security Incident Reporting and Response, ISACA, 2019
: Risk Appetite: Linking Strategy, Risk and Performance, ISACA, 2012
: Risk Appetite and Tolerance, ISACA Journal, Volume 4, 2013
: The Control Process | Principles of Management2
: Control Management: What it is + Why It’s Essential | Adobe Workfront5
An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?
Options:
Perform a risk assessment
Disable user access.
Develop an access control policy.
Perform root cause analysis.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The risk of terminated employee accounts maintaining access is that the former employees or unauthorized parties may use the accounts to access or manipulate the organization’s information systems or resources, and cause harm or damage to the organization and its stakeholders, such as data loss, data breach, system failure, fraud, etc.
The first step to address the risk of terminated employee accounts maintaining access is to disable user access, which means to revoke or remove the permissions or privileges that allow the accounts to access or use the organization’s information systems or resources. Disabling user access can help the organization to address the risk by providing the following benefits:
It can prevent or stop the former employees or unauthorized parties from accessing or using the organization’s information systems or resources, and reduce or eliminate the potential harm or damage that they may cause for the organization and its stakeholders.
It can ensure the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and reliability of the organization’s information systems or resources, and protect them from unauthorized access or manipulation.
It can provide useful evidence and records for the verification and validation of the organization’s access control function, and for the compliance with the organization’s access control policies and standards.
The other options are not the first steps to address the risk of terminated employee accounts maintaining access, because they do not provide the same level of urgency and effectiveness that disabling user access provides, and they may not be sufficient or appropriate to address the risk.
Performing a risk assessment is a process of measuring and comparing the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their significance and urgency. Performing a risk assessment can help the organization to understand and document the risk of terminated employee accounts maintaining access, but it is not the first step to address the risk, because it does not prevent or stop the former employees or unauthorized parties from accessing or using the organization’s information systems or resources, and it may not be timely or feasible to perform a risk assessment before disabling user access.
Developing an access control policy is a process of defining and describing the rules or guidelines that specify the expectations and requirements for the organization’s access control function, such as who can access what, when, how, and why. Developing an access control policy can help the organization to establish and communicate the boundaries and objectives for the organization’s access control function, but it is not the first step to address the risk, because it does not prevent or stop the former employees or unauthorized parties from accessing or using the organization’s information systems or resources, and it may not be relevant or applicable to the existing or emerging risk scenarios that may affect the organization’s access control function.
Performing a root cause analysis is a process of identifying and understanding the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in a problem or incident that has occurred or may occur in the organization. Performing a root cause analysis can help the organization to address and correct the risk of terminated employee accounts maintaining access, and prevent or reduce its recurrence or impact, but it is not the first step to address the risk, because it does not prevent or stop the former employees or unauthorized parties from accessing or using the organization’s information systems or resources, and it may not be timely or feasible to perform a root cause analysis before disabling user access. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 207
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is MOST helpful when determining whether a system security control is effective?
Options:
Control standard operating procedures
Latest security assessment
Current security threat report
Updated risk register
Answer:
BExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:The latest security assessment provides a detailed evaluation of the control’s performance and identifies gaps or weaknesses. This is critical for determining the effectiveness of a system security control in mitigating threats.
Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?
Options:
Implementing record retention tools and techniques
Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)
Sending notifications when near storage quota
Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control documents, implementing record retention tools and techniques is the best solution in this scenario. Record retention involves managing the lifecycle of records, including their creation, usage, storage, and disposal. By implementing record retention policies, organizations can define how long emails and other data should be retained before being deleted. This helps in efficiently managing storage space and reducing unnecessary storage costs.
Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP) (Option B) focuses more on legal and compliance aspects and may not directly address the issue of reducing storage costs. Sending notifications when near storage quota (Option C) is a reactive approach and may not prevent the exponential increase in storage costs. Implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) policy (Option D) is unrelated to the issue of email storage costs.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?
Options:
User provisioning
Role-based access controls
Security log monitoring
Entitlement reviews
Answer:
DExplanation:
An organization’s account provisioning process is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights for the organization’s information systems and resources. It involves defining the access requirements, policies, and standards, and implementing and enforcing them across the organization.
The best evidence of the effectiveness of an organization’s account provisioning process is entitlement reviews, which are the periodic or regular reviews and validations of the user accounts and access rights that are granted or assigned to the users or entities that interact with the organization’s information systems and resources. Entitlement reviews can provide assurance and verification that the account provisioning process is accurate, consistent, and compliant, and that it meets the organization’s security and business objectives and requirements.
Entitlement reviews can be performed using various techniques, such as automated tools, reports, audits, surveys, etc. Entitlement reviews can also be integrated with the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions, and aligned with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the best evidence of the effectiveness of an organization’s account provisioning process, because they do not provide the same level of assurance and verification that the account provisioning process is accurate, consistent, and compliant, and that it meets the organization’s security and business objectives and requirements.
User provisioning is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights for a specific user or entity, based on their identity, role, or function in the organization. User provisioning is an important part of the account provisioning process, but it is not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because it does not indicate whether the user accounts and access rights are appropriate and authorized, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Role-based access controls are the controls that grant or restrict user accounts and access rights based on the predefined roles or functions that the users or entities perform or assume in the organization. Role-based access controls are an important part of the account provisioning process, but they are not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because they do not indicate whether the roles or functions are defined and assigned correctly and consistently, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Security log monitoring is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the security events or activities that are recorded or logged by the organization’s information systems and resources. Security log monitoring is an important part of the account provisioning process, but it is not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because it does not indicate whether the security events or activities are legitimate or authorized, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 173
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i< the MOST important topic to cover in this training?
Options:
Applying risk appetite
Applying risk factors
Referencing risk event data
Understanding risk culture
Answer:
AExplanation:
Applying risk appetite is the most important topic to cover in a training session to communicate risk assessment methodologies. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. It is a key element of the risk management framework and influences the risk assessment process. Applying risk appetite helps to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization by providing a common basis for evaluating and prioritizing risks, aligning risk responses with business goals, and communicating risk information to stakeholders. The other options are not the most important topics to cover in a training session to communicate risk assessment methodologies, although they may be relevant and useful. Applying risk factors is a technique to quantify or qualify the likelihood and impact of risks based on predefined criteria or scales. Referencing risk event data is a source of information to identify and analyze risks based on historical or current incidents. Understanding risk culture is a factor that affects the risk behavior and attitude of the organization and its people. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 40-411; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 612
Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Options:
Directives from legal and regulatory authorities
Audit reports from internal information systems audits
Automated logs collected from different systems
Trend analysis of external risk factors
Answer:
CExplanation:
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that help organizations monitor and evaluate the level of risk they are exposed to. They provide early warning signals of potential issues that could affect the achievement of organizational goals12.
The most important data source for monitoring KRIs is automated logs collected from different systems, which are records that capture and store the details and history of the transactions or activities that are performed by the organization’s processes, systems, or controls34.
Automated logs collected from different systems are the most important data source because they provide timely and accurate data and information on the performance and status of the organization’s operations, and enable the detection and reporting of any deviations, anomalies, or issues that may indicate a risk event34.
Automated logs collected from different systems are also the most important data source because they support the accountability and auditability of the organization’s operations, and facilitate the investigation and resolution of any risk event34.
The other options are not the most important data sources, but rather possible inputs or factors that may influence or affect the KRIs. For example:
Directives from legal and regulatory authorities are documents that provide the expectations and obligations of the external authorities or bodies that govern or oversee the organization’s activities and operations, such as laws, regulations, standards, or contracts5 . However, these documents are not the most important data source because they do not directly measure or monitor the level of risk exposure, but rather provide the criteria or framework for risk compliance5 .
Audit reports from internal information systems audits are documents that provide the findings and recommendations of the independent and objective assessment of the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization’s information systems, processes, and controls . However, these documents are not the most important data source because they do not directly measure or monitor the level of risk exposure, but rather provide the assurance or improvement for risk management .
Trend analysis of external risk factors is a technique that involves analyzing and forecasting the changes and impacts of the external factors that influence the organization’s operations, such as technology, competition, regulation, or customer behavior . However, this technique is not the most important data source because it does not directly measure or monitor the level of risk exposure, but rather provide the insight or prediction for risk identification . References =
1: Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture1
2: Key risk indicator - Wikipedia2
3: Database Activity Monitoring - Wikipedia3
4: Database Activity Monitoring (DAM) | Imperva4
5: Regulatory Compliance - Wikipedia5
: Regulatory Compliance Management Software | MetricStream
: IT Audit and Assurance Standards, ISACA, 2014
: IT Audit and Assurance Guidelines, ISACA, 2014
: Trend Analysis - Investopedia
: Trend Analysis: A Definition and Examples
A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?
Options:
An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
An increase in attempted website phishing attacks
A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)
A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities
Answer:
AExplanation:
A web-based service provider is an organization that offers online services or applications to its customers or users, such as e-commerce, social media, cloud computing, etc. A web-based service provider depends on the availability, reliability, and security of its web servers, networks, and systems to deliver its services or applications.
A low risk appetite for system outages means that the organization is not willing to accept a high level or frequency of system outages, which are interruptions or disruptions in the normal operation or functionality of the web servers, networks, or systems. System outages can cause customer dissatisfaction, revenue loss, reputation damage, or legal liability for the web-based service provider.
A current risk profile for online security is the current state or condition of the online security risks that may affect the web-based service provider’s objectives and operations. It includes the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the online security risks, and the prioritization and response to them based on their significance and urgency.
The most relevant observation to escalate to senior management is an increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, which are malicious attacks that aim to overwhelm or overload the web servers, networks, or systems with a large volume or frequency of requests or traffic, and prevent them from responding to legitimate requests or traffic. An increase in attempted DDoS attacks indicates a high likelihood and impact of system outages, and a high level of threat or vulnerability for the web-based service provider’s online security. Escalating this observation to senior management can help them to understand the severity and urgency of the risk, and to decide on the appropriate risk response and allocation of resources.
The other options are not the most relevant observations to escalate to senior management, because they do not indicate a high likelihood or impact of system outages, and they may not be relevant or actionable for senior management.
An increase in attempted website phishing attacks means an increase in malicious attempts to deceive or trick the web-based service provider’s customers or users into providing their personal or financial information, such as usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, etc., by impersonating the web-based service provider’s website or email. An increase in attempted website phishing attacks indicates a high level of threat or vulnerability for the web-based service provider’s online security, but it may not directly cause system outages, unless the phishing attacks are used to compromise the web servers, networks, or systems. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider’s risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management’s involvement or approval.
A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs) means a decrease in the extent or degree to which the web-based service provider meets or exceeds the agreed or expected standards or criteria for the quality, performance, or availability of its services or applications, as specified in the contracts or agreements with its customers or users. A decrease in achievement of SLAs indicates a low level of customer satisfaction, retention, or loyalty, and a low level of competitiveness or profitability for the web-based service provider. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider’s risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management’s involvement or approval.
A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities means a decrease in the number or percentage of web security vulnerabilities that have been identified and resolved or mitigated by the web-based service provider. Web security vulnerabilities are weaknesses or flaws in the web servers, networks, or systems that can be exploited by malicious attackers to compromise or damage the web-based service provider’s online security. A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities indicates a low level of effectiveness or efficiency for the web-based service provider’s web security controls or processes. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider’s risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management’s involvement or approval. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 161
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?
Options:
Business impact analysis
Threat analysis
Risk response analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), threat analysis would be the most helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events, as it involves identifying and evaluating the sources and causes of potential harm or loss to the IT assets and processes. Threat analysis helps to:
Determine the frequency and probability of occurrence of different types of threats, such as natural disasters, human errors, malicious attacks, system failures, etc.
Assess the impact and severity of the threats on the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the IT assets and processes
Prioritize the threats based on their likelihood and impact
Develop appropriate risk response strategies to prevent, mitigate, transfer or accept the threats
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 35-361
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?
Options:
Developing contingency plans for key processes
Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)
Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register
Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)
Answer:
DExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) are metrics used to monitor changes in risk exposure, enabling proactive adjustments to keep risks within appetite. They provide early warnings of potential breaches in risk thresholds.
Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?
Options:
Preventive
Deterrent
Compensating
Detective
Answer:
DExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:Real-time monitoring is a detective control, as it is designed to identify and report suspicious or unauthorized activities as they occur. Detective controls provide feedback to mitigate ongoing risks and serve as an integral part of incident response plans.
A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:
Options:
ownership of responsibilities.
a business recovery plan.
provision for source code escrow.
the providers financial statements.
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), a contract associated with a cloud service provider must include ownership of responsibilities, as this defines the roles and obligations of both the cloud provider and the customer in relation to the cloud services. The contract should specify who is responsible for:
Service delivery and performance
Data security and privacy
Compliance with regulations and standards
Incident management and reporting
Business continuity and disaster recovery
Change management and configuration control
Intellectual property rights and licensing
Termination and data egress
The contract should also include service level agreements (SLAs) that measure and monitor the quality and availability of the cloud services, as well as remedies and penalties for non-compliance. The contract should also address pricing and payment terms, dispute resolution mechanisms, and liability and indemnification clauses.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 173-1741
Which of the following situations reflects residual risk?
Options:
Risk that is present before risk acceptance has been finalized
Risk that is removed after a risk acceptance has been finalized
Risk that is present before mitigation controls have been applied
Risk that remains after mitigation controls have been applied
Answer:
DExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:Residual risk refers to the risk that remains after mitigation measures have been applied. It represents the exposure that an organization decides to accept, transfer, or further address, aligning with its risk appetite and tolerance.
From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?
Options:
The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster
Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.
All business-critical systems are successfully tested.
All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).
Answer:
DExplanation:
A disaster recovery test is a simulation of a disaster scenario that evaluates the effectiveness and readiness of the disaster recovery plan. The main purpose of a disaster recovery test is to ensure that the organization can resume its normal operations as quickly as possible after a disaster, with minimal or no data loss. Therefore, the most important objective of a disaster recovery test from a business perspective is to verify that all critical data can be recovered within the RTOs, which are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring the data and systems after a disaster. If the RTOs are not met, the organization may face significant financial, operational, and reputational losses. The other options are not the most important objectives of a disaster recovery test, although they may be beneficial outcomes. Gaining assurance that the organization can recover from a disaster is a subjective and qualitative goal, while recovering data within RTOs is a measurable and quantitative goal. Discovering errors in the disaster recovery process is a valuable result of a disaster recovery test, but it is not the primary objective. The objective is to correct the errors and improve the process, not just to find them. Testing all business critical systems is a necessary step in a disaster recovery test, but it is not the ultimate goal. The goal is to ensure that the systems can be restored and function properly within the RTOs. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 197-1981; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 572
IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would
be MOST helpful?
Options:
IT risk register
List of key risk indicators
Internal audit reports
List of approved projects
Answer:
AExplanation:
A consolidated view into the organization’s risk profile is a comprehensive and integrated representation of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation12.
The most helpful material to provide a consolidated view into the organization’s risk profile is the IT risk register, which is a document that records and tracks the IT-related risks, their sources, impacts, likelihoods, responses, owners, and statuses within the organization34.
The IT risk register is the most helpful material because it provides a complete and consistent overview of the IT risk landscape, and enables the identification, analysis, evaluation, treatment, monitoring, and communication of IT risks across the organization34.
The IT risk register is also the most helpful material because it supports the project prioritization and resource allocation decisions, by highlighting the most significant and relevant IT risks, and by showing the alignment of the IT risk responses with the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, and objectives34.
The other options are not the most helpful materials, but rather possible inputs or outputs of the IT risk register. For example:
A list of key risk indicators (KRIs) is a set of metrics that measure the occurrence or status of IT risks, and provide timely and relevant information and feedback to the organization56. However, a list of KRIs is not the most helpful material because it does not provide a comprehensive and integrated view of the IT risk profile, but rather a snapshot or a trend of selected IT risks56.
Internal audit reports are documents that present the findings and recommendations of the internal audit function, which evaluates the adequacy and effectiveness of the IT risk management and control processes within the organization78. However, internal audit reports are not the most helpful material because they do not provide a comprehensive and integrated view of the IT risk profile, but rather a periodic and independent assessment of specific IT risk areas78.
A list of approved projects is a document that records and tracks the IT projects that have been authorized and funded by the organization, and their objectives, scope, schedule, budget, and status . However, a list of approved projects is not the most helpful material because it does not provide a comprehensive and integrated view of the IT risk profile, but rather a summary of the IT project portfolio . References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: IT Risk Register Template, ISACA, 2019
4: IT Risk Register Toolkit, ISACA, 2019
5: KPIs for Security Operations & Incident Response, SecurityScorecard Blog, June 7, 2021
6: Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Security Operations and Incident Response, DFLabs White Paper, 2018
7: IT Audit and Assurance Standards, ISACA, 2014
8: IT Audit and Assurance Guidelines, ISACA, 2014
: IT Project Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
: IT Project Management Best Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 1, 2018
Which of the following BEST describes the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions?
Options:
It compares performance levels of IT assets to value delivered.
It facilitates the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives.
It provides input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects.
It helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure
Answer:
DExplanation:
An IT risk profile is a document that summarizes the IT-related risks that an organization faces, as well as the information and actions related to those risks, such as the risk description, assessment, response, status, and owner. An IT risk profile is a valuable tool for managing and communicating IT risks and their impact on the organization’s objectives and operations. The best description of the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions is that it helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure. This means that the IT risk profile can help to evaluate the potential consequences and implications of different IT choices or actions on the level and nature of the IT risks that the organization faces. The IT risk profile can also help to identify and address the gaps or opportunities for improvement in the IT risk management process and performance. The other options are not the best descriptions of the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions, although they may be related or beneficial. Comparing performance levels of IT assets to value delivered is a technique to measure and optimize the efficiency and effectiveness of the IT resources and activities that support the organization’s goals and needs. However, this technique does not necessarily involve the IT risk profile, as it focuses on the output and outcome of the IT assets, not the input and impact of the IT risks. Facilitating the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives is a technique to ensure that the IT strategy and plans are consistent and compatible with the organization’s vision, mission, strategy, and objectives. However, this technique does not depend on the IT risk profile, as it focuses on the direction and purpose of the IT objectives, not the probability and threat of the IT risks. Providing input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects is a technique to support and justify the initiation and implementation of new IT initiatives that can create value or solve problems for the organization. However, this technique does not require the IT risk profile, as it focuses on the cost and benefit of the IT projects, not the risk and response of the IT risks. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 962; IT Risk Management Guide for 2022 | CIO Insight3; IT Risk Management Process, Frameworks & Templates4
Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?
Options:
Control chart
Sensitivity analysis
Trend analysis
Decision tree
Answer:
DExplanation:
A decision tree is a technique that can be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated. A decision tree is a graphical tool that shows the possible outcomes and consequences of different choices or actions in a sequential and hierarchical manner. A decision tree can help to compare and contrast the alternatives based on their expected values, costs, benefits, and risks, as well as to identify the optimal or preferred alternative that maximizes the value or minimizes the risk. A decision tree can also help to communicate and explain the rationale and assumptions behind the decision-making process to the stakeholders. The other options are not the best techniques to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated, although they may be useful and complementary. A control chart is a technique that monitors the performance and quality of a process or activity over time by plotting the data points and the control limits. A control chart can help to detect and analyze the variations or deviations from the expected or desired results, as well as to identify and correct the causes or sources of the variations. A sensitivity analysis is a technique that measures the impact of changes in one or more variables or parameters on the outcome or result of a model or a system. A sensitivity analysis can help to assess the uncertainty or variability of the outcome or result, as well as to determine the most influential or critical variables or parameters that affect the outcome or result. A trend analysis is a technique that examines the patterns or movements of data or information over time by using statistical or graphical methods. A trend analysis can help to forecast or predict the future behavior or direction of the data or information, as well as to identify and explain the factors or drivers that influence the data or information. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 922; Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative - ISACA3; Risk Assessment: Process, Examples, & Tools | SafetyCulture4
An application owner has specified the acceptable downtime in the event of an incident to be much lower than the actual time required for the response team to recover the application. Which of the following should be the NEXT course of action?
Options:
Invoke the disaster recovery plan during an incident.
Prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available
Implement redundant infrastructure for the application.
Reduce the recovery time by strengthening the response team.
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the next course of action when there is a gap between the acceptable downtime and the actual recovery time of an application is to prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available to reduce the gap. The cost-benefit analysis should compare the costs of implementing different risk response options, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer or acceptance, with the benefits of reducing the impact and likelihood of the risk. The cost-benefit analysis should also consider the alignment of the risk response options with the enterprise’s risk appetite, business objectives and strategy. The cost-benefit analysis should help the application owner and the risk owner to select the most appropriate risk response option that optimizes the value of the application and minimizes the residual risk.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: Risk Response Process, pp. 162-1631
The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:
Options:
risk assessment methodology.
risk appetite.
capabilities
asset value.
Answer:
BExplanation:
An organization’s policies are the set of rules and guidelines that define the organization’s objectives, expectations, and responsibilities for its activities and operations. They provide the direction and framework for the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions.
The most important characteristic of an organization’s policies is to reflect the organization’s risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its goals. The risk appetite is usually expressed as a range or a threshold, and it is aligned with the organization’s strategy and culture.
Reflecting the organization’s risk appetite in its policies ensures that the policies are consistent, appropriate, and proportional to the level and nature of the risks that the organization faces, and that they support the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to optimize the balance between risk and return, and to create and protect value for the organization and its stakeholders.
The other options are not the most important characteristic of an organization’s policies, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the policies are suitable and acceptable for the organization.
The risk assessment methodology is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. It involves determining the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their significance and urgency. The risk assessment methodology is important to inform and support the organization’s policies, but it is not the most important characteristic of the policies, because it does not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The capabilities are the resources and abilities that the organization has or can acquire to achieve its objectives and manage its risks. They include the people, processes, technologies, and assets that the organization uses or relies on. The capabilities are important to enable and implement the organization’s policies, but they are not the most important characteristic of the policies, because they do not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The asset value is the worth or importance of the assets that the organization owns or controls, and that may be affected by the risks that the organization faces. The assets include the tangible and intangible resources that the organization uses or relies on, such as data, information, systems, infrastructure, reputation, etc. The asset value is important to measure and monitor the organization’s policies, but it is not the most important characteristic of the policies, because it does not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 29-30, 34-35, 38-39, 44-45, 50-51, 54-55
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 148
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?
Options:
A robust risk aggregation tool set
Clearly defined roles and responsibilities
A well-established risk management committee
Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization is clearly defined roles and responsibilities. The three lines of defense model is a framework that outlines the roles and responsibilities of different functions or groups within the organization in relation to risk management and internal control1. The three lines of defense are:
The first line of defense, which consists of the operational management and staff who own and manage the risks associated with their activities and processes. They are responsible for identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks, as well as designing, implementing, and operating the controls.
The second line of defense, which consists of the specialized functions or units that provide oversight, guidance, and support to the first line of defense in managing the risks and controls. They are responsible for developing and maintaining the risk management framework, policies, and standards, as well as monitoring and reporting on the risk and control performance.
The third line of defense, which consists of the internal audit function that provides independent and objective assurance on the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management and internal control system. They are responsible for evaluating and testing the design and operation of the risks and controls, as well as reporting and recommending improvements to the senior management and the board. Clearly defined roles and responsibilities are essential for ensuring that the three lines of defense model works effectively and efficiently. They help to avoid confusion, duplication, or gaps in the risk management and internal control activities, as well as to ensure accountability, coordination, and communication among the different functions or groups. They also help to establish the appropriate level of independence, authority, and competence for each line of defense, as well as to align the risk management and internal control objectives and strategies with the organization’s goals and values2. The other options are not the most important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization, as they are either less relevant or less specific than clearly defined roles and responsibilities. A robust risk aggregation tool set is a set of methods or techniques that enable the organization to collect, consolidate, and analyze the risk data and information from different sources, levels, or perspectives. A robust risk aggregation tool set can help to enhance the risk identification, assessment, and reporting processes, as well as to support the risk decision making and prioritization. However, a robust risk aggregation tool set is not the most important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization, as it does not address the roles and responsibilities of the different functions or groups in relation to risk management and internal control. A well-established risk management committee is a group of senior executives or managers who are responsible for overseeing and directing the risk management activities and performance of the organization. A well-established risk management committee can help to ensure the alignment and integration of the risk management objectives and strategies with the organization’s goals and values, as well as to provide guidance and support to the different functions or groups involved in risk management and internal control. However, a well-established risk management committee is not the most important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization, as it does not cover the roles and responsibilities of the operational management and staff, the specialized functions or units, or the internal audit function. Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures are the steps or actions that are taken to report and resolve any issues or incidents that may affect the risk management and internal control activities or performance of the organization. Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures can help to ensure the timely and appropriate response and resolution of the issues or incidents, as well as to inform and involve the relevant stakeholders and authorities. However, well-documented and communicated escalation procedures are not the most important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization, as they do not define the roles and responsibilities of the different functions or groups in relation to risk management and internal control. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, Page 85.
Malware has recently affected an organization. The MOST effective way to resolve this situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform:
Options:
a gap analysis
a root cause analysis.
an impact assessment.
a vulnerability assessment.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most effective way to resolve the situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform a root cause analysis. A root cause analysis is a method of identifying and addressing the underlying factors or causes that led to the occurrence of a problem or incident1. In this case, the problem or incident is the malware infection that affected the organization. By performing a root cause analysis, the organization can determine how and why the malware was able to infect the systems, what vulnerabilities or weaknesses were exploited, what controls or processes failed or were missing, and what actions or decisions contributed to the situation. A root cause analysis can help the organization to prevent or reduce the recurrence of similar incidents, as well as to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management process. A root cause analysis can also help the organization to define a comprehensive risk treatment plan, which is a set of actions or measures that are taken to modify the risk, such as reducing, avoiding, transferring, or accepting the risk2. Based on the findings and recommendations of the root cause analysis, the organization can select and implement the most appropriate risk treatment option for the malware risk, as well as for any other related or emerging risks. The risk treatment plan should also include the roles and responsibilities, resources, timelines, and performance indicators for the risk treatment actions3. The other options are not the most effective ways to resolve the situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan, as they are either less thorough or less relevant than a root cause analysis. A gap analysis is a method of comparing the current state and the desired state of a process, system, or organization, and identifying the gaps or differences between them4. A gap analysis can help the organization to identify the areas of improvement or enhancement, as well as the opportunities or challenges for achieving the desired state. However, a gap analysis is not the most effective way to resolve the situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan, as it does not address the causes or consequences of the malware infection, or the actions or measures to mitigate the risk. An impact assessment is a method of estimating the potential effects or consequences of a change, decision, or action on a process, system, or organization5. An impact assessment can help the organization to evaluate the benefits and costs, as well as the risks and opportunities, of a proposed or implemented change, decision, or action. However, an impact assessment is not the most effective way to resolve the situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan, as it does not investigate the origin or nature of the malware infection, or the solutions or alternatives to manage the risk. A vulnerability assessment is a method of identifying and analyzing the weaknesses or flaws in a process, system, or organization that can be exploited by threats to cause harm or loss6. A vulnerability assessment can help the organization to discover and prioritize the vulnerabilities, as well as to recommend and implement the controls or measures to reduce or eliminate them. However, a vulnerability assessment is not the most effective way to resolve the situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan, as it does not consider the root causes or impacts of the malware infection, or the risk treatment options or plans to address the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.8, Page 61.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?
Options:
To build an organizational risk-aware culture
To continuously improve risk management processes
To comply with legal and regulatory requirements
To identify gaps in risk management practices
Answer:
BExplanation:
Global standards related to risk management are documents that provide the principles, guidelines, and best practices for managing risk in a consistent, effective, and efficient manner across different organizations, sectors, and regions12.
The primary reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management is to continuously improve risk management processes, which are the activities and tasks that enable the organization to identify, analyze, evaluate, treat, monitor, and communicate the risks that may affect its objectives, performance, and value creation34.
Continuously improving risk management processes is the primary reason because it helps the organization to enhance its risk management capabilities and maturity, and to adapt to the changing risk environment and stakeholder expectations34.
Continuously improving risk management processes is also the primary reason because it supports the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders, which are the ultimate purpose and outcome of risk management34.
The other options are not the primary reason, but rather possible benefits or objectives that may result from using global standards related to risk management. For example:
Building an organizational risk-aware culture is a benefit of using global standards related to risk management that involves creating and maintaining a shared understanding, attitude, and behavior towards risk among the organization’s employees and leaders, and fostering a culture of accountability, transparency, and learning34. However, this benefit is not the primary reason because it is an enabler and a consequence of continuously improving risk management processes, rather than a driver or a goal34.
Complying with legal and regulatory requirements is an objective of using global standards related to risk management that involves meeting and exceeding the expectations and obligations of the external authorities or bodies that govern or oversee the organization’s activities and operations, such as laws, regulations, standards, or contracts34. However, this objective is not the primary reason because it is a constraint and a challenge of continuously improving risk management processes, rather than a motivation or a benefit34.
Identifying gaps in risk management practices is an objective of using global standards related to risk management that involves assessing and comparing the current and desired state of the organization’s risk management processes, and identifying the areas or aspects that need to be improved or addressed34. However, this objective is not the primary reason because it is a step and a tool of continuously improving risk management processes, rather than a reason or a result34. References =
1: ISO - ISO 31000 — Risk management1
2: Risk Management Standards2
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:
Options:
minimize senior management's risk tolerance.
manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.
reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).
are cost-effective to implement
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), an effective control environment is best indicated by controls that manage risk within the organization’s risk appetite, as this reflects the alignment of the control objectives and activities with the organization’s strategic goals and risk preferences. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Managing risk within the organization’s risk appetite helps to:
Balance the potential benefits and costs of risk-taking and risk response
Optimize the use of the organization’s resources and capabilities
Enhance the value and performance of the organization
Foster a risk-aware culture that supports the organization’s vision and mission
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Risk Assessment Process, pp. 93-941
Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?
Options:
A control self-assessment
A third-party security assessment report
Internal audit reports from the vendor
Service level agreement monitoring
Answer:
BExplanation:
A third-party security assessment report is the most helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider, because it provides an independent and objective evaluation of the cloud provider’s security posture, policies, and practices. A third-party security assessment report can help to verify and validate the cloud provider’s compliance with the relevant standards, regulations, and best practices, such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, NIST, or CSA. A third-party security assessment report can also help to identify and address any gaps, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities in the cloud provider’s security controls, and to provide recommendations and guidance for improvement. A third-party security assessment report can also help to increase the trust and confidence of the cloud customers, and to facilitate the due diligence and risk management processes. The other options are less helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider. A control self-assessment is a process that enables the cloud provider to assess its own security controls, using a predefined framework or questionnaire. However, a control self-assessment may not be as reliable or comprehensive as a third-party security assessment report, as it may be biased, incomplete, or inaccurate, and it may not cover all the aspects or dimensions of security. Internal audit reports from the vendor are documents that provide the results and findings of the internal audits conducted by the cloud provider’s own auditors, to verify and validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the security controls. However, internal audit reports from the vendor may not be as credible or trustworthy as a third-party security assessment report, as they may be influenced by the cloud provider’s interests, objectives, or agenda, and they may not follow the same standards or criteria as the external auditors. Service level agreement monitoring is a process that measures and evaluates the performance and availability of the cloud services, based on the predefined metrics and targets agreed between the cloud provider and the cloud customer. However, service level agreement monitoring may not be sufficient or relevant to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider, as it may not address the security aspects or requirements of the cloud services, such as confidentiality, integrity, or accountability, and it may not reflect the actual security risks or incidents that may occur in the cloud environment. References = Cloud Security Controls: Key Elements and 4 Control Frameworks 1
Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?
Options:
Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.
Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.
Gather scenarios from senior management.
Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.
Answer:
BExplanation:
IT risk scenarios are the descriptions or representations of the possible or hypothetical situations or events that may cause or result in an IT risk for the organization. IT risk scenarios usually consist of three elements: a threat or source of harm, a vulnerability or weakness, and an impact or consequence.
The best approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios is to map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework, which is an established or recognized model or standard that provides the principles, guidelines, and best practices for the organization’s IT risk management function. Mapping scenarios to a recognized risk management framework can help the organization to create a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios by providing the following benefits:
It can ensure that the IT risk scenarios are relevant, appropriate, and proportional to the organization’s IT objectives and needs, and that they support the organization’s IT strategy and culture.
It can ensure that the IT risk scenarios are consistent and compatible with the organization’s IT governance, risk management, and control functions, and that they reflect the organization’s IT risk appetite and tolerance.
It can provide useful references and benchmarks for the identification, analysis, evaluation, and communication of the IT risk scenarios, and for the alignment and integration of the IT risk scenarios with the organization’s IT risk policies and standards.
The other options are not the best approaches to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios, because they do not provide the same level of detail and insight that mapping scenarios to a recognized risk management framework provides, and they may not be specific or applicable to the organization’s IT objectives and needs.
Deriving scenarios from IT risk policies and standards means creating or generating the IT risk scenarios based on the rules or guidelines that define and describe the organization’s IT risk management function, and that specify the expectations and requirements for the organization’s IT risk management function. Deriving scenarios from IT risk policies and standards can help the organization to create a consistent and compliant set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not cover all the relevant or significant IT risks that may affect the organization, and it may not support the organization’s IT strategy and culture.
Gathering scenarios from senior management means collecting or obtaining the IT risk scenarios from the senior management or executives that oversee or direct the organization’s IT activities or functions. Gathering scenarios from senior management can help the organization to create a high-level and strategic set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not reflect the operational or technical aspects of the IT risks, and it may not involve the input or feedback from the other stakeholders or parties that are involved or responsible for the IT activities or functions.
Benchmarking scenarios against industry peers means comparing and contrasting the IT risk scenarios with those of other organizations or industry standards, and identifying the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, or threats that may affect the organization’s IT objectives or operations. Benchmarking scenarios against industry peers can help the organization to create a competitive and innovative set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not be relevant or appropriate for the organization’s IT objectives and needs, and it may not comply with the organization’s IT policies and standards. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 199
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?
Options:
Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps
Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls
Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels
Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices
Answer:
CExplanation:
A risk-aware culture is a culture that recognizes, understands, and values the importance of risk management in achieving the organization’s objectives and goals. A risk-aware culture is also a culture that supports and encourages the identification, assessment, response, and monitoring of risks across the organization, as well as the sharing and learning of risk information and best practices. One of the activities that would best contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture is communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels. This is a technique to inform and educate the stakeholders and decision makers about the nature and scope of the risks that the organization faces, as well as the criteria and standards that the organization uses to measure and manage the risks. Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels can help to increase the awareness and understanding of the risks and their impact on the organization’s performance and value, as well as to align the expectations and behaviors of the stakeholders and decision makers with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels can also help to foster a transparent and collaborative environment for risk management, where the stakeholders and decision makers can openly discuss and address the risks and their implications, as well as to provide and receive feedback and support. The other options are not the best activities to promote an organization-wide risk-aware culture, although they may be relevant and useful. Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps is a technique to compare and improve the organization’s risk management process and performance with the industry standards or best practices, as well as to identify and close the gaps or weaknesses in the organization’s risk management capabilities or maturity. However, this technique does not necessarily promote a risk-aware culture, as it focuses on the process and performance of risk management, not the attitude and behavior of risk management. Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls is a technique to identify and analyze the risks that the organization faces, as well as to select and execute the appropriate actions to address the risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risks. However, this technique does not directly promote a risk-aware culture, as it focuses on the actions and outcomes of risk management, not the values and beliefs of risk management. Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices is a technique to evaluate and enhance the quality and effectiveness of the organization’s risk management activities and deliverables, as well as to adopt and apply the proven and successful methods or solutions for risk management. However, this technique does not effectively promote a risk-aware culture, as it focuses on the improvement and optimization of risk management, not the communication and collaboration of risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 22-231; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 982; The 6 key elements to creating and maintaining a good risk culture3; How to increase risk awareness - Project Management Institute4
The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure is MOST likely an example of:
Options:
low risk tolerance.
corporate culture misalignment.
corporate culture alignment.
high risk tolerance
Answer:
BExplanation:
Corporate culture is the set of values, beliefs, and norms that shape the behavior and attitude of an organization and its people. Corporate culture alignment is the degree of consistency and compatibility between the corporate culture and the organization’s vision, mission, strategy, and objectives. Corporate culture misalignment is the situation where the corporate culture is not aligned with the organization’s goals and expectations, and may hinder or undermine the achievement of those goals. The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure is most likely an example of corporate culture misalignment, as it indicates that the organization is not following a rational and optimal approach to risk management. The organization is spending more resources on controlling risks than the potential benefits or losses that the risks entail, which may result in inefficiency, waste, or opportunity cost. The organization may also be overemphasizing the importance of risk avoidance or mitigation, and neglecting the potential value creation or innovation that may arise from taking or accepting some risks. The other options are not the best answers, as they do not explain the situation of accepting control costs that exceed risk exposure. Low risk tolerance is the degree of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is not willing to accept. Low risk tolerance may lead to excessive or unnecessary controls, but it does not necessarily mean that the control costs exceed the risk exposure. High risk tolerance is the degree of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is willing to accept. High risk tolerance may lead to insufficient or ineffective controls, but it does not imply that the control costs exceed the risk exposure. Corporate culture alignment is the situation where the corporate culture is aligned with the organization’s goals and expectations, and supports and facilitates the achievement of those goals. Corporate culture alignment would not result in accepting control costs that exceed risk exposure, as it would imply a balanced and rational approach to risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 22-231; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 812
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?
Options:
A reduction in the number of help desk calls
An increase in the number of identified system flaws
A reduction in the number of user access resets
An increase in the number of incidents reported
Answer:
DExplanation:
A security awareness training program is an educational program that aims to equip the organization’s employees with the knowledge and skills they need to protect the organization’s data and sensitive information from cyber threats, such as hacking, phishing, or other breaches12.
A risk-aware culture is a culture that values and promotes the understanding and management of risks, and encourages the behaviors and actions that support the organization’s risk objectives and strategy34.
The best indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees is an increase in the number of incidents reported, which is the frequency or rate of security incidents that are detected and communicated by the employees to the appropriate authorities or channels56.
An increase in the number of incidents reported is the best indication because it shows that the employees have gained the awareness and confidence to recognize and report the security incidents that may affect the organization, and that they have the responsibility and accountability to contribute to the organization’s risk management and security posture56.
An increase in the number of incidents reported is also the best indication because it enables the organization to respond and recover from the security incidents more quickly and effectively, and to prevent or reduce the recurrence or escalation of similar incidents in the future56.
The other options are not the best indication, but rather possible outcomes or consequences of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program. For example:
A reduction in the number of help desk calls is an outcome of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more self-reliant and proficient in solving or preventing the common or minor IT issues or problems . However, this outcome does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may be more serious or complex .
An increase in the number of identified system flaws is a consequence of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more vigilant and proactive in finding and reporting the vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the IT systems or processes . However, this consequence does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may exploit or leverage the system flaws .
A reduction in the number of user access resets is an outcome of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more careful and responsible in managing and protecting their user credentials or accounts . However, this outcome does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may compromise or misuse the user access . References =
1: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US5
2: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky6
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
5: Security Incident Reporting and Response, University of Toronto, 2017
6: Security Incident Reporting and Response, ISACA, 2019
: IT Help Desk Best Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2018
: IT Help Desk Best Practices, ISACA Now Blog, February 12, 2018
: System Flaw Reporting and Remediation, University of Toronto, 2017
: System Flaw Reporting and Remediation, ISACA, 2019
: User Access Management and Control, University of Toronto, 2017
: User Access Management and Control, ISACA, 2019
Which of the following helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions?
Options:
Digital signatures
Encrypted passwords
One-time passwords
Digital certificates
Answer:
AExplanation:
Nonrepudiation is the ability to prevent or deny the parties involved in an electronic transaction from disputing or rejecting the validity or authenticity of the transaction. Nonrepudiation ensures that the parties cannot claim that they did not send or receive the transaction, or that the transaction was altered or tampered with.
The tool that helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions is digital signatures, which are the electronic equivalents of handwritten signatures that are used to verify the identity and integrity of the sender and the content of the transaction. Digital signatures are generated by applying a cryptographic algorithm to the transaction, using the sender’s private key, which is a secret and unique code that only the sender knows and possesses. The digital signature can be verified by the receiver or any third party, using the sender’s public key, which is a code that is publicly available and corresponds to the sender’s private key. The digital signature can prove that the transaction was sent by the sender, and that the transaction was not altered or tampered with during the transmission.
The other options are not the tools that help ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions, because they do not provide the same level of verification and validation that digital signatures provide, and they may not be sufficient or effective to prevent or deny the parties from disputing or rejecting the transaction.
Encrypted passwords are the passwords that are converted into a secret or unreadable form, using a cryptographic algorithm, to protect them from unauthorized access or disclosure. Encrypted passwords can help to ensure the confidentiality and security of the passwords, but they are not the tools that help ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions, because they do not verify the identity and integrity of the sender and the content of the transaction, and they may not prevent or deny the parties from disputing or rejecting the transaction.
One-time passwords are the passwords that are valid or usable for only one session or transaction, and that are randomly generated or derived from a dynamic factor, such as time, location, or device. One-time passwords can help to enhance the security and authentication of the parties involved in the transaction, but they are not the tools that help ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions, because they do not verify the identity and integrity of the sender and the content of the transaction, and they may not prevent or deny the parties from disputing or rejecting the transaction.
Digital certificates are the electronic documents that contain the information and credentials of the parties involved in the transaction, such as their name, public key, expiration date, etc., and that are issued and signed by a trusted authority or entity, such as a certificate authority or a digital signature provider. Digital certificates can help to establish and confirm the identity and trustworthiness of the parties involved in the transaction, but they are not the tools that help ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions, because they do not verify the identity and integrity of the sender and the content of the transaction, and they may not prevent or deny the parties from disputing or rejecting the transaction. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 197
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?
Options:
Perform their own risk assessment
Implement additional controls to address the risk.
Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment
Perform an independent audit of the third party.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the risks that an organization faces in relation to its objectives, assets, and operations. A risk assessment helps to determine the likelihood and impact of potential threats, as well as the adequacy and effectiveness of existing controls. A risk assessment also provides the basis for risk treatment, which involves selecting and implementing the appropriate risk responses, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risk. The client’s best course of action in this scenario is to perform their own risk assessment, rather than relying on the third-party service provider’s risk assessment. This is because the third-party service provider may have different risk criteria, assumptions, methods, or perspectives than the client, and may not fully understand or address the client’s specific risk context, needs, and expectations. The third-party service provider’s risk assessment may also be biased, outdated, or inaccurate, and may not reflect the current or future risk environment. By performing their own risk assessment, the client can ensure that the risk of their systems being hacked is properly identified, measured, and managed, and that the risk level is acceptable and aligned with their risk appetite and tolerance. The other options are not the best courses of action for the client, as they may expose the client to unnecessary or unacceptable risk. Implementing additional controls to address the risk may be costly, ineffective, or redundant, and may not be justified by the actual risk level. Accepting the risk based on the third-party service provider’s risk assessment may be risky, as the client may not have a clear or accurate understanding of the risk exposure or consequences. Performing an independent audit of the third party may be useful, but it may not be sufficient or timely to assess and address the risk of the client’s systems being hacked. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 792
Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?
Options:
Customizing content for the audience
Providing incentives to participants
Mapping to a recognized standard
Providing metrics for measurement
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most important element of a successful risk awareness training program is customizing content for the audience, because this ensures that the training is relevant, engaging, and effective for the learners. Customizing content for the audience means tailoring the training materials and methods to suit the specific needs, preferences, and characteristics of the target group, such as their roles, responsibilities, knowledge, skills, attitudes, and learning styles. Customizing content for the audience can help to achieve the following benefits:
Increase the motivation and interest of the learners, as they can see the value and applicability of the training to their work and goals.
Enhance the comprehension and retention of the learners, as they can relate the training content to their prior knowledge and experience, and use examples and scenarios that are familiar and realistic to them.
Improve the transfer and application of the learners, as they can practice and apply the training content to their actual work situations and challenges, and receive feedback and support that are relevant and useful to them. References = Implementing risk management training and awareness (part 1) 1
An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.
Options:
The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure
The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract
The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract
The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services
Answer:
AExplanation:
The risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk and its associated controls. The risk owner is also responsible for ensuring that the risk is within the acceptable level and that the risk response is effective and efficient. In this case, the risk owner is also the owner of the business service that depends on the managed hosting service. Therefore, the risk owner should be notified of the new information about the flood risk first, as they have the most interest and influence on the risk and its impact on the business objectives. The risk owner can then decide on the appropriate actions to take, such as reviewing the contract terms, requesting additional controls, or changing the service provider. The other options are not the correct answers because they are not the primary stakeholders of the risk and its consequences. The data center manager is an employee of the managed hosting service provider, not the organization that procured the service. The data center manager may not have the authority or the incentive to address the flood risk or inform the organization. The site manager is also an employee of the managed hosting service provider, and their role is to conduct annual risk assessments under the contract. The site manager may not be aware of the new information or have the responsibility to communicate it to the organization. The CIO is the senior executive who oversees the IT strategy and operations of the organization. The CIO may have a general interest in the managed hosting service and its risks, but they are not the direct owner or manager of the specific risk or the business service that relies on the service. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 702
Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?
Options:
Obtaining management sign-off
Demonstrating effective risk mitigation
Justifying return on investment
Providing accurate risk reporting
Answer:
DExplanation:
The main reason for documenting the performance of controls is to provide accurate risk reporting. Risk reporting is a process that communicates and discloses the relevant and reliable information about the risks and their management to the stakeholders and decision makers. Risk reporting is an essential component of the risk management process, as it helps to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring activities, as well as to support and inform the risk governance and oversight functions. Documenting the performance of controls is a technique that records and tracks the results and outcomes of the controls that are implemented to address the risks, such as the control objectives,
The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?
Options:
Logs and system events
Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules
Vulnerability assessment reports
Penetration test reports
Answer:
AExplanation:
The analysis of logs and system events will best help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious, because they provide detailed and timely information about the source, destination, content, and context of the network traffic. Logs and system events can be collected from various sources, such as firewalls, routers, switches, servers, applications, and endpoints, and can be correlated and analyzed using tools such as security information and event management (SIEM) systems. By analyzing logs and system events, an organization can identify anomalies, patterns, trends, and indicators of compromise (IOCs) that may signal malicious network activity, such as unauthorized access, data exfiltration, malware infection, denial-of-service attack, or lateral movement. Logs and system events can also help determine the scope, impact, and root cause of the malicious network activity, and support the incident response and remediation process. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 221
Which of the following would BEST help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats?
Options:
Enforcing employees’ sanctions
Conducting phishing exercises
Enforcing segregation of dunes
Reviewing the organization's risk appetite
Answer:
BExplanation:
Conducting phishing exercises would best help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats, because they can help to raise awareness and educate employees about the common techniques and tactics used by social engineers, such as sending deceptive emails or text messages that ask for sensitive information or direct users to malicious websites. Phishing exercises are simulated attacks that test the employees’ ability to recognize and respond to social engineering attempts, and provide feedback and guidance on how to improve their security behavior. By conducting phishing exercises, the organization can measure and improve the employees’ level of security awareness and resilience, and reduce the likelihood and impact of falling victim to social engineering attacks. The other options are less effective ways to minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats. Enforcing employees’ sanctions can help to deter and punish employees who violate the security policies or procedures, but it may not prevent or reduce the occurrence of social engineering attacks, as they may target employees who are unaware, careless, or coerced by the attackers. Enforcing segregation of duties can help to prevent or limit the damage caused by social engineering attacks, by restricting the access and authority of employees to perform certain tasks or functions, but it may not address the root cause or source of the attacks, which is the human factor. Reviewing the organization’s risk appetite can help to define and communicate the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, but it may not directly affect or influence the employees’ behavior or attitude toward social engineering threats, which may depend on their individual or situational factors. References = How to Prevent and Mitigate Social Engineering Attacks 1
Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?
Options:
Ad hoc control reporting
Control self-assessment
Continuous monitoring
Predictive analytics
Answer:
CExplanation:
Control effectiveness is the degree to which a control achieves its intended objective and mitigates the risk that it is designed to address. It is measured by comparing the actual performance and outcome of the control with the expected or desired performance and outcome.
The best method for assessing control effectiveness is continuous monitoring, which is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the performance and outcome of the controls on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring provides timely and accurate information on the status and results of the controls, and enables the identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Continuous monitoring can be performed using various techniques, such as automated tools, dashboards, indicators, metrics, logs, audits, reviews, etc. Continuous monitoring can also be integrated with the risk management process, and aligned with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite.
The other options are not the best methods for assessing control effectiveness, because they do not provide the same level of timeliness, accuracy, and completeness of information on the performance and outcome of the controls.
Ad hoc control reporting is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the performance and outcome of the controls on an irregular or occasional basis. Ad hoc control reporting may be triggered by specific events, requests, or incidents, and it may not cover all the relevant or critical controls. Ad hoc control reporting may not provide sufficient or consistent information on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Control self-assessment is the process of allowing the control owners or operators to evaluate and report on the performance and outcome of their own controls. Control self-assessment can provide useful insights and feedback from the control owners or operators, and it can enhance their awareness and accountability for the control effectiveness. However, control self-assessment may not be objective, reliable, or independent, and it may not cover all the relevant or critical controls. Control self-assessment may not provide sufficient or consistent information on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Predictive analytics is the process of using statistical techniques and models to analyze historical and current data, and to make predictions or forecasts about future events or outcomes. Predictive analytics can provide useful insights and trends on the potential performance and outcome of the controls, and it can support the decision making and planning for the control effectiveness. However, predictive analytics may not be accurate, valid, or reliable, and it may not reflect the actual or current performance and outcome of the controls. Predictive analytics may not provide sufficient or consistent information on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 150
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
Options:
Document the finding in the risk register.
Invoke the incident response plan.
Re-evaluate key risk indicators.
Modify the design of the control.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The next step after determining that a key control does not meet design expectations is to document the finding in the risk register, because this helps to record and track the information about the identified risk, such as its description, likelihood, impact, response, and status. A key control is a control that addresses a significant risk or supports a critical business process or objective. A control design expectation is a criterion or requirement that defines how the control should operate or perform to achieve its objective. If a key control does not meet its design expectation, it means that there is a gap, weakness, or deficiency in the control that may compromise its effectiveness or efficiency, and increase the risk exposure or impact. By documenting the finding in the risk register, the risk practitioner can communicate and report the risk issue to the relevant stakeholders, such as the risk owner, the management, or the auditor, and initiate the appropriate risk response actions, such as modifying the design of the control, implementing a compensating control, or accepting the risk. The other options are not the best next steps after determining that a key control does not meet design expectations. Invoking the incident response plan is a reactive measure that is triggered when a risk event occurs or is imminent, and requires immediate action to contain, mitigate, or recover from the incident. However, in this case, the risk event has not occurred yet, and there may be time to prevent or reduce it by improving the control design. Re-evaluating key risk indicators is a monitoring activity that measures and evaluates the level and impact of risks, and provides timely signals that something may be going wrong or needs urgent attention. However, in this case, the risk practitioner has already identified the risk issue, and needs to document and address it, rather than re-evaluate it. Modifying the design of the control is a possible risk response action that may be taken to improve the control and reduce the risk, but it is not the next step after determining that the key control does not meet design expectations. The next step is to document the finding in the risk register, and then decide on the best risk response action, which may or may not be modifying the design of the control, depending on the cost-benefit analysis, the risk assessment, and the risk response strategy. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 13
During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department's recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?
Options:
Report the gap to senior management
Consult with the IT department to update the RTO
Complete a risk exception form.
Consult with the business owner to update the BCP
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the next course of action when a risk practitioner finds the IT department’s recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise’s business continuity plan (BCP) is to consult with the IT department to update the RTO. The RTO is the maximum acceptable time that an application, computer, network, or system can be down after an unexpected disaster, failure, or comparable event takes place. The RTO should be aligned with the BCP, which is a set of policies, procedures, and resources that enable the organization to continue or resume its critical business functions in the event of a disruption. Consulting with the IT department to update the RTO helps to:
Ensure that the RTO reflects the current business requirements and expectations for the availability and recovery of the key system
Evaluate the feasibility and cost-effectiveness of achieving the RTO with the existing IT resources and capabilities
Identify and implement the necessary changes or improvements in the IT infrastructure, processes, and controls to meet the RTO
Test and validate the RTO and the IT recovery procedures and verify their compatibility and consistency with the BCP
Communicate and coordinate the RTO and the IT recovery plan with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business owner, the risk owner, and the senior management
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 174-1751
The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:
Options:
Benchmark against peer organizations.
Identify appropriate controls within business processes.
Assess compliance with global standards.
Identify risk owners related to business processes.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:A review of business processes is crucial for identifying risk owners, as risk ownership is tied to specific processes within the organization. Risk owners are accountable for managing and mitigating risks within their respective areas. This ensures that risks are effectively addressed where they arise and aligns mitigation efforts with business objectives. Properly identifying risk owners supports better governance, accountability, and alignment with the organization's risk management strategy.
After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?
Options:
The risk practitioner
The business process owner
The risk owner
The control owner
Answer:
CExplanation:
After a risk has been identified, the risk owner is in the best position to select the appropriate risk treatment option. The risk owner is the person or entity with the accountability and authority to manage a risk1. The risk owner is responsible for evaluating the risk, choosing the most suitable risk treatment option, implementing the risk treatment plan, and monitoring and reviewing the risk and its treatment2. The risk owner has the most knowledge and stake in the risk and its impact on the objectives and activities of the organization. The other options are not the best choices for selecting the risk treatment option, as they do not have the same level of accountability and authority as the risk owner. The risk practitioner is the person or entity with the knowledge and skills to perform the risk management activities1. The risk practitioner can assist the risk owner in identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risk, but the final decision and responsibility lies with the risk owner. The business process owner is the person or entity with the accountability and authority to manage a business process3. The business process owner may be affected by the risk or involved in the risk treatment, but the risk owner is the one who has the overall responsibility for the risk. The control owner is the person or entity with the accountability and authority to ensure that the controls are properly designed, implemented, and operated4. The control owner can provide input and feedback on the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, but the risk owner is the one who decides which controls are needed and how they are applied. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.3, Page 51.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?
Options:
Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance
Prioritization of risk action plans across departments
Early detection of emerging threats
Accurate measurement of loss impact
Answer:
BExplanation:
A primary benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process is prioritization of risk action plans across departments, because this helps to ensure that the most critical and relevant risks are addressed first, and that the resources and efforts are allocated and coordinated efficiently and effectively. A risk owner is the person or group who is responsible for the day-to-day management and mitigation of a specific risk, and who has the authority and accountability to make risk-related decisions. A risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, or value. A risk action plan is the set of actions and tasks that are designed and implemented to reduce the likelihood and impact of a risk, or to exploit the opportunities that a risk may create. By engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process, the organization can benefit from the following advantages:
The risk owner can provide valuable input and feedback on the risk identification, analysis, and evaluation, based on their knowledge, experience, and perspective of the risk and its context.
The risk owner can help to develop and implement the risk action plan, based on their understanding of the risk objectives, expectations, and outcomes, and their ability to influence and control the risk factors and sources.
The risk owner can help to prioritize the risk action plan, based on their assessment of the risk severity, urgency, and importance, and their consideration of the costs, benefits, and feasibility of the risk actions.
The risk owner can help to coordinate the risk action plan across departments, by communicating and collaborating with other risk owners, stakeholders, and resources, and by aligning and integrating the risk actions with the organization’s strategy, processes, and culture. References = Risk Owners — What Do They Do1
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?
Options:
Completeness of system documentation
Results of end user acceptance testing
Variances between planned and actual cost
availability of in-house resources
Answer:
BExplanation:
End user acceptance testing is a process that verifies that a system or service meets the requirements and expectations of the end users, who are the actual or potential customers or beneficiaries of the system or service. End user acceptance testing is the final stage of testing before the system or service is deployed or released to the production environment. The results of end user acceptance testing are the most important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation, as they indicate the quality, functionality, usability, and reliability of the system or service from the end user perspective. The results of end user acceptance testing can help to identify and resolve any defects, errors, or issues that may affect the performance, satisfaction, or acceptance of the system or service by the end users. The results of end user acceptance testing can also help to evaluate the benefits, value, and risks of the system or service for the end users and the organization. The other options are not the most important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation, although they may be relevant and useful. The completeness of system documentation is a factor that affects the maintainability, supportability, and auditability of the system or service, but it does not measure the end user experience or satisfaction. The variances between planned and actual cost is a measure of the efficiency and budget management of the system or service development or implementation, but it does not reflect the end user needs or expectations. The availability of in-house resources is a resource that supports the system or service delivery and operation, but it does not ensure the end user acceptance or approval. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 180-1811; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 87
Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?
Options:
A decrease in control layering effectiveness
An increase in inherent risk
An increase in control vulnerabilities
An increase in the level of residual risk
Answer:
DExplanation:
The control environment is the set of internal and external factors and conditions that influence and shape the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions. It includes the organization’s culture, values, ethics, structure, roles, responsibilities, policies, standards, etc.
Uncontrolled changes are changes or modifications to the control environment that are not planned, authorized, documented, or monitored, and that may have unintended or adverse consequences for the organization. Uncontrolled changes may be caused by various drivers or events, such as technological innovations, market trends, regulatory changes, customer preferences, competitor actions, environmental issues, etc.
The greatest concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment is an increase in the level of residual risk, which is the amount and type of risk that remains after the implementation and execution of the risk responses or controls. An increase in the level of residual risk means that the risk responses or controls are not effective or sufficient to mitigate or prevent the risks, and that the organization may face unacceptable or intolerable consequences if the risks materialize.
An increase in the level of residual risk is the greatest concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment, because it indicates that the organization’s risk profile and performance have deteriorated, and that the organization may not be able to achieve its objectives or protect its value. It also indicates that the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance have been violated, and that the organization may need to take corrective or compensating actions to restore the balance between risk and return.
The other options are not the greatest concerns when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment, because they do not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and they may not be relevant or actionable for the organization.
A decrease in control layering effectiveness means a decrease in the extent or degree to which the organization uses multiple or overlapping controls to address the same or related risks, and to provide redundancy or backup in case of failure or compromise of one or more controls. A decrease in control layering effectiveness may indicate a weakness or gap in the organization’s control design or implementation, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the control layering is required or recommended by the organization’s policies or standards.
An increase in inherent risk means an increase in the amount and type of risk that exists in the absence of any risk responses or controls, and that is inherent to the nature or characteristics of the risk source, event, cause, or impact. An increase in inherent risk may indicate a change or variation in the organization’s risk exposure or level, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the inherent risk exceeds the organization’s risk appetite or tolerance.
An increase in control vulnerabilities means an increase in the number or severity of the weaknesses or flaws in the organization’s risk responses or controls that can be exploited or compromised by the threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives or operations. An increase in control vulnerabilities may indicate a weakness or gap in the organization’s control design or implementation, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the control vulnerabilities are exploited or compromised by the threats or sources of harm. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 174
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following would provide the BEST guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan?
Options:
Risk mitigation budget
Business Impact analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
Return on investment
Answer:
CExplanation:
A cost-benefit analysis is the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan. A risk treatment plan is a document that describes the actions or measures that are taken or planned to modify the risk, such as reducing, avoiding, transferring, or accepting the risk1. Selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan means choosing the most suitable and effective option for addressing the risk, based on the organization’s objectives, strategies, and risk criteria2. A cost-benefit analysis is a method of comparing the benefits and costs of different alternatives or options, and selecting the one that maximizes the net benefit or value3. A cost-benefit analysis is the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, because it helps to:
Evaluate the feasibility, effectiveness, and efficiency of the risk treatment options, and compare them against the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance;
Balance the benefits and costs of the risk treatment options, and consider both the quantitative and qualitative aspects of the risk and the risk response;
Optimize the use of the organization’s resources and capabilities, and ensure that the risk treatment options are aligned and integrated with the organization’s goals and values;
Support the risk decision making and prioritization, and provide a rational and transparent basis for selecting the best risk treatment option. The other options are not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as they are either less comprehensive or less relevant than a cost-benefit analysis. A risk mitigation budget is a document that allocates the financial resources for implementing and maintaining the risk mitigation actions or measures4. A risk mitigation budget can help to ensure the availability and adequacy of the funds for the risk treatment options, as well as to monitor and control the risk treatment expenditures. However, a risk mitigation budget is not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as it does not address the benefits or value of the risk treatment options, or the suitability or effectiveness of the risk treatment options. A business impact analysis is a method of estimating the potential effects or consequences of a risk on the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance5. A business impact analysis can help to assess the severity and priority of the risk, as well as to identify the critical assets and resources that are involved or impacted by the risk. However, a business impact analysis is not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as it does not address the costs or feasibility of the risk treatment options, or the alternatives or options for the risk treatment. A return on investment is a metric that measures the profitability or efficiency of an investment, project, or activity, by comparing the benefits and costs of the investment, project, or activity6. A return on investment can help to evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the risk treatment options, as well as to compare the risk treatment options with other investments, projects, or activities. However, a return on investment is not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as it does not address the qualitative or intangible aspects of the risk and the risk response, or the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.8, Page 61.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?
Options:
Cost of offsite backup premises
Cost of downtime due to a disaster
Cost of testing the business continuity plan
Response time of the emergency action plan
Answer:
BExplanation:
A recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable time or duration that a business process or function can be disrupted or unavailable due to a disaster or incident, before it causes unacceptable or intolerable consequences for the organization. It is usually expressed in hours, days, or weeks, and it is aligned with the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.
The primary factor in determining a RTO is the cost of downtime due to a disaster, which is the estimated loss or damage that the organization may suffer if a business process or function is disrupted or unavailable for a certain period of time. The cost of downtime can be expressed in terms of financial, operational, reputational, or legal consequences, and it can help the organization to assess the impact and urgency of the disaster, and to decide on the appropriate recovery strategy and resources.
The other options are not the primary factors in determining a RTO, because they do not address the fundamental question of how long the organization can tolerate the disruption or unavailability of a business process or function.
The cost of offsite backup premises is the cost of acquiring, maintaining, or using an alternative or secondary location or facility that can be used to resume or continue the business process or function in case of a disaster or incident. The cost of offsite backup premises is important to consider when selecting or implementing a recovery strategy, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.
The cost of testing the business continuity plan is the cost of conducting, evaluating, or improving the tests or exercises that are performed to verify or validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the business continuity plan, which is the document that describes the actions and procedures that the organization will take to recover or restore the business process or function in case of a disaster or incident. The cost of testing the business continuity plan is important to consider when developing or updating the business continuity plan, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.
The response time of the emergency action plan is the time or duration that it takes for the organization to initiate or execute the emergency action plan, which is the document that describes the immediate actions and procedures that the organization will take to protect the life, health, and safety of the people, and to minimize the damage or loss of the assets, in case of a disaster or incident. The response time of the emergency action plan is important to consider when preparing or reviewing the emergency action plan, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 62-63, 66-67, 70-71, 74-75, 78-79
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 165
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?
Options:
Using an aggregated view of organizational risk
Ensuring relevance to organizational goals
Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including
Trend analysis of risk metrics
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the most important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management is ensuring relevance to organizational goals, as this helps to align risk management with business strategy and performance. The risk management updates should:
Highlight the key risks that may affect the achievement of the organizational goals and objectives
Demonstrate the value and benefits of risk management in supporting decision making and enhancing business resilience
Provide clear and concise information on the current risk profile, risk appetite, risk tolerance and risk exposure of the organization
Recommend appropriate risk response actions and resource allocation to address the identified risks
Communicate the roles and responsibilities of executive management in overseeing and governing risk management
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: IT Risk Reporting, pp. 221-2221
An organization wants to assess the maturity of its internal control environment. The FIRST step should be to:
Options:
validate control process execution.
determine if controls are effective.
identify key process owners.
conduct a baseline assessment.
Answer:
DExplanation:
A baseline assessment is the first step in assessing the maturity of an organization’s internal control environment. A baseline assessment is a comprehensive evaluation of the current state of the internal control structure, processes, and activities across the organization. A baseline assessment helps to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the existing internal controls, as well as the gaps and opportunities for improvement. A baseline assessment also provides a reference point for measuring the progress and effectiveness of the internal control improvement initiatives. The other options are not the first steps in assessing the maturity of an internal control environment, although they may be part of the subsequent steps. Validating control process execution is a technique to verify that the internal control activities are performed as designed and intended. Determining if controls are effective is a process to evaluate the adequacy and efficiency of the internal controls in achieving the desired outcomes and mitigating the risks. Identifying key process owners is a task to assign the roles and responsibilities for the internal control design, implementation, and monitoring to the appropriate individuals or groups within the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 153-1541; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 742
Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?
Options:
Risk register
Risk assessment
Key risk indicator (KRI)
Key performance indicator (KPI)
Answer:
CExplanation:
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that provides information on the level of exposure to a given risk or the potential impact of a risk. KRIs are used to monitor changes in risk levels and alert management when a risk exceeds a predefined threshold or tolerance. KRIs can help provide early warning of a high-risk condition and enable timely response and mitigation actions. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and status. A risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates risks. A key performance indicator (KPI) is a metric that measures the achievement of a specific goal or objective. References = Risk IT Framework, pages 22-231; CRISC Review Manual, pages 44-452
When a high number of approved exceptions are observed during a review of a control procedure, an organization should FIRST initiate a review of the:
Options:
Relevant policies.
Threat landscape.
Awareness program.
Risk heat map.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:A high number of exceptions often indicate misalignment between policies and business needs. Reviewing policies helps determine if they are overly restrictive or need adjustments to reduce exceptions while maintaining security.
IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:
Options:
for compliance with laws and regulations
as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.
as input for decision-making
to measure organizational success.
Answer:
CExplanation:
IT risk assessments can best be used by management as input for decision-making, because they provide valuable information about the current and potential risks facing the organization’s IT systems, networks, and data, and their impact on the organization’s objectives and performance. IT risk assessments can help management to identify and prioritize the most critical and relevant risks, and to evaluate and select the most appropriate and effective risk responses. IT risk assessments can also help management to allocate and optimize the resources and budget for IT risk management, and to communicate and report the risk status and performance to the senior management, the board of directors, and other stakeholders. IT risk assessments can support management in making informed and balanced decisions that consider both the opportunities and the threats of IT-related activities and investments. References = Complete Guide to IT Risk Management 1
Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Options:
Alignment to risk responses
Alignment to management reports
Alerts when risk thresholds are reached
Identification of trends
Answer:
AExplanation:
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are quantifiable measures of progress toward an intended result, such as a strategic objective or a desired outcome12.
The most important factor when developing KPIs is the alignment to risk responses, which are the actions taken to address the risks that may affect the achievement of the intended result12.
Alignment to risk responses means that the KPIs should reflect the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk responses, and provide feedback and guidance for improving the risk responses12.
Alignment to risk responses also means that the KPIs should be consistent and compatible with the risk responses, and support the risk management process and objectives12.
The other options are not the most important factor, but rather possible aspects or features of KPIs that may vary depending on the context and purpose of the KPIs. For example:
Alignment to management reports is an aspect of KPIs that relates to the communication and presentation of the KPIs to the relevant stakeholders, such as senior management, board members, or external parties12. However, this aspect does not determine the quality or validity of the KPIs, or the alignment to the intended result12.
Alerts when risk thresholds are reached is a feature of KPIs that relates to the monitoring and control of the KPIs, and the triggering of actions or decisions when the KPIs exceed or fall below a certain level or range12. However, this feature does not define the content or scope of the KPIs, or the alignment to the intended result12.
Identification of trends is a feature of KPIs that relates to the analysis and interpretation of the KPIs, and the identification of patterns or changes in the KPIs over time or across different dimensions12. However, this feature does not specify the criteria or methodology of the KPIs, or the alignment to the intended result12. References =
1: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? Guide & Examples - Qlik3
2: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? - KPI.org4
An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:
Options:
transferred
mitigated.
accepted
avoided
Answer:
CExplanation:
Cyber risk insurance is a type of insurance policy that provides coverage against losses and damages caused by cyber incidents such as data breaches, hacking, and other cyber attacks. When an organization decides to purchase cyber risk insurance, it transfers the risk of financial loss due to a cyber incident to the insurance company. In the scenario described in the question, the organization allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. This means that the organization is currently not covered by any cyber risk insurance policy and is therefore exposed to financial losses due to cyber incidents. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been accepted. Accepting risk means that the organization is aware of the potential consequences of the risk and has decided not to take any action to mitigate, transfer, or avoid it. The other options are not correct because they do not reflect the current situation of the organization. The organization has not transferred the risk to another party, as it has no cyber risk insurance policy in place. The organization has not mitigated the risk, as it has not implemented any controls or measures to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk. The organization has not avoided the risk, as it has not eliminated the source or cause of the risk or changed its activities to prevent the risk from occurring. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 752
After several security incidents resulting in significant financial losses, IT management has decided to outsource the security function to a third party that provides 24/7 security operation services. Which risk response option has management implemented?
Options:
Risk mitigation
Risk avoidance
Risk acceptance
Risk transfer
Answer:
DExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:Risk transfer involves shifting the responsibility for managing specific risks to a third party. By outsourcing the security function, the organization transfers the associated risk to a vendor specializing in security management.
An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?
Options:
The third party s management
The organization's management
The control operators at the third party
The organization's vendor management office
Answer:
BExplanation:
Outsourcing IT security operations is a common practice that can provide benefits such as cost savings, access to specialized skills, and improved service quality12. However, outsourcing also introduces risks such as loss of control, dependency, contractual issues, and service failures12.
When an organization outsources its IT security operations to a third party, it does not transfer the accountability for the risk associated with the outsourced operations. Accountability is the obligation to answer for the execution of one’s assigned responsibilities34.
The organization’s management is ultimately accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations, as they are responsible for defining the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, and objectives, and for ensuring that the organization’s IT security operations are aligned with them34.
The organization’s management is also accountable for selecting, contracting, and overseeing the third party, and for ensuring that the third party meets the agreed service levels, standards, and compliance requirements34.
The organization’s management is also accountable for monitoring and reporting the risk associated with the outsourced operations, and for taking corrective actions when necessary34.
The other options are not ultimately accountable, but rather have different roles and responsibilities in relation to the outsourced operations. For example:
The third party’s management is responsible for delivering the IT security services according to the contract, and for managing the risk within their own organization34. They are accountable to the organization’s management, but not to the organization’s stakeholders.
The control operators at the third party are responsible for implementing and operating the IT security controls according to the service specifications, and for reporting any issues or incidents to the organization’s management34. They are accountable to the third party’s management, but not to the organization’s management or stakeholders.
The organization’s vendor management office is responsible for facilitating the relationship between the organization and the third party, and for supporting the organization’s management in the outsourcing process34. They are accountable to the organization’s management, but not for the risk associated with the outsourced operations. References =
1: Outsourcing IT Security: A Risk Management Perspective, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2019
2: The Cyber Security Risks Of Outsourcing, Cybersecurity Intelligence, January 4, 2022
3: Accountability for Information Security Roles and Responsibilities, Part 1, ISACA Journal, Volume 5, 2019
4: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?
Options:
Risk tolerance is decreased.
Residual risk is increased.
Inherent risk is increased.
Risk appetite is decreased
Answer:
BExplanation:
A critical patch is a software update that fixes a security vulnerability or a bug that may affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of a system or a network. A critical patch implementation is a process that applies the software update to the system or network in a timely and effective manner. The failure of a critical patch implementation is a situation where the software update is not applied or not applied correctly, which may expose the system or network to various threats, such as data theft, data corruption, data leakage, or denial of service. The failure of a critical patch implementation would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile by increasing the residual risk. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response, which means the risk that is not avoided, transferred, or mitigated by the existing controls or measures. The failure of a critical patch implementation would increase the residual risk, as it would reduce the effectiveness or efficiency of the existing controls or measures that are supposed to address the security vulnerability or the bug. The failure of a critical patch implementation would also increase the likelihood or impact of the potential threats, as well as the exposure or consequences of the system or network. The other options are not the correct changes that would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation, although they may be affected or related. Risk tolerance is the degree of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is not willing to accept. Risk tolerance may be decreased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become more cautious or conservative in accepting the risk, but it is not a direct or immediate change in the risk profile. Inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of any controls or measures, which means the risk that is inherent to the system or network or the environment. Inherent risk may be increased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the system or network may become more vulnerable or susceptible to the threats, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile considers the existing controls or measures. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite may be decreased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become less willing or able to accept the risk, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile reflects the actual or current risk level, not the desired or expected risk level. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 972; What is a Critical Patch? - Definition from Techopedia3; What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia4
Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?
Options:
Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts
Average time to provision user accounts
Password reset volume per month
Average account lockout time
Answer:
BExplanation:
The average time to provision user accounts is the most useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management (IAM) process, because it reflects how quickly and smoothly the process can grant access to the appropriate users. The average time to provision user accounts can be calculated by dividing the total time spent on provisioning user accounts by the number of user accounts provisioned in a given period. A lower average time indicates a more efficient IAM process, as it means that users can access the resources they need without unnecessary delays or errors. A higher average time may indicate problems or bottlenecks in the IAM process, such as manual steps, complex workflows, lack of automation, or insufficient resources. The average time to provision user accounts can also be compared across different applications, systems, or business units to identify areas for improvement or best practices. The other options are less useful indicators to measure the efficiency of an IAM process. The number of tickets for provisioning new accounts shows the demand for the IAM process, but not how well the process meets the demand. The password reset volume per month shows the frequency of password-related issues, but not how effectively the IAM process handles them. The average account lockout time shows the impact of account lockouts on user productivity, but not how efficiently the IAM process prevents or resolves them. References = Top Identity and Access Management Metrics
Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:
Options:
minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.
aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.
build a threat profile of the organization for management review.
provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.
Answer:
DExplanation:
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors primarily helps to provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions, which are the decisions that are made based on the consideration and evaluation of the risks and their responses. Providing a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions helps to ensure that the decisions are consistent, appropriate, and proportional to the level and nature of the risks, and that they support the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to optimize the balance between risk and return, and to create and protect value for the organization and its stakeholders.
The other options are not the primary benefits of periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of a risk register, which is to provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.
Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment means reducing the scope and depth of risk analysis and reporting, and impairing the organization’s ability to identify and respond to emerging or changing risks. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors does not necessarily minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment, and it may not be a desirable or beneficial outcome for the organization.
Aggregating risk scenarios identified across different business units means combining or consolidating the risks that are identified by different parts or functions of the organization, and creating a holistic or integrated view of the organization’s risk profile. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors does not necessarily aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units, and it may not be a sufficient or effective way to achieve a holistic or integrated view of the organization’s risk profile.
Building a threat profile of the organization for management review means creating or developing a summary or representation of the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations, and presenting or reporting it to the senior management for their awareness and approval. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors does not necessarily build a threat profile of the organization for management review, and it may not be a comprehensive or reliable way to create or develop a summary or representation of the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 172
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?
Options:
Testing the transmission of credit card numbers
Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers
Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers
Testing the DLP rule change control process
Answer:
AExplanation:
A data loss prevention (DLP) control is a technology that tries to detect and stop sensitive data breaches, or data leakage incidents, in an organization. A DLP control is used to prevent sensitive data, such as credit card numbers, from being disclosed to an unauthorized person, whether it is deliberate or accidental1. The best way to help ensure the effectiveness of a DLP control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data is to test the transmission of credit card numbers. This is a technique to verify that the DLP control can successfully identify and block the credit card data when it is sent or received through various channels, such as email, messaging, or file transfers. Testing the transmission of credit card numbers can help to evaluate the accuracy and reliability of the DLP control, as well as to identify and correct any false positives or false negatives. The other options are not the best ways to help ensure the effectiveness of a DLP control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data, although they may be helpful and complementary. Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers is a technique to monitor and analyze the DLP control activities and incidents, such as who, what, when, where, and how the data was transferred. However, reviewing logs is a reactive and passive approach, while testing the transmission is a proactive and active approach. Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers is a technique to set up the DLP control rules and policies, such as defining the data patterns, the detection methods, and the response actions. However, configuring the DLP control is a prerequisite and a preparation step, while testing the transmission is a validation and a verification step. Testing the DLP rule change control process is a technique to ensure that the DLP control rules and policies are updated and maintained in a controlled and coordinated manner, such as obtaining approval, documenting the changes, testing the changes, and communicating the changes. However, testing the DLP rule change control process is a quality and governance step, while testing the transmission is a performance and functionality step. References = What is Data Loss Prevention (DLP)? | Digital Guardian1; CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1652; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 833
Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?
Options:
Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.
A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.
A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.
The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best method to ensure a terminated employee’s access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization is to have the human resources (HR) system automatically revoke system access, which is a process that involves integrating the HR system with the IT system, and triggering the removal of access rights for the employee as soon as the termination is recorded in the HR system12.
This method is the best because it provides the most timely, accurate, and consistent way of revoking access, and reduces the risk of human error, oversight, or delay that may occur in manual or semi-automated processes12.
This method is also the best because it enhances the security and compliance of the organization, and prevents the terminated employee from accessing or compromising the IT systems or data after departure12.
The other options are not the best methods, but rather alternative or supplementary methods that may have some limitations or drawbacks. For example:
Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees is a method that involves monitoring and verifying the login activities of the IT systems, and comparing them with a list of terminated employees to identify and block any unauthorized access attempts34. However, this method is not the best because it is reactive rather than proactive, and may not prevent the terminated employee from accessing the IT systems before the reconciliation is done34.
A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access is a method that involves creating and maintaining a list of terminated employees, and checking it against the current IT access rights to identify and remove any access that is no longer needed34. However, this method is not the best because it is manual and labor-intensive, and may introduce errors or inconsistencies in the list or the access rights34.
A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented is a method that involves conducting an exit interview with the terminated employee, and revoking the employee’s access to the IT systems during or immediately after the interview34. However, this method is not the best because it depends on the availability and cooperation of the terminated employee, and may not cover all the IT systems or access rights that the employee had34. References =
1: IT Involvement in Employee Termination, A Checklist3
2: Best Practices to Ensure Departing Employees Retain No Access5
3: User Termination Best Practices - IT Security - Spiceworks2
4: IT Security for Employee Termination - Policies, Checklists, Templates - Endsight1
Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?
Options:
The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts
The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk
A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts
The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk and its associated controls1. The risk owner is also responsible for ensuring that the risk is within the acceptable level and that the risk response is effective and efficient2. Therefore, the most appropriate owner for a newly identified IT risk is the individual who has the authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk, as they have the most interest and influence on the risk and its impact on the business objectives. The other options are not the most appropriate owners for a newly identified IT risk, as they may not have the authority or the accountability to manage the risk. The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts may have the operational responsibility or the oversight of the risk management activities, but they may not have the authority to allocate the resources or approve the risk response. A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts may have the project management skills or the knowledge of the risk management process, but they may not have the accountability or the ownership of the risk or its outcomes. The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge may have the technical expertise or the understanding of the risk and its causes, but they may not have the decision-making power or the responsibility to manage the risk or its controls. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 822
During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?
Options:
Data validation
Identification
Authentication
Data integrity
Answer:
CExplanation:
Authentication is a control that verifies the identity of a user or a system that tries to access a computer system or network. Authentication can be based on something the user or system knows (such as a password or a PIN), something the user or system has (such as a token or a smart card), or something the user or system is (such as a fingerprint or a retina scan). Authentication is a crucial control for preventing unauthorized or malicious access to a system or network, as well as for ensuring the accountability and traceability of the actions performed by the user or system. If the authentication control is compromised, it means that the user or system can bypass or break the verification process and gain access to the system or network without being identified or authorized. This can expose the system or network to various threats, such as data theft, data corruption, data leakage, or denial of service. Therefore, the authentication control has most likely been compromised if a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. A firewall is a device or a software that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules and policies. A firewall can help to protect the system or network from external or internal attacks by blocking or allowing the traffic based on the source, destination, protocol, or content. However, a firewall cannot prevent an intruder from accessing the system or network if the intruder has already authenticated or impersonated a legitimate user or system. The other options are not the most likely controls to be compromised if a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall, although they may be affected or related. Data validation is a control that checks the accuracy, completeness, and quality of the data that is entered, processed, or stored by a system or a network. Data validation can help to prevent or detect data errors, anomalies, or inconsistencies that may affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of the system or network. However, data validation does not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious access to the system or network, as it only focuses on the data, not the user or system. Identification is a control that assigns a unique identifier to a user or a system that tries to access a computer system or network. Identification can be based on a username, an email address, a phone number, or a certificate. Identification is a necessary but not sufficient control for preventing unauthorized or malicious access to a system or network, as it only declares who or what the user or system is, but does not prove it. Identification needs to be combined with authentication to verify the identity of the user or system. Data integrity is a control that ensures that the data is accurate, consistent, and complete throughout its lifecycle. Data integrity can be achieved by implementing various controls, such as encryption, hashing, checksum, digital signature, or backup. Data integrity can help to protect the data from unauthorized or accidental modification, deletion, or corruption that may affect the value, meaning, or usability of the data. However, data integrity does not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious access to the system or network, as it only protects the data, not the user or system. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1651; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 952; What is Authentication? - Definition from Techopedia3; What is a Firewall? - Definition from Techopedia4
Which of the following roles would provide the MOST important input when identifying IT risk scenarios?
Options:
Information security managers
Internal auditors
Business process owners
Operational risk managers
Answer:
CExplanation:
Business process owners would provide the most important input when identifying IT risk scenarios. IT risk scenarios are the situations or events that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance due to the use of information and technology1. Identifying IT risk scenarios means finding, recognizing, and describing the IT risks that the organization faces, as well as their sources, drivers, consequences, and responses2. Business process owners are the persons or entities who are responsible for the design, implementation, and operation of the business processes that support the organization’s goals and values3. Business process owners would provide the most important input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they can:
Provide the context and perspective of the business objectives, strategies, and requirements that are affected or supported by the IT risks and controls;
Identify and prioritize the IT risks that are relevant and significant to their business processes, as well as the IT assets and resources that are involved or impacted by the IT risks;
Evaluate and communicate the likelihood and impact of the IT risks on their business processes, as well as the risk appetite and tolerance of their business units;
Suggest and implement the most suitable and effective IT risk response actions or measures to mitigate the IT risks, as well as monitor and report on the IT risk and control performance;
Align and integrate the IT risk management activities and outcomes with the business risk management framework, policies, and standards. The other options are not the most important roles for providing input when identifying IT risk scenarios, as they are either less relevant or less specific than business process owners. Information security managers are the persons or entities who are responsible for the planning, implementation, and maintenance of the information security measures and controls that protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization’s data and systems4. Information security managers can provide input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they can:
Provide the expertise and guidance on the information security risks and controls that are related to the use of information and technology;
Identify and assess the information security vulnerabilities and threats that may affect the organization’s data and systems, as well as the information security assets and resources that are involved or impacted by the information security risks;
Recommend and implement the most appropriate and effective information security risk response actions or measures to reduce or eliminate the information security risks, as well as monitor and report on the information security risk and control performance;
Align and integrate the information security risk management activities and outcomes with the information security framework, policies, and standards. However, information security managers are not the most important roles for providing input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they may not have the full understanding or visibility of the business objectives, strategies, and requirements that are affected or supported by the IT risks and controls, or the risk appetite and tolerance of the business units. Internal auditors are the persons or entities who are responsible for the independent and objective assurance and consulting on the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s governance, risk management, and internal control system5. Internal auditors can provide input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they can:
Provide the assurance and validation on the design and operation of the IT risks and controls that are related to the use of information and technology;
Identify and evaluate the IT risk and control gaps or deficiencies that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance, as well as the IT risk and control objectives and activities that are involved or impacted by the IT risk and control gaps or deficiencies;
Report and recommend improvements or enhancements to the IT risks and controls, as well as follow up and verify the implementation and effectiveness of the IT risk and control improvements or enhancements;
Align and integrate the IT risk and control assurance and consulting activities and outcomes with the internal audit framework, policies, and standards. However, internal auditors are not the most important roles for providing input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they may not have the authority or responsibility to implement or operate the IT risks and controls, or to decide or prioritize the IT risk response actions or measures. Operational risk managers are the persons or entities who are responsible for the identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment of the risks that arise from the failures or inadequacies of the organization’s people, processes, systems, or external events6. Operational risk managers can provide input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they can:
Provide the oversight and coordination of the operational risk management activities and performance across the organization, including the IT risks and controls that are related to the use of information and technology;
Identify and prioritize the operational risks that are relevant and significant to the organization, as well as the operational assets and resources that are involved or impacted by the operational risks;
Evaluate and communicate the likelihood and impact of the operational risks on the organization, as well as the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization;
Suggest and implement the most suitable and effective operational risk response actions or measures to mitigate the operational risks, as well as monitor and report on the operational risk and control performance;
Align and integrate the operational risk management activities and outcomes with the operational risk management framework, policies, and standards. However, operational risk managers are not the most important roles for providing input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they may not have the specific knowledge or expertise on the IT risks and controls that are related to the use of information and technology, or the context and perspective of the business processes that are affected or supported by the IT risks and controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, Page 85.
An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?
Options:
Employ security guards.
Conduct security awareness training.
Install security cameras.
Require security access badges.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Social engineering is a technique that involves manipulating or deceiving people into performing actions or divulging information that may compromise the security of an organization or its data12.
Entry into an organization’s secured physical premises is a form of physical access that allows an unauthorized individual to access, steal, or damage the organization’s assets, such as equipment, documents, or systems34.
The best way to prevent future occurrences of social engineering entry into an organization’s secured physical premises is to conduct security awareness training, which is an educational program that aims to equip the organization’s employees with the knowledge and skills they need to protect the organization’s data and sensitive information from cyber threats, such as hacking, phishing, or other breaches56.
Security awareness training is the best way because it helps the employees to recognize and resist the common and emerging social engineering techniques, such as tailgating, impersonation, or pretexting, that may be used by the attackers to gain physical access to the organization’s premises56.
Security awareness training is also the best way because it fosters a culture of security and responsibility among the employees, and encourages them to follow the best practices and policies for physical security, such as locking the doors, verifying the identity of visitors, or reporting any suspicious activities or incidents56.
The other options are not the best way, but rather possible measures or controls that may supplement or enhance the security awareness training. For example:
Employing security guards is a measure that involves hiring or contracting professional personnel who are trained and authorized to monitor, patrol, and protect the organization’s premises from unauthorized access or intrusion78. However, this measure is not the best way because it may not be sufficient or effective to prevent or deter all types of social engineering attacks, especially if the attackers are able to bypass, deceive, or coerce the security guards78.
Installing security cameras is a control that involves using electronic devices that capture and record the visual images of the organization’s premises, and provide evidence or alerts of any unauthorized access or activity . However, this control is not the best way because it is reactive rather than proactive, and may not prevent or stop the social engineering attacks before they cause any harm or damage to the organization .
Requiring security access badges is a control that involves using physical or electronic cards that identify and authenticate the employees or authorized visitors who are allowed to enter the organization’s premises, and restrict or deny the access to anyone else . However, this control is not the best way because it may not be foolproof or reliable to prevent or detect the social engineering attacks, especially if the attackers are able to steal, forge, or clone the security access badges . References =
1: What is Social Engineering? | Types & Examples of Social Engineering Attacks1
2: Social Engineering: What It Is and How to Prevent It | Digital Guardian2
3: What is physical Social Engineering and why is it important? - Integrity3603
4: What Is Tailgating (Piggybacking) In Cyber Security? - Wlan Labs4
5: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky5
6: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US6
7: Security Guard - Wikipedia7
8: Security Guard Services - Allied Universal8
: Security Camera - Wikipedia
: Security Camera Systems - The Home Depot
: Access Badge - Wikipedia
: Access Control Systems - HID Global
When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?
Options:
Assess management's risk tolerance.
Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.
Propose mitigating controls
Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control
Answer:
BExplanation:
IT control self-assessments are techniques that involve identifying and evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the IT controls that are designed and implemented to mitigate the IT risks, by the managers and staff within the organization12.
An ineffective control is a control that does not achieve its intended objective or purpose, or does not operate as designed or expected34.
A low residual risk scenario is a situation or occurrence that has a low likelihood and impact of affecting the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation, after considering the existing controls and their effectiveness56.
The next course of action when reviewing management’s IT control self-assessments and noting an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios is to recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios, which is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging and tolerating the level of risk exposure, and not taking any further action to reduce or eliminate it78.
Recommending management accept the low-risk scenarios is the next course of action because it is the most cost-effective and reasonable option, given that the level of risk exposure is low and acceptable, and the cost and effort of implementing or improving the control may outweigh the potential benefits or value78.
Recommending management accept the low-risk scenarios is also the next course of action because it is consistent with the risk management process and objectives, which are to identify and address the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders, and to optimize the balance between risk and reward78.
The other options are not the next course of action, but rather possible alternatives or steps that may be considered or followed in different circumstances or scenarios. For example:
Assessing management’s risk tolerance is a step that involves determining and communicating the acceptable or tolerable level of risk exposure for the organization or its business units, based on the organization’s risk appetite, criteria, and objectives78. However, this step is not the next course of action because it is usually done before or during the risk assessment process, and not after noting an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios78.
Proposing mitigating controls is a course of action that involves suggesting or recommending additional or alternative controls that can reduce or eliminate the level of risk exposure, and improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management process78. However, this course of action is not the next course of action because it is not necessary or appropriate for low residual risk scenarios, as the cost and effort of implementing or improving the controls may outweigh the potential benefits or value78.
Re-evaluating the risk scenarios associated with the control is a course of action that involves revising and updating the likelihood and impact of the risk scenarios, and the level of risk exposure or tolerance for the organization, based on the current or changed conditions or factors that influence the risk landscape78. However, this course of action is not the next course of action because it is not required or relevant for low residual risk scenarios, as the level of risk exposure is already low and acceptable, and the ineffective control does not significantly affect the risk assessment78. References =
1: Control Self Assessments - PwC1
2: Control self-assessment - Wikipedia2
3: Ineffective Controls: What They Are and How to Identify Them3
4: Ineffective Controls: What They Are and How to Identify Them4
5: Residual Risk - Definition and Examples5
6: Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management6
7: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
8: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?
Options:
Service level agreement
Customer service reviews
Scope of services provided
Right to audit the provider
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the right to audit the provider is the most important factor to help define the IT risk associated with outsourcing activity to a cloud-based service provider, as it enables the organization to verify the compliance and performance of the provider with the contractual obligations and service level agreements. The right to audit the provider helps to:
Assess the security, availability, confidentiality, integrity, and privacy of the data and processes hosted by the provider
Identify and evaluate the risks and controls related to the cloud-based services and the provider’s infrastructure
Monitor and measure the quality and effectiveness of the cloud-based services and the provider’s governance and management practices
Report and resolve any issues or incidents related to the cloud-based services and the provider’s operations
Ensure the alignment of the cloud-based services and the provider’s policies and standards with the organization’s objectives and requirements
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 176-1771
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step upon learning the impact of an organization's noncompliance with a specific legal regulation?
Options:
Identify risk response options.
Implement compensating controls.
Invoke the incident response plan.
Document the penalties for noncompliance.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:The next step is to identify risk response options to address the noncompliance and mitigate its impact. This may include corrective actions, implementing controls, or negotiating terms to reduce exposure.
In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?
Options:
The control catalog
The asset profile
Business objectives
Key risk indicators (KRls)
Answer:
CExplanation:
In addition to the risk register, which is a tool to document and monitor the risks that affect the organization, a risk practitioner should review the business objectives of the organization to develop an understanding of its risk profile. The risk profile is a description of the set of risks that the organization faces in relation to its goals and strategies. By reviewing the business objectives, the risk practitioner can identify the sources, drivers, and consequences of the risks, as well as the alignment, prioritization, and tolerance of the risks. The business objectives also provide the context and criteria for evaluating and managing the risks. The other options are not the best choices to review for developing an understanding of the organization’s risk profile, as they do not capture the full scope and nature of the risks. The control catalog is a list of the existing controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks, but it does not reflect the effectiveness, efficiency, or sufficiency of the controls. The asset profile is a description of the resources and capabilities that the organization possesses or relies on, but it does not indicate the value, vulnerability, or interdependency of the assets. The key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the level and trend of the risks, but they do not explain the causes, impacts, or responses to the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.2, Page 49.
Which of the following is the BEST way to validate the results of a vulnerability assessment?
Options:
Perform a penetration test.
Review security logs.
Conduct a threat analysis.
Perform a root cause analysis.
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the best way to validate the results of a vulnerability assessment is to perform a penetration test, which is a type of security testing that simulates an attack on the IT assets and processes to exploit the identified vulnerabilities and evaluate the potential impact and severity of the attack. Performing a penetration test helps to:
Confirm the existence and exploitability of the vulnerabilities detected by the vulnerability assessment
Measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the existing security controls and countermeasures
Identify and prioritize the risks and gaps in the security posture of the IT assets and processes
Recommend and implement appropriate remediation and mitigation actions to address the vulnerabilities and risks
Enhance the security awareness and resilience of the organization
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 36-371
Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?
Options:
The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.
The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.
The risk response is accounted for in the budget.
The risk response aligns with the organization's risk appetite.
Answer:
DExplanation:
A risk response is the action or plan that is taken to address a specific risk that has been identified, analyzed, and evaluated. It can be one of the following types: mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept.
The highest priority when developing a risk response is to ensure that it aligns with the organization’s risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its goals. The risk appetite is usually expressed as a range or a threshold, and it is aligned with the organization’s strategy and culture.
Aligning the risk response with the organization’s risk appetite ensures that the risk response is consistent, appropriate, and proportional to the level and nature of the risk, and that it supports the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to optimize the balance between risk and return, and to create and protect value for the organization and its stakeholders.
The other options are not the highest priority when developing a risk response, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the risk response is suitable and acceptable for the organization.
The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view means that the risk response considers the interrelationships and dependencies among the risk sources, events, impacts, and responses, and the potential secondary and residual effects of the risk response. This is important to ensure that the risk response is comprehensive and effective, and that it does not create new or unintended risks, but it is not the highest priority when developing a risk response, because it does not indicate whether the risk response is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis means that the risk response compares the expected costs and benefits of implementing the risk response, and selects the risk response that provides the most favorable net outcome. This is important to ensure that the risk response is efficient and economical, and that it maximizes the return on investment, but it is not the highest priority when developing a risk response, because it does not indicate whether the risk response is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The risk response is accounted for in the budget means that the risk response is included in the financial plan and allocation of resources for the organization or the project. This is important to ensure that the risk response is feasible and realistic, and that it has the necessary funding and support, but it is not the highest priority when developing a risk response, because it does not indicate whether the risk response is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 29-30, 34-35, 38-39, 44-45, 50-51, 54-55
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 147
Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?
Options:
Align business objectives to the risk profile.
Assess risk against business objectives
Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.
Explain risk details to management.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response is to assess risk against business objectives. This means comparing the level and nature of the risks with the goals and strategies of the organization, and determining which risks pose the most significant threat or opportunity to the achievement of those objectives. By assessing risk against business objectives, the risk practitioner can help management identify the most critical and relevant risks, and prioritize the risk response actions accordingly. The risk response actions should be aligned with the organization’s risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to take in order to meet its strategic goals1. The other options are not the best ways for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response, as they are either less effective or less specific than assessing risk against business objectives. Aligning business objectives to the risk profile is a way of ensuring that the organization’s objectives are realistic and achievable, given the current and potential risks that the organization faces. However, this is not the same as prioritizing risk response, as it does not indicate which risks should be addressed first or how they should be managed. Implementing an organization-specific risk taxonomy is a way of creating a common language and classification system for describing and categorizing risks. This can help improve the consistency and clarity of risk communication and reporting across the organization. However, this is not the same as prioritizing risk response, as it does not measure the likelihood and impact of the risks, or their relation to the organization’s objectives. Explaining risk details to management is a way of providing information and insight on the sources, drivers, consequences, and responses of the risks. This can help increase the awareness and understanding of the risks among the decision makers and stakeholders. However, this is not the same as prioritizing risk response, as it does not suggest or recommend the best course of action for managing the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.6, Page 57.
An organization that has been the subject of multiple social engineering attacks is developing a risk awareness program. The PRIMARY goal of this program should be to:
Options:
reduce the risk to an acceptable level.
communicate the consequences for violations.
implement industry best practices.
reduce the organization's risk appetite
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the primary goal of a risk awareness program is to reduce the risk to an acceptable level by increasing the knowledge and understanding of the risk among the stakeholders. A risk awareness program should:
Educate the stakeholders about the sources, types and impacts of IT-related risks
Explain the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders in the risk management process
Promote a risk-aware culture that supports the risk appetite and risk tolerance of the organization
Provide guidance and tools for identifying, assessing, responding and monitoring IT-related risks
Encourage the reporting and escalation of risk issues and incidents
Reinforce the benefits and value of effective risk management
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: IT Risk Reporting, pp. 224-2251
A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?
Options:
The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.
The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.
The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.
The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased is the information that would have the most impact on the overall recovery profile, as it indicates that the organization has improved its ability to restore its critical systems and processes within the acceptable time frames after a disaster. The recovery target time, also known as the recovery time objective (RTO), is the maximum acceptable time that an application, computer, network, or system can be down after an unexpected disaster, failure, or comparable event takes place. The recovery profile, also known as the recovery point objective (RPO), is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. A lower percentage of systems with long recovery target times means that the organization has:
Reduced the gap between the business requirements and the IT capabilities for disaster recovery
Enhanced the resilience and availability of its critical systems and processes
Minimized the potential losses and damages caused by prolonged downtime
Increased the confidence and satisfaction of its stakeholders and customers
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 174-1751
Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of key risk indicators (KRIs)'
Options:
Assisting in continually optimizing risk governance
Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends
Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements
Providing an early warning to take proactive actions
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most important benefit of key risk indicators (KRIs) is providing an early warning to take proactive actions, because this helps organizations to prevent or mitigate potential risks that may impact their operations, objectives, or performance. KRIs are specific metrics that measure the level and impact of risks, and provide timely signals that something may be going wrong or needs urgent attention. By monitoring and analyzing KRIs, organizations can identify and assess emerging or existing risks, and initiate appropriate risk responses before the risks escalate into significant issues. This can enhance the organization’s resilience, competitiveness, and value creation. The other options are less important benefits of KRIs. Assisting in continually optimizing risk governance is a benefit of KRIs, but it is not the most important one. Risk governance is the framework and process that defines how an organization manages its risks, including the roles, responsibilities, policies, and standards. KRIs can help to evaluate and improve the effectiveness and efficiency of risk governance, but they are not the only factor that influences it. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends is a benefit of KRIs, but it is not the most important one. Documenting and analyzing trends can help organizations to understand the patterns, causes, and consequences of risks, and to learn from their experiences. However, this benefit is more relevant for historical or retrospective analysis, rather than for proactive action. Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements is a benefit of KRIs, but it is not the most important one. Compliance is the adherence to the laws, regulations, and standards that apply to an organization’s activities and operations. KRIs can help to monitor and demonstrate compliance, but they are not the only tool or objective for doing so. References = Why Key Risk Indicators Are Important for Risk Management 1
Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?
Options:
Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape
Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment
Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit
Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors
Answer:
DExplanation:
Detailed Explanation:An updated risk register ensures that decision-makers have accurate, timely information about current risks, enabling informed, risk-based decisions that align with organizational priorities and changes in the environment.
The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?
Options:
Perform a root cause analysis
Perform a code review
Implement version control software.
Implement training on coding best practices
Answer:
AExplanation:
A root cause analysis is a process of identifying and understanding the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in a problem or incident that has occurred or may occur in the organization. A root cause analysis can provide useful insights and solutions on the origin and nature of the problem or incident, and prevent or reduce its recurrence or impact.
Performing a root cause analysis is the risk practitioner’s best recommendation when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because it can help the organization to address the following questions:
Why did the application code require rework?
What were the errors or defects in the application code?
How did the errors or defects affect the functionality or usability of the application?
Who was responsible or accountable for the application code development and testing?
When and how were the errors or defects detected and reported?
What were the costs or consequences of the rework for the organization and its stakeholders?
How can the errors or defects be prevented or minimized in the future?
Performing a root cause analysis can help the organization to improve and optimize the application code quality and performance, and to reduce or eliminate the need for rework. It can also help the organization to align the application code development and testing with the organization’s objectives and requirements, and to comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the risk practitioner’s best recommendations when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of performing a root cause analysis, which is to identify and understand the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in the problem or incident.
Performing a code review is a process of examining and evaluating the application code for its quality, functionality, and security, using the input and feedback from the peers, experts, or tools. Performing a code review can help the organization to identify and resolve the errors or defects in the application code, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
Implementing version control software is a process of using a software tool to manage and track the changes and modifications to the application code, and to ensure the consistency and integrity of the application code. Implementing version control software can help the organization to control and monitor the application code development and testing, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
Implementing training on coding best practices is a process of providing and facilitating the learning and development of the skills and knowledge on the principles, guidelines, and standards for the application code development and testing. Implementing training on coding best practices can help the organization to enhance the competence and performance of the application code developers and testers, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 189
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?
Options:
Risk register
Risk appetite
Risk priorities
Risk heat maps
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification is the risk priorities. Risk priorities are the order or ranking of the risks based on their level of importance or urgency. Risk priorities help the risk practitioner to focus on the most critical risks, and allocate the resources and efforts accordingly. Risk priorities are usually determined by using a combination of factors, such as the likelihood and impact of the risks, the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and the cost and benefit of the risk responses. The other options are not as useful as the risk priorities, although they may provide some input or context for the risk response planning. The risk register is the document that records the details of all identified risks, but it does not necessarily indicate the risk priorities. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to pursue, retain, or take, but it does not specify the risk priorities. The risk heat maps are graphical tools that display the risk level of each risk based on the likelihood and impact, but they do not show the risk priorities. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-23.
Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?
Options:
A centralized computer security response team
Regular performance reviews and management check-ins
Code of ethics training for all employees
Communication of employee activity monitoring
Answer:
DExplanation:
Employee activity monitoring is the process of tracking and recording the actions and behaviors of employees on company owned IT systems, such as email, internet, applications, etc. The purpose of employee activity monitoring is to ensure compliance with the company’s policies and regulations, prevent data leakage and misuse, detect and deter inappropriate or malicious activities, and improve productivity and performance. The most likely way to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems is to communicate the employee activity monitoring policy and practice to the employees, and make them aware of the consequences of violating the policy. By doing so, the company can create a deterrent effect and discourage the employees from misusing the IT systems, as they know that their actions are being monitored and recorded, and that they will be held accountable for any misconduct. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 181.
Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?
Options:
An alert being reported by the security operations center.
Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response
Completion of a project for implementing a new control
Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan
Answer:
CExplanation:
The completion of a project for implementing a new control would most likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their analysis, and their responses. The completion of a project for implementing a new control means that a risk response has been executed and a new control has been established. This may affect the likelihood and/or impact of the related risks, and the residual risk level. Therefore, the risk practitioner should update the risk register to reflect the current status and outcome of the risk response and the new control. The other options are not as likely to require a risk practitioner to update the risk register, as they are related to the reporting, planning, or assessment of the risks or the controls, not the implementation or completion of the risk response or the new control. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to minimize risk?
Options:
Industry best practice review
Risk assessment
Cost-benefit analysis
Control-effectiveness evaluation
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best approach for selecting controls to minimize risk is to perform a risk assessment. A risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the risks that could affect the organization’s objectives or operations. A risk assessment helps to determine the likelihood and impact of the risks, and to prioritize them based on their severity and relevance. A risk assessment also helps to select the most appropriate and effective controls to minimize the risks, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risks. A risk assessment is the best approach for selecting controls, because it helps to align the controls with the organization’s risk profile, risk appetite, and risk objectives, and to ensure that the controls are adequate, suitable, and cost-effective. The other options are not the best approach for selecting controls, although they may be part of or derived from the risk assessment. Industry best practice review, cost-benefit analysis, and control-effectiveness evaluation are all activities that can help to support or improve the control selection, but they are not the best approach for selecting controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
An organization control environment is MOST effective when:
Options:
control designs are reviewed periodically
controls perform as intended.
controls are implemented consistently.
controls operate efficiently
Answer:
BExplanation:
The organization control environment is most effective when the controls perform as intended. The controls are the mechanisms or measures that are designed and implemented to prevent, detect, or correct the risks that may affect the achievement of the objectives. The controls perform as intended when they provide reasonable assurance that the risks are mitigated or managed to an acceptable level, and that the objectives are met or exceeded. The performance of the controls can be measured and evaluated by using key performance indicators (KPIs) and key risk indicators (KRIs). The other options are not as indicative of the effectiveness of the control environment, as they are related to the review, implementation, or efficiency of the controls, not the performance or assurance of the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 69.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?
Options:
User acceptance testing (UAT)
Database activity monitoring
Source code review
Vulnerability analysis
Answer:
CExplanation:
A source code review is the process of examining and analyzing the source code of an application to identify any vulnerabilities, errors, or flaws that may compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the application. A source code review is the most effective way to identify an application backdoor prior to implementation, as it can detect any hidden or unauthorized code that may allow unauthorized access, bypass security controls, or execute malicious commands. A source code review can also help to improve the quality and reliability of the application, and ensure compliance with the coding standards and best practices. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 181.
An organization has decided to postpone the assessment and treatment of several risk scenarios because stakeholders are unavailable. As a result of this decision, the risk associated with these new entries has been;
Options:
mitigated
deferred
accepted.
transferred
Answer:
CExplanation:
The result of postponing the assessment and treatment of several risk scenarios is that the risk associated with these new entries has been accepted. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging the existence of a risk and deciding not to take any action to reduce its likelihood or impact. By postponing the assessment and treatment of the risk scenarios, the organization is implicitly accepting the risk and its consequences. Risk mitigation, deferral, and transfer are other possible risk response strategies, but they are not applicable in this case. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 9; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 137.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?
Options:
Organization's industry sector
Long-term organizational goals
Concerns of the business process owners
History of risk events
Answer:
BExplanation:
Risk strategies are the plans and actions that an organization adopts to manage its risks and to achieve its objectives. Risk strategies should be aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, values, and culture, as well as its internal and external environment. The most important consideration when developing risk strategies is the long-term organizational goals, meaning that the risk strategies should support and enable the organization to pursue and attain its desired future state and outcomes. The long-term organizational goals should guide the risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring processes, as well as the risk appetite and tolerance levels. The long-term organizational goals should also be communicated and cascaded throughout the organization to ensure the risk awareness and engagement of all stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, p. 27-28
Which of The following BEST represents the desired risk posture for an organization?
Options:
Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance.
Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance.
Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance.
Residual risk is lower than risk tolerance.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best representation of the desired risk posture for an organization is when the residual risk is lower than the risk tolerance. Residual risk is the remaining risk after the implementation of risk responses or controls. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of risk that the organization is willing to take or bear. The desired risk posture is when the organization has reduced the residual risk to a level that is equal to or lower than the risk tolerance, which means that the organization has achieved its risk objectives and is comfortable with the remaining risk exposure. The other options are not the best representation of the desired risk posture, as they indicate that the organization has not effectively managed its risk. Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance means that the organization has not identified or assessed its risk properly, as inherent risk is the risk before any controls or responses are applied. Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance means that the organization has not implemented or monitored its risk responses or controls adequately, as operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, and systems. Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance means that the organization has not aligned its risk appetite and risk tolerance, as accepted risk is the risk that the organization chooses to retain or take without any further action. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 2-23.
When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is MOST important to ensure the report includes
Options:
risk exposure in business terms
a detailed view of individual risk exposures
a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization.
recommendations by an independent risk assessor.
Answer:
AExplanation:
When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is most important to ensure the report includes risk exposure in business terms. Risk exposure is the potential loss or harm that may result from a risk event. Expressing risk exposure in business terms can help senior management to understand the impact and significance of the risk on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value. A detailed view of individual risk exposures, a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization, and recommendations by an independent risk assessor are other possible contents of the report, but they are not as important as risk exposure in business terms. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?
Options:
Enroll the employee in additional security training.
Invoke the incident response plan.
Conduct an internal audit.
Instruct the vendor to delete the data.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best recommendation for a risk practitioner upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor is to invoke the incident response plan. An incident response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for detecting, analyzing, containing, eradicating, recovering, and reporting on security incidents that could affect the organization’s IT systems or data. An incident response plan helps to protect and restore the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization’s information assets, and to comply with the relevant laws, regulations, standards, and contracts. Invoking the incident response plan is the best recommendation, because it helps to respond to and mitigate the security incident, and to minimize the damage and impact of the data disclosure. Invoking the incident response plan also helps to communicate and coordinate the incident response actions and strategies with the internal and external stakeholders, such as the data owners, users, custodians, and regulators, and to report and disclose the incident as required. The other options are not as effective as invoking the incident response plan, although they may be part of or derived from the incident response plan. Enrolling the employee in additional security training, conducting an internal audit, and instructing the vendor to delete the data are all examples of corrective or preventive actions, which may help to prevent or deter the recurrence of the data disclosure, or to verify or validate the data security, but they do not necessarily address or resolve the current security incident. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 5-32.
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the results of an independent control assessment to determine the effectiveness of a vendor's control environment?
Options:
The report was provided directly from the vendor.
The risk associated with multiple control gaps was accepted.
The control owners disagreed with the auditor's recommendations.
The controls had recurring noncompliance.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most concerning issue when reviewing the results of an independent control assessment to determine the effectiveness of a vendor’s control environment is that the controls had recurring noncompliance. This indicates that the vendor’s controls are not operating as intended or designed, and that the vendor is not taking corrective actions to address the control deficiencies. This can increase the risk exposure and liability for the organization that outsources the service or function to the vendor. The report being provided directly from the vendor, the risk associated with multiple control gaps being accepted, and the control owners disagreeing with the auditor’s recommendations are other possible issues, but they are not as critical as the recurring noncompliance. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of a three lines of defense structure?
Options:
An effective risk culture that empowers employees to report risk
Effective segregation of duties to prevent internal fraud
Clear accountability for risk management processes
Improved effectiveness and efficiency of business operations
Answer:
CExplanation:
A three lines of defense structure is a model that defines the roles and responsibilities of different functions and levels within an organization for risk management and control. The first line of defense is the operational management, which is responsible for owning and managing the risks. The second line of defense is the risk management and compliance functions, which are responsible for overseeing and supporting the risk management processes. The third line of defense is the internal audit function, which is responsible for providing independent assurance on the effectiveness of the risk management and control systems. The greatest benefit of a three lines of defense structure is that it provides clear accountability for risk management processes, as it clarifies who is responsible for what, and how they interact and communicate with each other. This can help to avoid duplication, confusion, or gaps in the risk management activities, and ensure that the risks are properly identified, assessed, treated, monitored, and reported. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 107.
Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?
Options:
An established process for project change management
Retention of test data and results for review purposes
Business managements review of functional requirements
Segregation between development, test, and production
Answer:
AExplanation:
The best control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development is an established process for project change management. Scope creep is the uncontrolled expansion of the project scope due to changes in requirements, specifications, or expectations. A project change management process can help to prevent or reduce scope creep by defining the procedures for requesting, reviewing, approving, and implementing changes in the project. Retention of test data and results, business management review of functional requirements, and segregation between development, test, and production are other possible controls, but they are not as effective as a project change management process. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?
Options:
Human resources (HR) manager
System administrator
Data privacy manager
Compliance manager
Answer:
AExplanation:
The HR manager is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to collect, process, and protect the personal data of the employees in the organization. The HR manager helps to manage the employee personal data, because they help to establish and enforce the data policies and standards for the employees, and to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements, such as the GDPR. The HR manager also helps to monitor and report on the data performance and compliance for the employees, and to identify and address any issues or gaps in the data management activities. The other options are not the best person to manage the employee personal data, although they may be involved in the process. System administrator, data privacy manager, and compliance manager are all examples of roles or functions that can help to support or implement the data management activities, but they do not necessarily have the authority or responsibility to collect, process, or protect the employee personal data
An organization has asked an IT risk practitioner to conduct an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization's customer service operations overseas. Which of the following would MOST significantly impact management's decision?
Options:
Time zone difference of the outsourcing location
Ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company
Cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country
Historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most significant factor that would impact management’s decision when conducting an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization’s customer service operations overseas is the cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country. Cross-border information transfer restrictions are the laws, regulations, standards, or contracts that govern the collection, processing, storage, or transmission of information across national or regional boundaries. Cross-border information transfer restrictions may affect the organization’s outsourcing initiative, because they may impose limitations, obligations, or penalties on the organization or the outsourcing company, such as requiring consent, notification, or authorization, or prohibiting or restricting certain types or categories of information. Cross-border information transfer restrictions may also create challenges or risks for the organization’s outsourcing initiative, such as compliance, legal, reputational, or operational risks, or conflicts or inconsistencies with the organization’s own policies, regulations, standards, or contracts. The other options are not as significant as the cross-border information transfer restrictions, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the organization’s outsourcing initiative. Time zone difference of the outsourcing location, ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company, and historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location are all factors that could affect the efficiency and effectiveness of the outsourcing initiative, but they do not directly affect the legality or security of the outsourcing initiative. References = 3
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?
Options:
Perform a gap analysis
Conduct system testing
Implement compensating controls
Update security policies
Answer:
AExplanation:
Performing a gap analysis is the best recommendation for a risk practitioner upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization. A gap analysis can help identify the current state of compliance, the desired state of compliance, and the actions needed to achieve compliance. Conducting system testing, implementing compensating controls, and updating security policies are possible actions that may result from the gap analysis, but they are not the best initial recommendation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 1; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 143.
Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?
Options:
Some critical business applications are not included in the plan
Several recovery activities will be outsourced
The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework
The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most concerning issue found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) is that some critical business applications are not included in the plan. This means that the DRP is incomplete and does not cover all the essential IT systems and services that support the business continuity. This could result in significant losses and damages in the event of a disaster. The other issues are not as critical, as they can be addressed by ensuring proper contracts, standards, and approvals are in place for the outsourced activities, the framework, and the CISO. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:
Options:
by the security administration team.
successfully within the expected time frame.
successfully during the first attempt.
without causing an unplanned system outage.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed successfully within the expected time frame. This KPI can help to evaluate how well the security patching process meets the predefined objectives and standards, and how timely the patches are applied to reduce the risk exposure. The percentage of patches installed by the security administration team, successfully during the first attempt, or without causing an unplanned system outage are other possible KPIs, but they are not as relevant as the percentage of patches installed successfully within the expected time frame. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
A risk practitioner observed Vial a high number of pokey exceptions were approved by senior management. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action to determine root cause?
Options:
Review the risk profile
Review pokey change history
interview the control owner
Perform control testing
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best course of action to determine the root cause of the high number of policy exceptions approved by senior management is to interview the control owner. The control owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for designing, implementing, and monitoring the controls that enforce the policy. The control owner can provide insight into the reasons, circumstances, and impacts of the policy exceptions, and the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls. The control owner can also suggest possible improvements or alternatives to the policy or the controls. The other options are not as useful as interviewing the control owner, as they are related to the review, analysis, or testing of the policy or the controls, not the investigation or understanding of the policy exceptions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices?
Options:
Scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory.
Prohibit the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software.
Conduct frequent reviews of software licenses.
Perform frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices is to scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory. An asset inventory is a document that records and tracks all the hardware and software assets that are owned, used, or managed by the organization, such as laptops, tablets, smartphones, servers, applications, etc. An asset inventory helps to identify and classify the assets based on their type, model, location, owner, status, etc. An asset inventory also helps to monitor and control the assets, such as enforcing security policies, applying patches and updates, detecting and resolving issues, etc. Scanning end points for applications not included in the asset inventory helps to minimize the risk of unauthorized software, because it helps to discover and remove any software that is not approved, authorized, or licensed by the organization, and that may pose security, legal, or operational risks, such as malware, spyware, pirated software, etc. The other options are not as effective as scanning end points for applications not included in the asset inventory, although they may provide some protection or compliance for the software assets. Prohibiting the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software, conducting frequent reviews of software licenses, and performing frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure are all examples of preventive or detective controls, which may help to prevent or deter the installation or use of unauthorized software, or to verify or validate the software assets, but they do not necessarily discover or remove the unauthorized software. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.
Options:
data logging and monitoring
data mining and analytics
data classification and labeling
data retention and destruction
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for data retention and destruction. Data retention and destruction policies and procedures define the criteria, methods, and schedules for retaining and disposing of electronic data. They help to ensure that the electronic data is stored, managed, and deleted in a consistent, secure, and compliant manner. They also help to reduce the volume, complexity, and cost of retrieving electronic evidence, as they limit the scope, duration, and frequency of the data preservation and discovery process. The other options are not as effective as data retention and destruction policies and procedures, as they are related to the collection, analysis, or classification of electronic data, not the retention or destruction of electronic data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?
Options:
Implementing risk treatment plans
Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts
Establishing risk policies and standards
Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary risk management responsibility of the first line of defense is to implement risk treatment plans. The first line of defense is the operational management and staff who are directly involved in the execution of the business activities and processes. They are responsible for identifying, assessing, and responding to the risks that affect their objectives and performance. Implementing risk treatment plans means applying the appropriate risk response strategies and actions to address the identified risks, and monitoring and reporting the results and outcomes of the risk treatment. The other options are not as primary as implementing risk treatment plans, as they are related to the validation, establishment, or review of the risk management process, not the execution of the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Management Process, page 15.
If preventive controls cannot be Implemented due to technology limitations, which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce risk7
Options:
Evaluate alternative controls.
Redefine the business process to reduce the risk.
Develop a plan to upgrade technology.
Define a process for monitoring risk.
Answer:
AExplanation:
If preventive controls cannot be implemented due to technology limitations, the first step to reduce risk is to evaluate alternative controls. Alternative controls are those that can achieve the same or similar objectives as the original preventive controls, but using different methods or technologies. For example, if a firewall cannot be installed due to hardware compatibility issues, an alternative control could be a network segmentation or a proxy server. Evaluating alternative controls requires assessing their feasibility, effectiveness, efficiency, and cost-benefit. Redefining the business process, developing a plan to upgrade technology, and defining a process for monitoring risk are also possible actions to reduce risk, but they are not the first step, and they may not be feasible or desirable in some situations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-23.
Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies?
Options:
Existing IT environment
IT strategic plan
Risk register
Organizational strategic plan
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies is the organizational strategic plan. The organizational strategic plan is a document that defines the vision, mission, goals, and objectives of the organization. It also outlines the strategies, actions, and resources that are needed to achieve them. The organizational strategic plan provides the direction, alignment, and guidance for the use of emerging technologies, and ensures that they are aligned with and support the organizational needs and priorities. The other options are not as important as the organizational strategic plan, as they are related to the current state, specific area, or potential issues of the use of emerging technologies, not the overall purpose and value of the use of emerging technologies. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2: IT Risk Identification Methods, page 19.
Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:
Options:
helping personnel make better-informed decisions
assisting the development of a risk register.
improving the effectiveness of IT controls.
increasing participation in the risk assessment process.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Effective risk communication best benefits an organization by helping personnel make better-informed decisions. Risk communication is the process of exchanging information and opinions among stakeholders about the nature, magnitude, significance, or control of a risk. By communicating risk information clearly and consistently, the organization can enhance the understanding and awareness of the risk, and enable the personnel to make decisions that are aligned with the risk appetite and objectives of the organization. Assisting the development of a risk register, improving the effectiveness of IT controls, and increasing participation in the risk assessment process are other possible benefits, but they are not as important as helping personnel make better-informed decisions. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?
Options:
Verify authorization by senior management.
Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level
Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime
Update the risk response in the risk register.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The risk practitioner’s most important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance is to verify authorization by senior management. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging and agreeing to bear the risk and its potential consequences. Risk tolerance is the acceptable or allowable level of variation or deviation from the expected or desired outcomes or objectives. When the risk acceptance exceeds the risk tolerance, it means that the organization is taking on more risk than it can handle or afford. Therefore, the risk practitioner should verify that the risk acceptance is authorized by senior management, who have the authority and accountability for making risk management decisions and ensuring that they are aligned with the organizational strategy and objectives. The other options are not as important as verifying authorization by senior management, as they are related to the adjustments, conditions, or documentation of the risk acceptance, not the approval or validation of the risk acceptance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page 133.
A bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?
Options:
Determine whether risk responses are still adequate.
Analyze and update control assessments with the new processes.
Analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed.
Conduct testing of the control that mitigate the existing risk.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best course of action for a risk practitioner when a bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization is to analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed. Blockchain technology is a new and emerging technology that may introduce new risks or change the existing risks for the bank. Therefore, the risk practitioner should perform a risk analysis to identify, assess, and evaluate the risks associated with the Blockchain technology, and update the risk register accordingly. Determining whether risk responses are still adequate, analyzing and updating control assessments, and conducting testing of the controls are possible actions that may follow the risk analysis, but they are not the best initial course of action. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?
Options:
Business benefits of shadow IT
Application-related expresses
Classification of the data
Volume of data
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most important input into the assessment of the risk of shadow IT usage is the classification of the data that is being processed, stored, or transmitted by the unauthorized applications or devices. This determines the level of confidentiality, integrity, and availability that is required for the data and the potential impact of a breach or loss. Business benefits of shadow IT, application-related expenses, and volume of data are less important inputs that may affect the risk analysis, but not as much as the data classification. References = Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, page 28; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 98.
A risk practitioner has collaborated with subject matter experts from the IT department to develop a large list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) for all IT operations within the organization of the following, who should review the completed list and select the appropriate KRIs for implementation?
Options:
IT security managers
IT control owners
IT auditors
IT risk owners
Answer:
DExplanation:
IT risk owners are the most appropriate people to review the completed list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) and select the ones that should be implemented. IT risk owners are the individuals who have the authority and accountability to manage the IT risks within their scope of responsibility. They are also responsible for defining the risk appetite, tolerance, and thresholds for their IT operations, and for ensuring that the KRIs are aligned with the business objectives and risk management strategy. IT security managers, IT control owners, and IT auditors are also involved in the risk management process, but they do not have the same level of authority and accountability as IT risk owners, and they may have different perspectives and priorities on the selection of KRIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1, page 1-13.
A risk practitioner implemented a process to notify management of emergency changes that may not be approved. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide this information to management?
Options:
Change logs
Change management meeting minutes
Key control indicators (KCIs)
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best way to provide information to management about emergency changes that may not be approved is to use key risk indicators (KRIs). KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. KRIs help to provide information to management about emergency changes, because they help to alert and inform management about the potential risks and consequences of the changes, and to support the risk decision-making and reporting processes. KRIs also help to provide information to management about emergency changes, because they help to track and evaluate the effectiveness and performance of the changes, and to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise from the changes. The other options are not the best way to provide information to management about emergency changes, although they may be part of or derived from the KRIs. Change logs, change management meeting minutes, and key control indicators (KCIs) are all examples of documentation or communication tools, which may help to record or report the details and status of the changes, but they do not necessarily measure or monitor the risks and outcomes of the changes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.5.1, page 4-38.
Which of the following resources is MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when updating the likelihood rating in the risk register?
Options:
Risk control assessment
Audit reports with risk ratings
Penetration test results
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Answer:
CExplanation:
Penetration test results are the most helpful resource to a risk practitioner when updating the likelihood rating in the risk register. Penetration testing is a method of simulating real-world attacks on an IT system or network to identify and exploit vulnerabilities and measure the potential impact. Penetration test results provide empirical evidence of the existence and severity of vulnerabilities, as well as the ease and probability of exploitation. These results can help the risk practitioner to update the likelihood rating of the risks associated with the vulnerabilities, and to prioritize the risk response actions. Risk control assessment, audit reports with risk ratings, and business impact analysis (BIA) are also useful resources for risk management, but they are not as directly related to the likelihood rating as penetration test results. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3, page 2-28.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing an overview of an organization's risk management program?
Options:
Risk management treatment plan
Risk assessment results
Risk management framework
Risk register
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most helpful source in providing an overview of an organization’s risk management program is the risk management framework. The risk management framework is a set of components that provide the foundations and organizational arrangements for designing, implementing, monitoring, reviewing, and continually improving risk management throughout the organization. The framework includes the risk management principles, policies, processes, procedures, roles, responsibilities, and resources that enable the organization to manage risk effectively. Risk management treatment plan, risk assessment results, and risk register are other sources that may provide some information about the risk management program, but they are not as comprehensive as the risk management framework. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the
Options:
regulatory environment of the organization
risk management capability of the organization
board of directors' response to identified risk factors
importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals
Answer:
CExplanation:
The board of directors’ response to identified risk factors is the best indicator of the risk appetite of an organization. The board of directors is the highest governing body of the organization, and it is responsible for setting the strategic direction, objectives, and risk appetite of the organization. The board of directors should also oversee the risk management process, and ensure that the risks are aligned with the organization’s goals and values. The board of directors’ response to identified risk factors reflects how much and what type of risk the organization is willing to pursue, retain, or take in order to achieve its objectives. The regulatory environment, the risk management capability, and the importance assigned to IT are not direct indicators of the risk appetite, although they may influence or constrain it. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-8.
Of the following, who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production?
Options:
Information security officer
IT risk manager
Business owner
Chief risk officer (CRO)
Answer:
CExplanation:
The business owner is the person who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production. The business owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the business process or function that is supported by the application system. The business owner should approve the change to ensure that it meets the business requirements, objectives, and expectations, and that it does not introduce any adverse impacts or risks to the business operations. The information security officer, the IT risk manager, and the chief risk officer (CRO) are not responsible for the approval of the change, although they may provide input, feedback, or oversight. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 3-32.
Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization's key IT applications in a cloud environment?
Options:
Reviewing the results of independent audits
Performing a site visit to the cloud provider's data center
Performing a due diligence review
Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization’s key IT applications in a cloud environment is conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders. A risk workshop is a facilitated session that involves brainstorming, discussing, and analyzing the potential risks and opportunities related to a specific topic or project. A risk workshop helps to identify and prioritize the most relevant and significant risk scenarios, as well as to explore the possible causes, impacts, and responses. A risk workshop also helps to engage and align the key stakeholders, such as the business owners, IT managers, cloud providers, and risk experts, and to leverage their knowledge, experience, and perspectives. The other options are not as helpful as conducting a risk workshop, although they may provide some input or information for the risk scenario development. Reviewing the results of independent audits, performing a site visit to the cloud provider’s data center, and performing a due diligence review are all activities that can help to assess the current state and performance of the cloud environment, but they do not necessarily generate or evaluate the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
An organization wants to grant remote access to a system containing sensitive data to an overseas third party. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to management?
Options:
Transborder data transfer restrictions
Differences in regional standards
Lack of monitoring over vendor activities
Lack of after-hours incident management support
Answer:
CExplanation:
Granting remote access to a system containing sensitive data to an overseas third party poses various risks to the organization, such as data breaches, unauthorized access, data loss, compliance violations, or reputational damage. The greatest concern to management when granting remote access to a third party is the lack of monitoring over vendor activities, meaning that the organization may not be able to control or verify how the third party is accessing, using, storing, or transferring the sensitive data. The lack of monitoring over vendor activities can increase the risk exposure and uncertainty of the organization, as well as reduce the accountability and transparency of the third party. Therefore, the organization should implement appropriate measures to monitor and audit the vendor activities, such as logging, reporting, reviewing, or testing, and to ensure that the vendor complies with the contractual obligations and the security policies and standards of the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2.1, p. 243-244
An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?
Options:
Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
Data anonymization
Data cleansing
Data encryption
Answer:
BExplanation:
Data anonymization is the most important control to ensure the privacy of customer information when participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis. Data anonymization is the process of removing or modifying personally identifiable information (PII) from data sets, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc., so that the data cannot be traced back to specific individuals. Data anonymization protects the confidentiality and privacy of customers, while still allowing for meaningful analysis and comparison of data. Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs), data cleansing, and data encryption are also useful controls, but they do not eliminate the risk of data breaches or unauthorized access to PII. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?
Options:
Recovery time objectives (RTOs)
Segregation of duties
Communication plan
Critical asset inventory
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program for all employees of the organization is the communication plan. A communication plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for communicating with the internal and external stakeholders before, during, and after a business continuity event. A communication plan helps to ensure that the relevant and accurate information is delivered to the appropriate parties in a timely and consistent manner, and that the feedback and responses are received and addressed accordingly. A communication plan also helps to maintain the trust, confidence, and reputation of the organization, and to comply with the legal or regulatory requirements. A communication plan is the most important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program, because it helps to prepare and educate the employees on how to communicate effectively and efficiently in a business continuity event, and how to avoid or minimize the communication errors, gaps, or conflicts that could affect the business continuity performance and recovery. The other options are not as important as the communication plan, although they may also be covered in a business continuity awareness training program. Recovery time objectives (RTOs), segregation of duties, and critical asset inventory are all factors that could affect the business continuity planning and implementation, but they are not the most important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program. References = 6
Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?
Options:
Conducting awareness training
Executing a risk response plan
Establishing an organization's risk tolerance
Performing periodic audits
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best way to mitigate an identified risk scenario is to execute a risk response plan. A risk response plan is a document that describes the actions and resources that are needed to address the risk scenario. A risk response plan can include one or more of the following strategies: avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept, or exploit. By executing a risk response plan, the organization can reduce the likelihood and/or impact of the risk scenario, or take advantage of the opportunities that the risk scenario may present. The other options are not as effective as executing a risk response plan, as they are related to the awareness, assessment, or monitoring of the risk scenario, not the actual treatment of the risk scenario. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page 133.
A highly regulated enterprise is developing a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios What should be done FIRST by IT governance to support this effort?
Options:
Request a regulatory risk reporting methodology
Require critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks.
Establish IT-specific compliance objectives
Communicate IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers
Answer:
CExplanation:
The first thing that should be done by IT governance to support the development of a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios is to establish IT-specific compliance objectives. Compliance objectives are the goals or targets that the organization sets to ensure that its IT activities and processes comply with the relevant laws, regulations, standards, and contracts. Compliance objectives help to define the scope, criteria, and expectations for the IT compliance program, and to align the IT compliance activities with the organization’s strategy, risk appetite, and performance measures. Compliance objectives also help to communicate and demonstrate the organization’s commitment and accountability for IT compliance to the internal and external stakeholders, such as the board, management, regulators, auditors, and customers. The other options are not the first thing that should be done, although they may be useful or necessary steps or components of the IT compliance program. Requesting a regulatory risk reporting methodology, requiring critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks, and communicating IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers are all activities that can help to implement and monitor the IT compliance program, but they require the prior definition and agreement of the IT compliance objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.4.1, page 2-37.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?
Options:
To support decision-making for risk response
To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans
To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts
To enable senior management to compile a risk profile
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders is to support decision-making for risk response. Risk assessment reports are documents that summarize the results of the risk assessment process, such as the risk sources, causes, impacts, likelihood, and levels. Risk assessment reports also provide recommendations for risk response options, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risk. Sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders helps to inform them of the current risk situation, and to solicit their input, feedback, or approval for the risk response actions. The other options are not the primary reason for sharing risk assessment reports, although they may be secondary reasons or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
Business management is seeking assurance from the CIO that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues that could impact the delivery of a new application Which of the following is the BEST way to increase the chances of a successful delivery'?
Options:
Implement a release and deployment plan
Conduct comprehensive regression testing.
Develop enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRls)
Include business management on a weekly risk and issues report
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best way to increase the chances of a successful delivery of a new application and to assure the business management that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues is to include business management on a weekly risk and issues report. A risk and issues report is a document that summarizes the current status, progress, and challenges of the IT project, as well as the actions and resources needed to address them. A risk and issues report helps to communicate and align the expectations and objectives of the IT and business stakeholders, and to facilitate timely and effective decision-making and problem-solving. A risk and issues report also helps to monitor and control the project scope, schedule, budget, and quality, and to ensure that the project delivers the desired value and benefits to the organization. The other options are not as effective as including business management on a weekly risk and issues report, although they may be part of the IT project management process or outcomes. Implementing a release and deployment plan, conducting comprehensive regression testing, and developing enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRIs) are all activities that can help to ensure the quality and reliability of the new application, but they do not necessarily involve the business management or provide assurance for the early identification of potential issues. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 5-32.
What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?
Options:
Segment the system on its own network.
Ensure regular backups take place.
Virtualize the system in the cloud.
Install antivirus software on the system.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The best recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system is to segment the system on its own network. Network segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks or segments, based on different criteria, such as function, location, or security level. Network segmentation helps to isolate the system from the rest of the network, and limit the exposure and access to the system. Network segmentation also helps to improve the performance and security of the network, by reducing the network traffic and congestion, and enhancing the monitoring and control capabilities. The other options are not as effective as segmenting the system on its own network, although they may provide some additional protection or recovery options. Ensuring regular backups take place, virtualizing the system in the cloud, and installing antivirus software on the system are all measures that can help to reduce the risk of data loss or system damage, but they do not address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of security patches and updates for the system. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
Which of the following would be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios?
Options:
Individuals outside IT are managing action plans for the risk scenarios.
Target dates for completion are missing from some action plans.
Senior management approved multiple changes to several action plans.
Many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most concerning factor for a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios is that many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk. Risk action plans are documents that define the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for implementing the risk responses and strategies for the IT risk scenarios. Risk action plans help to reduce, transfer, avoid, or accept the IT risks, and to monitor and report on the IT risk performance and improvement. Discontinuing risk action plans after senior management accepted the risk is a major concern, because it may indicate that the risk acceptance decision was not based on a proper risk analysis or evaluation, or that the risk acceptance decision was not communicated or coordinated with the relevant stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions. Discontinuing risk action plans after senior management accepted the risk may also create challenges or risks for the organization, such as compliance, legal, reputational, or operational risks, or conflicts or inconsistencies with the organization’s risk appetite, risk objectives, or risk policies. The other options are not as concerning as discontinuing risk action plans after senior management accepted the risk, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the risk management process. Individuals outside IT managing action plans for the risk scenarios, target dates for completion missing from some action plans, and senior management approving multiple changes to several action plans are all factors that could affect the quality and timeliness of the risk management process, but they do not necessarily indicate a lack of risk management accountability or oversight. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-32.
Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gam insight into its overall risk profile''
Options:
Risk register
Risk appetite
Threat landscape
Risk metrics
Answer:
AExplanation:
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the information about the identified risks, such as the risk description, category, owner, probability, impact, response strategy, status, and action plan. Reviewing the risk register is the best way to help an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile, which is the summary of the nature and level of risk that the organization faces. By reviewing the risk register, the organization can obtain a comprehensive and holistic view of the sources, causes, and consequences of the risks, their likelihood and impact, their interrelationships and dependencies, and their alignment with the risk appetite and tolerance. The risk register can also help the organization to prioritize the risks, allocate the resources, select the risk responses, monitor the risk performance, and evaluate the risk outcomes. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 99.
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?
Options:
IT goals and objectives
Organizational goals and objectives
The organization's risk appetite statement
Legal and regulatory requirements
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most important factor for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy is the organizational goals and objectives. The organizational goals and objectives are the statements that define the purpose, direction, and desired outcomes of the organization. The organizational goals and objectives help to align the IT strategy with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and to ensure that the IT strategy supports and enables the organization’s performance and improvement. The organizational goals and objectives also help to communicate and coordinate the IT strategy with the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions, and to facilitate the IT decision-making and reporting processes. The other options are not as important as the organizational goals and objectives, although they may be related to the IT strategy. IT goals and objectives, the organization’s risk appetite statement, and legal and regulatory requirements are all factors that could affect the feasibility and sustainability of the IT strategy, but they do not necessarily reflect or influence the organization’s purpose, direction, and desired outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-9.
The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:
Options:
Identify new or emerging risk issues.
Satisfy audit requirements.
Survey and analyze historical risk data.
Understand internal and external threat agents.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis is to identify new or emerging risk issues that may affect the enterprise’s objectives, processes, or resources. This helps to update the risk profile and prioritize the risk responses accordingly. Satisfying audit requirements, surveying and analyzing historical risk data, and understanding internal and external threat agents are secondary objectives that support the primary objective of risk identification. References = Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, page 22; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 64.
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?
Options:
Establishing employee awareness training
Assigning accountability to risk owners
Selling target dates to complete actions
Contracting to third parties
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best way to ensure the implementation of corrective action plans is to assign accountability to risk owners. Corrective action plans are the plans that describe the actions and resources that are needed to correct or improve the performance or compliance of the processes or controls. Risk owners are the persons who have the authority and responsibility for managing the risks and their responses. By assigning accountability to risk owners, the implementation of corrective action plans can be monitored, evaluated, and enforced, and the results and outcomes can be reported and communicated. The other options are not as effective as assigning accountability to risk owners, as they are related to the training, scheduling, or outsourcing of the corrective action plans, not the oversight or governance of the corrective action plans. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Options:
Business impact analysis (BIA) results
Risk scenario ownership
Risk thresholds
Possible causes of materialized risk
Answer:
DExplanation:
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide an early warning of increasing risk exposure in various areas of the organization. They help to monitor changes in the level of risk and enable timely actions to mitigate the risk. The most useful information for developing KRIs is the possible causes of materialized risk, which are the factors or events that trigger or contribute to the occurrence of a risk. By identifying the possible causes of materialized risk, an organization can design KRIs that measure the likelihood and impact of the risk, and alert the management when the risk exceeds the acceptable level. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
An organization wants to launch a campaign to advertise a new product Using data analytics, the campaign can be targeted to reach potential customers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?
Options:
Data minimization
Accountability
Accuracy
Purpose limitation
Answer:
DExplanation:
The greatest concern for the risk practitioner when an organization wants to launch a campaign to advertise a new product using data analytics is the purpose limitation. Purpose limitation is a principle that states that personal data should be collected for specified, explicit, and legitimate purposes, and not further processed in a manner that is incompatible with those purposes. By using data analytics to target potential customers, the organization may violate the purpose limitation principle if the data was collected for a different purpose and the customers did not consent to the new use of their data. Data minimization, accountability, and accuracy are other principles that should be followed, but they are not as concerning as the purpose limitation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?
Options:
Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite
. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls
Considering risk that can be shared with a third party
Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios
Answer:
AExplanation:
Risk appetite is the broad-based amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in its activities. Risk appetite reflects the level of risk that the organization is prepared to take to achieve its strategic goals, and provides guidance and boundaries for the risk management activities and decisions. The best way to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk is to prioritize and address risk in line with risk appetite, which means that the organization should identify, assess, treat, monitor, and communicate the risks that are within or exceed the risk appetite, and allocate the resources and efforts accordingly. By doing so, the organization can optimize its risk-return trade-off, align its risk exposure with its strategic objectives, and enhance its risk culture and performance. References = 5
Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?
Options:
Prioritize risk response options
Reduce likelihood.
Address more than one risk response
Reduce impact
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization is to address more than one risk response. Aggregated risk responses are risk responses that can affect multiple risks or objectives simultaneously. By addressing more than one risk response, the organization can achieve cost efficiency and effectiveness in risk management. Prioritizing risk response options, reducing likelihood, and reducing impact are other possible objectives, but they are not as important from a cost perspective as addressing more than one risk response. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
Using key risk indicators (KRIs) to illustrate changes in the risk profile PRIMARILY helps to:
Options:
communicate risk trends to stakeholders.
assign ownership of emerging risk scenarios.
highlight noncompliance with the risk policy
identify threats to emerging technologies.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary purpose of using key risk indicators (KRIs) to illustrate changes in the risk profile is to communicate risk trends to stakeholders. KRIs are metrics that provide an early warning of increasing risk exposure in various areas of the organization. By using KRIs to illustrate changes in the risk profile, the organization can communicate the risk trends to the stakeholders, such as the board, senior management, business units, and external parties, and enable them to take appropriate actions to manage the risk. Assigning ownership of emerging risk scenarios, highlighting noncompliance with the risk policy, and identifying threats to emerging technologies are other possible purposes, but they are not as important as communicating risk trends to stakeholders. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?
Options:
Assigning a data owner
Implementing technical control over the assets
Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Scheduling periodic audits
Answer:
AExplanation:
Assigning a data owner would best facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements. A data owner is responsible for defining the classification of the data, ensuring that the data is properly labeled, and approving access requests. Implementing technical control over the assets, implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, and scheduling periodic audits are important activities, but they are not as effective as assigning a data owner. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following is the MOST important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization?
Options:
Obtain necessary resources to address regulatory requirements
Develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements
Perform a gap analysis against regulatory requirements.
Employ IT solutions that meet regulatory requirements.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization is to develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements. A policy framework is a set of principles, rules, and standards that guide the organization’s actions and decisions. By developing a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements, the organization can establish a clear and consistent direction, expectation, and accountability for complying with the relevant laws and regulations. Obtaining necessary resources, performing a gap analysis, and employing IT solutions are other possible steps, but they are not as important as developing a policy framework. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?
Options:
Developing an ongoing awareness and training program
Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend
Embedding risk management into the organization
Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources
Answer:
CExplanation:
The first consideration when establishing a new risk governance program is embedding risk management into the organization. Embedding risk management means integrating risk management principles and practices into the organization’s culture, values, processes, and decision-making. Embedding risk management helps to ensure that risk management is not seen as a separate or isolated activity, but as a part of the organization’s normal operations and strategic objectives. Embedding risk management also helps to create a risk-aware and risk-responsive organization, where risk management is shared and supported by all stakeholders. The other options are not the first consideration, although they may be important steps or components of the risk governance program. Developing an ongoing awareness and training program, creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend, and completing annual risk assessments on critical resources are all activities that can help to embed risk management into the organization, but they are not the initial or primary consideration. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-8.
A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT step?
Options:
Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.
Update the risk register with the results.
Prepare a business case for the response options.
Identify resources for implementing responses.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The next step for the risk practitioner after identifying risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios is to update the risk register with the results. The risk register is a document that records the details of the risks, such as their sources, causes, consequences, likelihood, impact, and responses. By updating the risk register with the results of the risk workshop, the risk practitioner can ensure that the risk information is current, accurate, and complete, and that the risk owners and responses are clearly defined and communicated. Developing a mechanism for monitoring residual risk, preparing a business case for the response options, and identifying resources for implementing responses are possible steps that may follow the updating of the risk register, but they are not the next step. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
A company has recently acquired a customer relationship management (CRM) application from a certified software vendor. Which of the following will BE ST help lo prevent technical vulnerabilities from being exploded?
Options:
implement code reviews and Quality assurance on a regular basis
Verity me software agreement indemnifies the company from losses
Review the source coda and error reporting of the application
Update the software with the latest patches and updates
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best way to prevent technical vulnerabilities from being exploited is to update the software with the latest patches and updates. Patches and updates are software modifications that fix the known bugs, errors, or flaws in the software. They also improve the performance, functionality, and security of the software. By updating the software with the latest patches and updates, the company can reduce the exposure and likelihood of the technical vulnerabilities, and protect the software from potential attacks or exploits. The other options are not as effective as updating the software with the latest patches and updates, as they are related to the quality assurance, legal protection, or error handling of the software, not the prevention or mitigation of the technical vulnerabilities. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?
Options:
Operational strategies
Risk governance
Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)
Risk appetite
Answer:
DExplanation:
Risk appetite is the broad-based amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the level of risk that the organization is prepared to take to achieve its strategic goals, and provides guidance and boundaries for the risk management activities and decisions. To define the risk management strategy, which is the plan and approach for managing the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives, the factor that must be set by the board of directors is the risk appetite. The board of directors is the highest governing body of the organization, and has the ultimate responsibility and authority for setting the direction and oversight of the organization. By setting the risk appetite, the board of directors can communicate its expectations and preferences for the risk exposure and performance of the organization, and ensure alignment with the business objectives and strategies. References = 3
Risk appetite should be PRIMARILY driven by which of the following?
Options:
Enterprise security architecture roadmap
Stakeholder requirements
Legal and regulatory requirements
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Answer:
BExplanation:
Risk appetite should be primarily driven by stakeholder requirements. Stakeholder requirements are the needs and expectations of the internal and external parties that have an interest or influence in the organization’s objectives or operations, such as the board, management, employees, customers, regulators, investors, etc. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite should be driven by stakeholder requirements, because they reflect the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and they provide the basis and direction for the organization’s risk management activities. Risk appetite should also be aligned and communicated with stakeholder requirements, because they affect the organization’s performance and reputation, and they require the organization’s accountability and transparency. The other options are not the primary drivers of risk appetite, although they may be considered or influenced by risk appetite. Enterprise security architecture roadmap, legal and regulatory requirements, and business impact analysis (BIA) are all factors that could affect the organization’s risk profile, risk assessment, or risk response, but they do not necessarily determine or reflect the organization’s risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 2-23.
An organization's recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?
Options:
Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)
Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Significant changes in management personnel
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most likely cause of the situation where the recovery team does not know what steps to take to recover critical data backups following a major flood is the failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP). A DRP is a document that describes the procedures and resources needed to restore the normal operations of an organization after a disaster. Testing the DRP is essential to ensure that the plan is feasible, effective, and up-to-date. Testing the DRP also helps to train the recovery team members, identify and resolve any issues or gaps, and improve the confidence and readiness of the organization. The lack of a well-documented business impact analysis (BIA), the lack of annual updates to the DRP, and the significant changes in management personnel are also possible factors that could affect the recovery process, but they are not as likely or as critical as the failure to test the DRP. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1, page 5-19.
Which of the following should be used as the PRIMARY basis for evaluating the state of an organization's cloud computing environment against leading practices?
Options:
The cloud environment's capability maturity model
The cloud environment's risk register
The cloud computing architecture
The organization's strategic plans for cloud computing
Answer:
CExplanation:
Cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction. The cloud computing architecture is the structure and design of the cloud environment, which includes the components, services, interfaces, standards, and configurations. The cloud computing architecture should be used as the primary basis for evaluating the state of an organization’s cloud computing environment against leading practices, as it determines the performance, security, reliability, scalability, and interoperability of the cloud services. By comparing the cloud computing architecture with the best practices and benchmarks in the industry, an organization can identify the gaps and weaknesses in the cloud environment and implement the necessary improvements and controls. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 156.
Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?
Options:
Verifying that project objectives are met
Identifying project cost overruns
Leveraging an independent review team
Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most important activity when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC) is to verify that the project objectives are met. The project objectives are the specific and measurable outcomes that the project aims to achieve. By verifying that the project objectives are met, the post-implementation review can evaluate the success and value of the project, and identify the lessons learned and best practices for future projects. Identifying project cost overruns, leveraging an independent review team, and reviewing the project initiation risk matrix are other possible activities, but they are not as important as verifying that the project objectives are met. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following, who should be PRIMARILY responsible for performing user entitlement reviews?
Options:
IT security manager
IT personnel
Data custodian
Data owner
Answer:
DExplanation:
The person or entity who should be primarily responsible for performing user entitlement reviews is the data owner. A user entitlement review is a process that verifies and validates the access rights and privileges of the users to the data and resources in the IT environment. A user entitlement review helps to ensure that the users have the appropriate and necessary access to perform their roles and functions, and to prevent or detect any unauthorized or inappropriate access. A data owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to define, classify, and protect the data and resources in the IT environment. A data owner helps to perform user entitlement reviews, because they help to establish and enforce the access policies and standards for the data and resources, and to approve or revoke the access requests and changes for the users. A data owner also helps to monitor and report on the access performance and compliance for the data and resources, and to identify and address any issues or gaps in the access management activities. The other options are not the primary responsible party for performing user entitlement reviews, although they may be involved in the process. IT security manager, IT personnel, and data custodian are all examples of roles or functions that can help to support or implement the user entitlement reviews, but they do not necessarily have the authority or responsibility to define, classify, or protect the data and resources. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 5-14.
When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:
Options:
information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.
key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.
the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.
control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most helpful factor to align when defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs) is the control performance with the risk tolerance of business owners. Control KPIs are metrics that measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks. By aligning the control performance with the risk tolerance of business owners, the thresholds for control KPIs can reflect the acceptable level of risk and the desired level of control for the business processes and objectives. Information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments, key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business, and control KPIs with audit findings are other possible factors to align, but they are not as helpful as control performance with risk tolerance of business owners. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which component of a software inventory BEST enables the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities?
Options:
Software version
Assigned software manager
Software support contract expiration
Software licensing information
Answer:
AExplanation:
The software version is the component of a software inventory that best enables the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities. The software version is the specific release or update of a software product that has a unique identifier, such as a number or a name. The software version indicates the features, functions, and security patches that are included in the software product. By knowing the software version, the organization can compare it with the latest available version and identify any missing or outdated security fixes. The organization can then mitigate the known vulnerabilities by updating or upgrading the software to the latest version. The other components of a software inventory, such as the assigned software manager, the software support contract expiration, and the software licensing information, are not as directly related to the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities, although they may provide some contextual or administrative information. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.2, page 2-25.
An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?
Options:
Recommend risk remediation
Change the level of risk appetite
Document formal acceptance of the risk
Reject the business initiative
Answer:
CExplanation:
The risk practitioner’s most important action related to the decision to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite is to document formal acceptance of the risk. Formal acceptance of the risk means that the organization acknowledges and agrees to bear the risk and its potential consequences. Formal acceptance of the risk should be documented and approved by the appropriate authority level, such as senior management or the board of directors. Formal acceptance of the risk should also include the rationale, assumptions, and conditions for accepting the risk, as well as the monitoring and reporting mechanisms for the risk. Formal acceptance of the risk provides evidence and accountability for the risk management decision and helps to avoid disputes or misunderstandings in the future. The other options are not as important as documenting formal acceptance of the risk, as they are related to the alternatives, adjustments, or rejections of the risk, not the actual acceptance of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page 133.
An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?
Options:
Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.
Resources may be inefficiently allocated.
The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.
Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The greatest concern of maintaining independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated is that management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile. The risk profile is the overall view of the risks that the organization faces and their impact on the organization’s objectives. It helps management to prioritize and allocate resources for risk management and to align the risk appetite and strategy. If the departmental risk registers are not aggregated, management may not have a complete and consistent picture of the risks across the organization. They may miss some important risks, overestimate or underestimate some risks, or have conflicting or redundant risk information. This may lead to poor risk management decisions and outcomes. The other options are also concerns, but they are not as critical as the inability to evaluate the risk profile. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.2: IT Risk Analysis, page 63.
When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, which of the following should be done FIRST to ensure continuity of operations?
Options:
Define metrics for restoring availability.
Identify conditions that may cause disruptions.
Review incident response procedures.
Evaluate the probability of risk events.
Answer:
BExplanation:
When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, the first step is to identify the conditions that may cause disruptions to the service or the process. This involves identifying the sources and causes of potential risk events, such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, human errors, equipment failures, power outages, etc. that may affect the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the service or the process. By identifying the conditions that may cause disruptions, the risk practitioner can then analyze the probability and impact of the risk events, evaluate the risk exposure, and determine the appropriate risk responses to ensure the continuity of operations. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 66.
Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?
Options:
Perform a business case analysis
Implement compensating controls.
Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)
Build a provision for risk
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency is to implement compensating controls. A control deficiency is a situation where a control is missing, ineffective, or inefficient, and cannot provide reasonable assurance that the objectives or requirements are met. A compensating control is a control that provides an alternative or additional measure of protection when the primary or preferred control is not feasible or effective. A compensating control can help to reduce the likelihood and/or impact of the risk associated with the control deficiency, and maintain the compliance or performance level. The other options are not as effective as implementing compensating controls, as they are related to the analysis, assessment, or provision of the risk, not the mitigation of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….
event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?
Options:
The difference In the management practices between each company
The cloud computing environment is shared with another company
The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract
The organizational culture differences between each country
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most important risk consideration when the global company’s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information to a cloud computing environment in the event of a disaster is that the cloud computing environment is shared with another company. A cloud computing environment is a service model that provides on-demand access to a shared pool of computing resources, such as servers, storage, networks, and applications. A shared cloud computing environment means that the same computing resources are used by multiple customers or tenants, and that the data and activities of one customer may affect or be affected by the data and activities of another customer. This may pose a significant risk to the security, privacy, and availability of the customer information, as it may be exposed, accessed, modified, or deleted by unauthorized or malicious parties. The other options are not as important as the cloud computing environment being shared with another company, as they are related to the differences, agreements, or cultures of the company or the country, not the environment or the platform of the customer information transfer. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?
Options:
A risk and control self-assessment
Senior management's attestation
A system-generated testing report
detailed process walk-through
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most reliable evidence of a control’s effectiveness is a system-generated testing report. A system-generated testing report is a document that shows the results of automated tests performed by the system to verify that the control is functioning as intended and producing the expected outcomes. A system-generated testing report is reliable, because it is objective, consistent, accurate, and timely, and because it can provide a high level of assurance and confidence in the control’s effectiveness. The other options are not as reliable as a system-generated testing report, although they may provide some evidence of the control’s effectiveness. A risk and control self-assessment, senior management’s attestation, and a detailed process walk-through are all examples of manual or subjective evidence, which may be prone to errors, biases, or inconsistencies, and which may provide a lower level of assurance and confidence in the control’s effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 3-32.
Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?
Options:
Apply data classification policy
Utilize encryption with logical access controls
Require logical separation of company data
Obtain the right to audit
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most effective practice in protecting personally identifiable information (PII) from unauthorized access in a cloud environment is to utilize encryption with logical access controls. Encryption is a technique that transforms the data into an unreadable or unintelligible form, making it inaccessible or unusable by unauthorized parties. Logical access controls are the mechanisms or rules that regulate who can access, view, modify, or delete the data, based on their identity, role, or privilege. By utilizing encryption with logical access controls, the PII can be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, or theft, both in transit and at rest, in a cloud environment. The other options are not as effective as utilizing encryption with logical access controls, as they are related to the classification, separation, or audit of the data, not the protection or security of the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
The objective of aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite is to ensure that:
Options:
exposures are reduced to the fullest extent
exposures are reduced only for critical business systems
insurance costs are minimized
the cost of controls does not exceed the expected loss.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The objective of aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite is to ensure that the cost of controls does not exceed the expected loss. The cost of controls is the amount of resources and efforts required to implement and maintain the controls that are designed to reduce the risk exposure. The expected loss is the estimated amount of loss or harm that may result from a risk event. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. By aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite, the organization can optimize the balance between the cost of controls and the expected loss, and avoid over- or under-investing in controls. Exposures being reduced to the fullest extent, exposures being reduced only for critical business systems, and insurance costs being minimized are other possible objectives, but they are not as relevant as the cost of controls not exceeding the expected loss. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?
Options:
Risk mitigation plans
heat map
Risk appetite statement
Key risk indicators (KRls)
Answer:
BExplanation:
A heat map is a graphical tool that displays the level of risk severity for various risk scenarios or categories using different colors, shapes, or sizes. A heat map is most helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity, as it can show the relative importance and urgency of the risks, and highlight the areas that require attention or action. A heat map can also help to communicate the risk information to the stakeholders, and facilitate the risk prioritization and decision making. References = 5
An organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register. Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries?
Options:
The volume of risk scenarios is too large
Risk aggregation has not been completed
Risk scenarios are not applicable
The risk analysts for each scenario is incomplete
Answer:
CExplanation:
The greatest challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries when an organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register is that the risk scenarios are not applicable. Generic risk scenarios are risk scenarios that are based on common or typical situations that may affect many organizations or industries. They are useful for providing a general overview or reference of the potential risks, but they may not be relevant, specific, or realistic for a particular organization or context. Therefore, using generic risk scenarios may result in inaccurate, incomplete, or misleading risk entries that do not reflect the actual risk profile or appetite of the organization. The other options are not as challenging as the risk scenarios being not applicable, as they are related to the quantity, quality, or aggregation of the risk scenarios, not the suitability or validity of the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Scenarios, page 23.
An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Options:
Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy
Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance
Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies
Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization
Answer:
AExplanation:
The next thing that the risk practitioner should do from a risk management perspective when the organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth is to identify new threats resulting from the new business strategy. A threat is a potential cause of an unwanted incident that may affect the achievement of the objectives. An aggressive business strategy is a strategy that involves pursuing high-risk, high-reward opportunities or initiatives to gain a competitive advantage or a significant market share. An aggressive business strategy may introduce new threats or increase the likelihood or impact of existing threats, such as market volatility, regulatory changes, customer dissatisfaction, or competitor retaliation. Therefore, the risk practitioner should identify the new threats resulting from the new business strategy, and assess their potential consequences and implications for the organization. The other options are not as immediate as identifying new threats resulting from the new business strategy, as they are related to the update, information, or measurement of the risk management process, not the identification or analysis of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Scenarios, page 23.
Which of the following contributes MOST to the effective implementation of risk responses?
Options:
Clear understanding of the risk
Comparable industry risk trends
Appropriate resources
Detailed standards and procedures
Answer:
CExplanation:
Appropriate resources contribute most to the effective implementation of risk responses. Resources include people, time, money, equipment, and materials that are needed to execute the risk responses. Without appropriate resources, the risk responses may not be implemented properly, timely, or efficiently, and may not achieve the desired outcomes. The other options are not as important as appropriate resources, as they are related to the understanding, comparison, or documentation of the risk responses, which are less critical than the execution of the risk responses. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?
Options:
Scalable infrastructure
A hot backup site
Transaction limits
Website activity monitoring
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most effective way to reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website is to implement website activity monitoring. Website activity monitoring can help to detect and prevent fraudulent transactions, unauthorized access, data breaches, and other cyber threats that may compromise the security and integrity of the website and its data. Scalable infrastructure, a hot backup site, and transaction limits are other possible ways to reduce risk, but they are not as effective as website activity monitoring. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of creating and documenting control procedures?
Options:
To facilitate ongoing audit and control testing
To help manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels
To establish and maintain a control inventory
To increase the likelihood of effective control operation
Answer:
BExplanation:
The primary purpose of creating and documenting control procedures is to help manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels. Control procedures are the specific actions or steps that are performed to achieve the control objectives and mitigate the risks. Control procedures should be documented to provide clear guidance, consistency, and accountability for the control activities. Documenting control procedures also helps to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, and to identify and address any gaps or weaknesses. The other options are not the primary purpose of creating and documenting control procedures, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, page 1-15.
When a risk practitioner is determining a system's criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:
Options:
process flow.
business impact analysis (BIA).
service level agreement (SLA).
system architecture.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most helpful information to review when determining a system’s criticality is the associated business impact analysis (BIA). A BIA is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of disruptions to the organization’s critical business functions and processes. A BIA can help to determine the system’s criticality by assessing its impact on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value. Process flow, service level agreement (SLA), and system architecture are other possible information sources, but they are not as helpful as the BIA. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Options:
Management approval
Annual review
Relevance
Automation
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most important factor to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs) is relevance. KPIs are metrics that measure the achievement of the objectives or the performance of the processes. Relevance means that the KPIs are aligned with and support the strategic goals and priorities of the organization, and that they reflect the current and desired state of the outcomes or outputs. Relevance also means that the KPIs are meaningful and useful for the decision makers and stakeholders, and that they provide clear and actionable information for improvement or optimization. The other options are not as important as relevance, as they are related to the approval, review, or automation of the KPIs, not the quality or value of the KPIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Performance Indicators, page 183.
An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?
Options:
Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.
Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).
Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.
Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best way to mitigate the risk to operations caused by severe weather events is to develop a business continuity plan (BCP). A BCP is a document that describes the procedures and resources needed to ensure the continuity of the organization’s critical functions and processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP helps to identify the recovery objectives, strategies, and priorities, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the recovery team members. A BCP also helps to prepare and test the recovery capabilities and resources, such as alternate locations, backup systems, and communication channels. The other options are not as effective as developing a BCP, although they may be part of the BCP process or outcomes. Preparing a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation, preparing a disaster recovery plan (DRP), and conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location are all activities that can help to develop or implement a BCP, but they are not the best way to mitigate the risk to operations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 5-9.
Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls?
Options:
Review vendor control self-assessments (CSA).
Review vendor service level agreement (SLA) metrics.
Require independent control assessments.
Obtain vendor references from existing customers.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best way to provide assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls is to require independent control assessments. Independent control assessments are evaluations of the vendor’s security controls by a third-party auditor or assessor, such as an external auditor, a certification body, or a testing laboratory. Independent control assessments provide an objective and unbiased opinion on the adequacy and performance of the vendor’s security controls, as well as the compliance with relevant standards and regulations. Independent control assessments can also provide evidence and assurance to the customers of the vendor’s security posture and capabilities. Reviewing vendor control self-assessments (CSA), vendor service level agreement (SLA) metrics, or vendor references from existing customers are not as reliable or credible as independent control assessments, because they may be biased, incomplete, or outdated.
An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?
Options:
Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place
Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process
Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.
Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best course of action to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor is to ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process. This can help to avoid ambiguity, confusion, or disputes over the ownership, responsibility, and liability of the data and the data transfer process. Meeting with the business leaders, collecting requirements, and working with the information security officer are important activities, but they are not as effective as ensuring the contractual agreement is clear and enforceable. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
An information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control Who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly?
Options:
The risk practitioner
The risk owner
The control owner
The audit manager
Answer:
CExplanation:
A control is a measure or action that is implemented to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk event, or to enhance the benefits or opportunities of a risk event. A control owner is a person who is assigned the responsibility and authority for the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of a control. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the information about the identified risks, such as the risk description, category, owner, probability, impact, response strategy, status, and action plan. When an information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control, the person who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly is the control owner. The control owner should update the risk register with the information about the failed control, such as the cause, consequence, status, and action plan. The control owner should also monitor the performance and compliance of the control, and recommend any improvements or adjustments as needed.
Recovery the objectives (RTOs) should be based on
Options:
minimum tolerable downtime
minimum tolerable loss of data.
maximum tolerable downtime.
maximum tolerable loss of data
Answer:
CExplanation:
Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are the acceptable timeframes within which business processes must be restored after a disruption. RTOs should be based on the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD), which is the longest time that a business process can be inoperable without causing irreparable harm to the organization. The other options are not directly related to RTOs, as they refer to the amount of data loss or corruption that can be tolerated, not the time to restore the business processes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.3: Key Risk Indicators, page 197.
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk?
Options:
Prioritizing risk within each business unit
Reviewing risk ranking methodology
Promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness
Assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk is to assign risk ownership to appropriate roles. Risk ownership is the process of assigning the authority and responsibility to manage a specific risk or a group of related risks to a person or entity. Risk ownership helps to ensure adequate resources for managing risk, because it helps to define and clarify the roles and responsibilities of the risk owners, and to establish and enforce the expectations and standards for the risk owners. Risk ownership also helps to measure and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk owners, and to identify and address any issues or gaps in the risk management activities. The other options are not as effective as assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles, although they may be related to the risk management process. Prioritizing risk within each business unit, reviewing risk ranking methodology, and promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness are all activities that can help to support or improve the risk management process, but they do not necessarily ensure adequate resources for managing risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-11.
Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:
Options:
define recovery time objectives (RTOs).
define the information classification policy
conduct a sensitivity analyse
Identify information custodians
Answer:
BExplanation:
Before assigning sensitivity levels to information, it is most important to define the information classification policy. The information classification policy is a document that establishes the criteria, categories, roles, responsibilities, and procedures for classifying information according to its sensitivity, value, and criticality. The information classification policy provides the basis, guidance, and consistency for assigning sensitivity levels to information, and ensures that the information is protected and handled appropriately. The other options are not as important as defining the information classification policy, as they are related to the specific steps, activities, or outputs of the information classification process, not the overall structure and quality of the information classification process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
An organization's chief information officer (CIO) has proposed investing in a new. untested technology to take advantage of being first to market Senior management has concerns about the success of the project and has set a limit for expenditures before final approval. This conditional approval indicates the organization's risk:
Options:
capacity.
appetite.
management capability.
treatment strategy.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The conditional approval of the CIO’s proposal indicates the organization’s risk appetite. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. By setting a limit for expenditures before final approval, senior management is expressing their willingness to take a calculated risk with the new technology, but also their desire to control the potential loss or harm. Risk capacity, management capability, and treatment strategy are other possible factors, but they are not as relevant as risk appetite. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97
Which of the following is MOST important to update when an organization's risk appetite changes?
Options:
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk reporting methodology
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Risk taxonomy
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most important element to update when an organization’s risk appetite changes is the key risk indicators (KRIs). KRIs are metrics that provide an early warning of increasing risk exposure in various areas of the organization. They help to monitor the level of risk and to trigger risk responses when the risk exceeds the risk appetite. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk reporting methodology, key performance indicators (KPIs), and risk taxonomy are other elements that may be updated, but they are not as important as the KRIs. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
An organization has an approved bring your own device (BYOD) policy. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the security risk associated with the inappropriate use of enterprise applications on the devices?
Options:
Periodically review application on BYOD devices
Include BYOD in organizational awareness programs
Implement BYOD mobile device management (MDM) controls.
Enable a remote wee capability for BYOD devices
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best way to mitigate the security risk associated with the inappropriate use of enterprise applications on the BYOD devices is to implement BYOD mobile device management (MDM) controls. MDM controls are software tools or services that allow the organization to remotely manage, monitor, and secure the BYOD devices and the enterprise applications and data on them. MDM controls can help to enforce security policies, restrict unauthorized access, encrypt sensitive data, wipe data in case of loss or theft, and update or patch applications. The other options are not as effective as implementing MDM controls, as they are related to the review, awareness, or recovery of the BYOD devices and applications, not the prevention or protection of the security risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?
Options:
Manual vulnerability scanning processes
Organizational reliance on third-party service providers
Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)
Risk-averse organizational risk appetite
Answer:
CExplanation:
The situation that presents the greatest challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization is having inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA). EA is the blueprint that describes the structure and operation of an organization, including its business processes, information systems, technology infrastructure, and governance. EA helps to align the IT strategy and objectives with the business strategy and objectives, and to identify and manage the IT risks and opportunities. Having inaccurate documentation of EA could lead to incomplete, inconsistent, or misleading information about the organization’s IT environment, which could affect the quality and reliability of the IT risk profile. The other situations are not as challenging as having inaccurate documentation of EA, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the IT risk profile. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-12.
Which key performance efficiency IKPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?
Options:
Number of service level agreement (SLA) violations
Percentage of recovery issues identified during the exercise
Number of total systems recovered within tie recovery point objective (RPO)
Percentage of critical systems recovered within tie recovery time objective (RTO)
Answer:
DExplanation:
The key performance indicator (KPI) that best measures the effectiveness of an organization’s disaster recovery program is the percentage of critical systems recovered within the recovery time objective (RTO). The RTO is the acceptable timeframe within which a business process or system must be restored after a disruption. The percentage of critical systems recovered within the RTO indicates how well the disaster recovery program can meet the business continuity requirements and minimize the impact of the disruption. The other options are not as good as the percentage of critical systems recovered within the RTO, as they are related to the efficiency, quality, or scope of the disaster recovery program, not the effectiveness of the disaster recovery program. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Performance Indicators, page 183.
An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?
Options:
Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.
Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.
Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.
Obtain certification to a global information security standard.
Answer:
BWhich of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the use of artificial intelligence (AI) language models?
Options:
The model could be hacked or exploited.
The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.
Staff could become overly reliant on the model.
It could lead to biased recommendations.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Biased recommendations from AI models can perpetuate or exacerbate organizational risks, especially in decision-making processes, regulatory compliance, and ethical standards. Addressing such concerns is vital under the Emerging Technology Risks domain in risk management.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?
Options:
Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)
Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register
Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)
Developing contingency plans for key processes
Answer:
AExplanation:
Key risk indicators provide predictive insights into emerging risks, enabling timely interventions to keep risks within acceptable levels. This aligns with Risk Monitoring and Reporting best practices.
A global organization is considering the transfer of its customer information systems to an overseas cloud service provider in the event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?
Options:
Regulatory restrictions for cross-border data transfer
Service level objectives in the vendor contract
Organizational culture differences between each country
Management practices within each company
Answer:
AExplanation:
Regulatory restrictions for cross-border data transfer can significantly impact compliance, making this the most critical consideration. Addressing such restrictions ensures adherence to Legal and Regulatory Requirements in risk management.
When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
Options:
Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.
Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.
Lack of senior management involvement.
Use of multiple risk registers.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Senior management involvement is a critical driver for the success of any risk management program. Without their engagement, there is a lack of strategic oversight, resource allocation, and prioritization of risk management initiatives, directly impacting the organization's ability to meet risk objectives. This is emphasized in the Governance Principles of CRISC.
An incentive program is MOST likely implemented to manage the risk associated with loss of which organizational asset?
Options:
Employees
Data
Reputation
Customer lists
Answer:
AExplanation:
An incentive program is most likely implemented to manage the risk associated with loss of employees, as it aims to motivate, retain, and reward the employees who have valuable skills, knowledge, and experience, and to reduce the risk of employee turnover, dissatisfaction, or underperformance. Data, reputation, and customer lists are not the organizational assets that are most likely managed by an incentive program, as they are more related to the information, image, or relationship of the organization, respectively, rather than the human capital of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation when a key risk indicator (KRI) is generating an excessive volume of events?
Options:
Reevaluate the design of the KRIs.
Develop a corresponding key performance indicator (KPI).
Monitor KRIs within a specific timeframe.
Activate the incident response plan.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Reevaluating the design of the key risk indicators (KRIs) is the best recommendation when a KRI is generating an excessive volume of events, because it helps to determine whether the KRI is relevant, reliable, and valid, and whether it needs to be modified or replaced. A KRI is a metric or indicator that helps to monitor and evaluate the likelihood or impact of a risk, or the effectiveness or efficiency of a control. A KRI can be quantitative or qualitative, and can be derived from internal or external sources. An event is an occurrence or incident that may indicate a change or trend in the risk level or performance. A KRI that generates an excessive volume of events may indicate that the KRI is not well-designed or well-aligned with the risk objectives or criteria, and that it may produce false positives or negatives, or irrelevant or misleading information. Therefore, reevaluating the design of the KRIs is the best recommendation, as it helps to improve the quality and usefulness of the KRIs, and to avoid unnecessary or inappropriate actions or responses. Developing a corresponding key performance indicator (KPI), monitoring KRIs within a specific timeframe, and activating the incident response plan are all possible actions to perform after reevaluating the design of the KRIs, but they are not the best recommendation, as they do not address the root cause of the excessive volume of events. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, page 97
Optimized risk management is achieved when risk is reduced:
Options:
with strategic initiatives.
to meet risk appetite.
within resource availability.
below risk appetite.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Optimized risk management is achieved when risk is reduced to meet risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the strategic goals and priorities of the organization, as well as its risk culture and tolerance. Reducing risk with strategic initiatives, within resource availability, or below risk appetite are all possible approaches, but they do not necessarily optimize risk management, as they may result in over- or under-investment in risk mitigation, or misalignment with business objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 47
Which of the following is the BEST response when a potential IT control deficiency has been identified?
Options:
Remediate and report the deficiency to the enterprise risk committee.
Verify the deficiency and then notify the business process owner.
Verify the deficiency and then notify internal audit.
Remediate and report the deficiency to senior executive management.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Verifying the deficiency and then notifying the business process owner is the best response when a potential IT control deficiency has been identified. This is because verifying the deficiency can help confirm the existence, nature, and extent of the deficiency, as well as its root causes and impacts. Notifying the business process owner can help ensure that the deficiency is communicated to the person who is responsible for the process and its outcomes, and who has the authority and accountability to take appropriate actions to address the deficiency. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key risk response techniques is to report the risk to the relevant stakeholders, such as the business process owners1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, verifying the deficiency and then notifying the business process owner is the correct answer to this question2.
Remediating and reporting the deficiency to the enterprise risk committee or senior executive management are not the best responses when a potential IT control deficiency has been identified. These are possible actions that can be taken after the deficiency has been verified and notified to the business process owner, but they are not the first or immediate responses. Remediating the deficiency without verifying it can lead to ineffective or inappropriate solutions, as well as wasted time and resources. Reporting the deficiency to the enterprise risk committee or senior executive management without notifying the business process owner can create confusion, conflict, or delay in the risk response process, as well as undermine the ownership and accountability of the business process owner.
The PRIMARY benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach is the ability to:
Options:
identify specific project risk.
obtain a holistic view of IT strategy risk.
understand risk associated with complex processes.
incorporate subject matter expertise.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Obtaining a holistic view of IT strategy risk is the primary benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach, because it helps to identify and assess the risks that may affect the alignment and integration of IT with the organization’s objectives and strategy. A risk workshop is a collaborative and interactive method of conducting a risk assessment, where the risk practitioner facilitates a group discussion with the relevant stakeholders to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks and their controls. A top-down approach is a method of conducting a risk workshop that starts from the high-level or strategic perspective, and then drills down to the lower-level or operational details. A bottom-up approach is a method of conducting a risk workshop that starts from the low-level or operational details, and then aggregates them to the higher-level or strategic perspective. A top-down approach can offer a holistic view of IT strategy risk, as it helps to understand the big picture and the interrelationships of the risks and their impacts across the organization. A bottom-up approach can offer a detailed view of specific project or process risk, as it helps to capture the granular and technical aspects of the risks and their controls. Therefore, obtaining a holistic view of IT strategy risk is the primary benefit of using a top-down approach, as it supports the strategic alignment and integration of IT with the organization. Identifying specific project risk, understanding risk associated with complex processes, and incorporating subject matter expertise are all possible benefits of conducting a risk workshop, but they are not the primary benefit of using a top-down approach, as they are more suitable for a bottom-up approach. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, page 87
What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?
Options:
Source information is acquired at stable cost.
Source information is tailored by removing outliers.
Source information is readily quantifiable.
Source information is consistently available.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most important consideration when selecting KPIs for control monitoring is that the source information is consistently available, meaning that it can be obtained regularly, reliably, and timely from the same or equivalent data sources. This ensures that the KPIs can measure the performance of the controls over time and across different units or functions, and provide meaningful and comparable results. Source information that is acquired at stable cost, tailored by removing outliers, or readily quantifiable are also desirable, but not as essential as consistency.
References:
•ISACA, Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, 2019, p. 751
•ISACA, Performance Measurement Metrics for IT Governance2
An organizational policy requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability. Which of the following is the BEST metric to verify adherence to the policy?
Options:
Maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment
Percentage of critical patches deployed within three weeks
Minimum time gap between patch availability and deployment
Number of critical patches deployed within three weeks
Answer:
AExplanation:
The best metric to verify adherence to the policy that requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability is the maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment, as it measures the longest duration that the organization takes to apply the patches, and ensures that it does not exceed the policy limit. The other options are not the best metrics, as they may not reflect the actual or optimal compliance with the policy, or may not be relevant or measurable for the policy, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?
Options:
Providing assurance of control effectiveness
Implementing internal controls
Monitoring risk responses
Applying risk treatments
Answer:
CExplanation:
The second line of defense is responsible for monitoring risk responses to ensure they align with organizational risk strategies. This role supports governance and compliance as defined in the Three Lines of Defense Model.
Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?
Options:
To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls
To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level
To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers
To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment
Answer:
DExplanation:
Key control indicators (KCIs) are metrics that measure the performance of a control in reducing the causes, consequences, or likelihood of a risk. They help to evaluate the adequacy and efficiency of the internal control environment, which is the set of policies, procedures, and practices that support the achievement of organizational objectives and the management of risks. By monitoring KCIs, organizations can identify and address any gaps or weaknesses in their internal controls and ensure that they are operating as intended.
References
•ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Domain 3: Risk Response, Section 3.2.2: Control Design and Implementation
•KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva
•What is the difference between key risk indicators and key control indicators?
Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring?
Options:
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk governance charter
Organizational risk appetite
Cross-business representation
Answer:
DExplanation:
Cross-business representation is most important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring. Here’s a detailed explanation:
Importance of Cross-business Representation:
Comprehensive Risk Perspective: Having representatives from different business units ensures that the committee has a comprehensive view of risks across the entire organization. This diverse representation helps in identifying and assessing risks that may impact various parts of the business differently.
Informed Decision-Making: Members from different business areas can provide unique insights and expertise, leading to more informed and balanced decision-making processes.
Improved Communication: Cross-business representation facilitates better communication and collaboration across the organization, ensuring that risk management practices are understood and implemented consistently.
Comparison with Other Options:
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs): While important for monitoring specific risks, KRIs alone do not ensure the effectiveness of the oversight committee without a diverse representation to interpret and act on these indicators.
Risk Governance Charter: A risk governance charter outlines the roles, responsibilities, and processes for risk management, but its effectiveness depends on the active participation of diverse business representatives.
Organizational Risk Appetite: Understanding the organizational risk appetite is crucial, but without cross-business representation, the risk appetite may not be appropriately reflected or acted upon across all business areas.
Best Practices:
Diverse Membership: Ensure that the oversight committee includes members from all key business units and functions to provide a holistic view of organizational risks.
Regular Meetings: Schedule regular meetings to review and discuss risk management activities, KRIs, and emerging risks with input from all representatives.
Clear Communication: Establish clear communication channels between the oversight committee and business units to ensure that risk management practices are effectively implemented and monitored.
CRISC Review Manual: Emphasizes the importance of cross-functional representation in risk governance to ensure comprehensive risk management.
ISACA Risk Management Framework: Highlights the need for diverse perspectives in risk oversight committees to enhance the effectiveness of risk monitoring and decision-making.
References:Top of Form
Bottom of Form
Which of the following is BEST measured by key control indicators (KCIs)?
Options:
Historical trends of the organizational risk profile
Cost efficiency of risk treatment plan projects
Comprehensiveness of risk assessment procedures
Effectiveness of organizational defense in depth
Answer:
DExplanation:
Key control indicators are designed to measure the operational effectiveness of controls, specifically their contribution to defense-in-depth strategies. This helps assess if controls are functioning as intended to mitigate identified risks, aligning with Control Effectiveness Monitoring.
The risk to an organization's reputation due to a recent cybersecurity breach is PRIMARILY considered to be:
Options:
financial risk.
data risk.
operational risk.
strategic risk.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Understanding Strategic Risk:
Strategic risk refers to the potential losses that can arise from adverse business decisions, improper implementation of decisions, or lack of responsiveness to changes in the business environment.
Reputational Impact of Cybersecurity Breaches:
A cybersecurity breach can severely damage an organization's reputation, affecting customer trust, investor confidence, and market value.
Such impacts go beyond immediate financial losses and can have long-term strategic implications for the organization's competitive position and strategic objectives.
Classification of Risk:
Financial Risk: Direct financial losses due to a breach (e.g., fines, legal costs) but does not cover reputational impacts.
Data Risk: Focuses on the loss or compromise of data but not the broader strategic impact.
Operational Risk: Pertains to disruptions in business operations, while reputational damage influences the organization’s strategic direction and goals.
Strategic Risk and Reputation:
Reputational damage from a cybersecurity breach can lead to a loss of customer base, reduced market share, and difficulties in strategic partnerships, all of which are strategic concerns.
Addressing reputational risk requires strategic planning, proactive communication, and long-term efforts to rebuild trust and credibility.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights that reputational risk is a significant aspect of strategic risk, especially following cybersecurity incidents (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 1: Governance, Section 1.1.3 Importance and Value of IT Risk Management).
A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?
Options:
The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.
The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.
The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.
The alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site for a company that has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault is that the alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart, as it ensures that the alternative site is not affected by the same earthquake event that may disrupt the primary site, and that the business continuity and recovery objectives can be met. The other options are not the most important considerations, as they are more related to the backup, priority, or readiness of the alternative site, respectively, rather than the location of the alternative site. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 111.
An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Options:
Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.
Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.
Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.
Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The first course of action for the risk practitioner when identifying ineffective controls is to determine whether the impact of the control failure is outside the risk appetite of the organization. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. If the impact is within the risk appetite, the risk practitioner may decide to accept the risk or monitor the situation. If the impact is outside the risk appetite, the risk practitioner may need to escalate the issue, report the ineffective control, request a formal acceptance of risk, or deploy a compensating control.
References: The answer is based on the following sources:
•CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Reporting, pages 149-1501
•CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 12 Month Subscription, Question ID: QID-10042
•Effective Risk Management Strategies | CRISC Exam Preparation3
Which of the following risk activities is BEST facilitated by enterprise architecture (EA)?
Options:
Aligning business unit risk responses to organizational priorities
Determining attack likelihood per business unit
Adjusting business unit risk tolerances
Customizing incident response plans for each business unit
Answer:
AThe BEST way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy is
to review:
Options:
change logs.
configuration settings.
server access logs.
anti-malware compliance.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Reviewing configuration settings is the best way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy, because it helps to check and verify that the servers are configured and maintained according to the established security standards and guidelines, and that any deviations or violations are identified and corrected. A configuration setting is a parameter or option that defines the behavior or functionality of a server, such as a system, an application, or a service. A security policy is a document that outlines the security objectives, principles, and rules that the organization and its employees must follow, and the consequences of non-compliance. Reviewing configuration settings is the best way, as it helps to ensure that the servers are secure and compliant, and that any security risks or issues are detected and resolved. Reviewing change logs, server access logs, and anti-malware compliance are all possible ways to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy, but they are not the best way, as they do not provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the configuration settings and their compliance status. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 200
During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Options:
Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.
Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.
Implement key control indicators (KCIs).
Escalate the control failures to senior management.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The first step is to assess whether the ineffective controls result in residual risk exceeding the risk appetite. This establishes the urgency and priority of remediation efforts and ensures alignment with enterprise risk thresholds, reflecting principles of Risk Assessment and Prioritization.
When outsourcing a business process to a cloud service provider, it is MOST important to understand that:
Options:
insurance could be acquired for the risk associated with the outsourced process.
service accountability remains with the cloud service provider.
a risk owner must be designated within the cloud service provider.
accountability for the risk will remain with the organization.
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the FIC Article by FSCA, accountable institutions remain fully accountable, responsible and liable for any compliance failures that may result from or be associated with an outsourcing arrangement and as such, liability and/or culpability for non-compliance with the FIC Act obligations cannot be transferred to a third-party service provider2. Therefore, even if a business process is outsourced to a cloud service provider, the organization still has the ultimate responsibility and accountability for the risk associated with the outsourced process. The other options are not correct, as they imply that the cloud service provider can take over the accountability or responsibility for the risk, or that the organization can mitigate the risk by acquiring insurance, which is not the case.
The PRIMARY reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to:
Options:
reduce subjectivity in risk management.
comply with regulatory requirements.
demonstrate best industry practice.
improve visibility of overall risk exposure.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to reduce subjectivity in risk management, as it provides a common and consistent language and structure for identifying, classifying, and reporting risks, and facilitates the comparison and aggregation of risks across the organization. The other options are not the primary reasons, as they are more related to the outcomes, benefits, or drivers of risk management, respectively, rather than the reason for risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
Options:
Reliance on qualitative analysis methods
Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool
Lack of senior management involvement
Use of multiple risk registers
Answer:
CExplanation:
Senior management involvement is foundational to an effective risk management framework. Lack of engagement signals inadequate oversight, strategic alignment, and resource commitment, impairing the program's success. This is supported by CRISC's focus on governance and leadership alignment to ensure enterprise risk management objectives are met.
Which strategy employed by risk management would BEST help to prevent internal fraud?
Options:
Require control owners to conduct an annual control certification.
Conduct regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting.
Ensure segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes.
Require the information security officer to review unresolved incidents.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Ensuring segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes is the best strategy employed by risk management to prevent internal fraud, because it reduces the opportunity for a single person to manipulate or misuse the system or process for fraudulent purposes. Segregation of duties is a control that assigns different roles and responsibilities to different individuals, such that no one person can perform all the steps of a transaction or process. Requiring control owners to conduct an annual control certification, conducting regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting, and requiring the information security officer to review unresolved incidents are all useful strategies to detect or deter internal fraud, but they are not the best strategy to prevent it, as they do not directly address the root cause of fraud. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1, page 197
A risk practitioner has reviewed new international regulations and realizes the new regulations will affect the organization. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT course of
action?
Options:
Conduct a peer response assessment.
Update risk scenarios in the risk register.
Reevaluate the risk management program.
Ensure applications are compliant.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The risk practitioner should update the risk scenarios in the risk register to reflect the new international regulations and their potential impact on the organization. The risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, mitigation strategies, and status. Updating the risk register will help the risk practitioner to prioritize and manage the risks effectively, and communicate them to the relevant stakeholders.
References
•ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Domain 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2.2: Risk Register
•Risk Register - ISACA
•How to Create a Risk Register: A Step-by-Step Guide | The Blueprint
Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?
Options:
Board of directors
Human resources (HR)
Risk management committee
Audit committee
Answer:
AExplanation:
The group that has primary ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization is A. Board of directors. According to the CFA Institute, the board of directors is responsible for setting the tone at the top and ensuring that the company adheres to high ethical standards and values. The board of directors also oversees the company’s culture, governance, and risk management practices, and holds the management accountable for any misconduct or breach of trust1 The board of directors may delegate some of its oversight functions to other committees, such as the human resources, risk management, or audit committee, but ultimately, the board of directors bears the ultimate responsibility for the company’s reputation and integrity
Which of the following stakeholders define risk tolerance for an enterprise?
Options:
IT compliance and IT audit
Regulators and shareholders
The board and executive management
Enterprise risk management (ERM)
Answer:
CExplanation:
Role of the Board and Executive Management:
The board of directors and executive management are responsible for setting the overall strategic direction of the organization, including its risk tolerance.
They have the authority and oversight necessary to define the levels of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives.
Defining Risk Tolerance:
Risk tolerance refers to the acceptable level of variation in performance relative to the achievement of objectives. It is essentially the degree of risk the organization is willing to endure.
The board and executive management establish risk tolerance based on the organization's strategic goals, capacity to absorb losses, and regulatory requirements.
Importance of Senior Leadership:
Senior leadership's involvement ensures that risk tolerance is aligned with the organization's overall strategy and risk appetite.
It provides a top-down approach to risk management, ensuring consistency and alignment across the organization.
Comparing Other Stakeholders:
IT Compliance and IT Audit: These functions are responsible for monitoring and ensuring adherence to policies but do not set risk tolerance.
Regulators and Shareholders: They influence risk management practices through external pressures but do not define risk tolerance directly.
Enterprise Risk Management (ERM): ERM frameworks support the implementation of risk management but the actual definition of risk tolerance comes from the board and executive management.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual discusses how senior management, including the board, is responsible for defining risk tolerance and ensuring it aligns with the organization's risk appetite (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 1: Governance, Section 1.10 Risk Appetite, Tolerance, and Capacity) .
An organization has established a policy prohibiting ransom payments if subjected to a ransomware attack. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to support this policy?
Options:
Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning
Creating immutable backups
Performing required patching
Implementing continuous intrusion detection monitoring
Answer:
BExplanation:
When an organization has a policy prohibiting ransom payments in the event of a ransomware attack, the most effective control to support this policy is creating immutable backups. Here’s why:
Immutable Backups:
Definition: Immutable backups are backups that cannot be altered, deleted, or modified in any way once they are created. This ensures that a clean, untampered copy of data is always available.
Protection Against Ransomware: Ransomware attacks typically encrypt data and demand a ransom to decrypt it. With immutable backups, the organization can restore the affected systems using the backup without paying the ransom, thereby adhering to their policy.
Effectiveness:
Restoration Capability: Immutable backups provide a reliable means to restore data to its state before the ransomware attack. This restoration capability negates the need to consider paying the ransom to regain access to encrypted data.
Compliance with Policy: By having a secure and untouchable backup, the organization ensures compliance with its no-ransom policy as it can recover operations without engaging with the attackers.
Comparison with Other Options:
Vulnerability Scanning: While important, this primarily helps in identifying vulnerabilities and does not directly help in data recovery post-ransomware attack.
Patching: Regular patching reduces the risk of ransomware infection but does not aid in recovery if an attack occurs.
Intrusion Detection: Continuous monitoring can detect ransomware activities but does not provide a solution for restoring data after an attack.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of data backups and specifically highlights the advantages of immutable backups in maintaining data integrity and availability in the face of attacks .
Which of the following activities is a responsibility of the second line of defense?
Options:
Challenging risk decision making
Developing controls to manage risk scenarios
Implementing risk response plans
Establishing organizational risk appetite
Answer:
AExplanation:
The second line of defense is responsible for challenging the risk decision making of the first line of defense, which is the business process owners and managers. The second line of defense also provides oversight, guidance, and support to the first line of defense in implementing and maintaining effective risk management practices. The second line of defense includes functions such as risk management, compliance, quality assurance, and internal audit. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2: IT Risk Management Roles and Responsibilities, Page 14.
An organization is outsourcing a key database to be hosted by an external service provider. Who is BEST suited to assess the impact of potential data loss?
Options:
Database manager
Public relations manager
Data privacy manager
Business manager
Answer:
DExplanation:
The business manager is best suited to assess the impact of potential data loss when outsourcing a key database to an external service provider.
Role of the Business Manager:
Understanding Business Impact: The business manager has a comprehensive understanding of the business processes, the criticality of the data, and the potential impact of data loss on business operations.
Decision Making: They are responsible for making decisions regarding risk tolerance, business continuity, and aligning the risk management practices with business objectives.
Assessment of Data Loss Impact:
Operational Impact: The business manager can evaluate how data loss would affect day-to-day operations and overall business continuity.
Financial and Reputational Impact: They can also assess the financial repercussions and potential damage to the organization’s reputation, providing a holistic view of the impact.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the importance of involving business managers in assessing the impact of data loss due to their understanding of business operations and strategic objectives .
Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?
Options:
Risk maturity
Risk policy
Risk appetite
Risk culture
Answer:
CExplanation:
Risk appetite is the best criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted, as it reflects the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to take in pursuit of its objectives. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after applying controls or other risk treatments. By comparing the residual risk ratings against the risk appetite, an organization can decide whether to accept, reduce, transfer, or avoid the risk. If the residual risk is within or below the risk appetite, the organization may accept the risk as tolerable. If the residual risk is above the risk appetite, the organization may not accept the risk as acceptable, and may seek further risk treatments or escalation.
References:
•ISACA, Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, 2019, p. 751
•ISACA, Risk and Information Systems Control Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2020, p. 2112
Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?
Options:
Making data available to a larger audience of customers
Data not being disposed according to the retention policy
Personal data not being de-identified properly
Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into
Answer:
DExplanation:
Data Privacy Principles:
Consent and Purpose Limitation: According to data privacy regulations like GDPR, data subjects must provide explicit consent for specific purposes. Using data for purposes beyond what was consented to violates these principles, posing significant compliance risks.
Transparency and Accountability: Organizations must be transparent about how they use personal data and ensure accountability in data processing. Using data without consent undermines this transparency and accountability.
Greatest Risk of Noncompliance:
Legal and Regulatory Risks: Using personal data without consent can lead to severe penalties under laws like GDPR and CPRA. These laws impose heavy fines for noncompliance, making this scenario the highest risk.
Reputational Damage: Unauthorized use of personal data can severely damage an organization’s reputation, leading to loss of customer trust and potential financial losses.
Operational Impact: Ensuring compliance with consent requirements is fundamental to an organization's data processing activities. Failure to do so can disrupt business operations and necessitate significant remediation efforts.
Comparison with Other Options:
Making Data Available to a Larger Audience of Customers: While potentially risky, this does not inherently violate data privacy principles if done within consented uses.
Data Not Being Disposed According to the Retention Policy: This poses risks related to data minimization and retention principles but is less severe than unauthorized data use.
Personal Data Not Being De-identified Properly: This is a significant risk but typically involves fewer direct legal and regulatory implications compared to using data without consent.
References:
CRISC Review Manual: Discusses the importance of informed consent and the principles of data privacy, emphasizing the severe implications of using personal data without consent .
ISACA Guidelines: Highlight the need for transparency and accountability in data processing, aligning with global privacy regulations .
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Options:
Logs are retained for longer than required.
Logs are reviewed annually.
Logs are stored in a multi-tenant cloud environment.
Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Log modification undermines data integrity, which is critical for accurate risk monitoring. Ensuring log integrity supports reliable KRI assessments, a key focus within the Risk Monitoring and Reporting framework.
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern upon learning of failures in a data migration activity?
Options:
Availability of test data
Integrity of data
Cost overruns
System performance
Answer:
BExplanation:
The integrity of data should be the greatest concern for a risk practitioner upon learning of failures in a data migration activity, because it affects the accuracy, completeness, and consistency of the data that are transferred from one system or format to another. Data integrity is a property of data that ensures that the data are valid, reliable, and trustworthy, and that they have not been altered or corrupted by unauthorized or accidental means. Data migration is a process of moving or copying data from one system or format to another, usually as part of a system upgrade, consolidation, or transformation. Data migration can pose risks to the integrity of data, such as data loss, duplication, inconsistency, or corruption, due to factors such as incompatible formats, human errors, technical glitches, or malicious attacks. Therefore, the integrity of data should be the greatest concern, as it impacts the quality and usability of the data, and the performance and functionality of the system. The availability of test data, the cost overruns, and the system performance are all possible concerns for a risk practitioner, but they are not the greatest concern, as they do not directly affect the integrity of data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?
Options:
To provide insight into the effectiveness of the internal control environment
To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls
To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers
To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level
Answer:
DExplanation:
The ultimate objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process is to provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level, as they indicate the performance and adequacy of the controls, and alert the stakeholders to any control gaps or deficiencies that may affect the risk exposure and impact. The other options are not the ultimate objectives, as they are more related to the insight, basis, or benchmark of the risk management process, respectively, rather than the early warning sign of the risk management process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
An organization has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days' leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?
Options:
Percentage of staff turnover following five consecutive days of leave
Average number of consecutive days of leave per staff member
Number of suspected malicious activities reported since policy implementation
Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities since policy implementation
Answer:
CExplanation:
The number of suspected malicious activities reported since the policy's implementation directly measures the policy's effectiveness in identifying and mitigating insider threats. This aligns with Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) used to evaluate control outcomes.
Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?
Options:
Solutions for eradicating emerging threats
Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats
Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)
Source and identity of attackers
Answer:
CExplanation:
•External sources of emerging threats are sources that provide information about the latest cyberattacks, hacking techniques, malware, and vulnerabilities that can affect an organization’s IT systems and data. Examples of external sources are security blogs, forums, newsletters, reports, and alerts from reputable organizations such as ISACA, Imperva, Aura, and BitSight123.
•The most useful information an organization can obtain from external sources is the indicators for detecting the presence of threats. Indicators are observable signs or patterns that can help identify, prevent, or mitigate cyberattacks. Examples of indicators are IP addresses, domain names, file hashes, network traffic, system logs, and user behavior4.
•Indicators for detecting the presence of threats are more useful than the other options because they can help an organization to:
oMonitor and analyze its IT environment for any suspicious or malicious activity
oRespond quickly and effectively to any potential or actual incidents
oReduce the impact and damage of cyberattacks
oImprove its security posture and resilience
•Solutions for eradicating emerging threats are not the most useful information because they may not be applicable or effective for every organization, depending on its specific context, needs, and resources. Moreover, solutions may not be available or known for some new or sophisticated threats.
•Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats is not the most useful information because it does not help an organization to identify or prevent cyberattacks. Cost is only one factor to consider when deciding how to manage IT risk, and it may not reflect the true value or impact of the threats.
•Source and identity of attackers are not the most useful information because they may not be relevant or accurate for every organization. Source and identity of attackers are often difficult to trace or verify, and they may not affect the organization’s risk level or response strategy.
References =
•Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Identification, pp. 83-84
•Risk and Information Systems Control Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 12 Month Subscription, ISACA, 2020, Question ID: 100000
A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?
Options:
Negotiating terms of adoption
Understanding the timeframe to implement
Completing a gap analysis
Initiating the conversion
Answer:
CExplanation:
Completing a gap analysis identifies discrepancies between current controls and the requirements of the IT control framework, ensuring a focused approach to compliance. This supports Risk Assessment for Compliance Requirements.
Which of the following should be the starting point when performing a risk analysis for an asset?
Options:
Assess risk scenarios.
Update the risk register.
Evaluate threats.
Assess controls.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Assessing risk scenarios is the starting point when performing a risk analysis for an asset. A risk scenario is a description of a possible event or situation that could cause harm or loss to an asset. Assessing risk scenarios involves identifying the sources and causes of risk, the potential impacts and consequences of risk, and the likelihood and frequency of risk occurrence. Assessing risk scenarios can help establish the risk context, scope, and criteria for the asset, and provide the basis for further risk analysis steps, such as evaluating threats, assessing controls, and updating the risk register. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, assessing risk scenarios is the first step in the IT risk assessment process1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, assessing risk scenarios is the correct answer to this question
Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement?
Options:
Application monitoring
Separation of duty
Least privilege
Nonrepudiation
Answer:
CExplanation:
Least privilege is the best way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement, because it limits the access and permissions of the individual to the minimum level that is required to perform their role or function, and prevents the individual from accessing or modifying the resources or data that are not relevant or authorized. An entitlement is a right or privilege that grants an individual the ability to access or use a resource or data, such as a file, a system, or an application. An unnecessary entitlement is an entitlement that is not needed or justified for the individual’s role or function, and may pose a risk of unauthorized or inappropriate access or use of the resource or data. A potentially harmful action is an action that may cause harm or damage to the organization or its objectives, such as a data breach, a fraud, or a sabotage. Least privilege is the best way, as it helps to minimize the exposure and impact of the unnecessary entitlement, and to reduce the likelihood and severity of the potentially harmful action. Application monitoring, separation of duty, and nonrepudiation are all possible ways to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement, but they are not the best way, as they do not directly address the unnecessary entitlement, and may not prevent the potentially harmful action. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 200
A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:
Options:
updating the risk register.
validating the risk scenarios.
documenting the risk scenarios.
identifying risk mitigation controls.
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the most important time to involve business stakeholders in the development of bottom-up IT risk scenarios is when validating the risk scenarios, as they can provide valuable input on the relevance, completeness, and accuracy of the scenarios and their impact on the business objectives and processes2
1: CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 100001 2: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 97
During the creation of an organization's IT risk management program, the BEST time to identify key risk indicators (KRIs) is while:
Options:
interviewing data owners.
reviewing risk response plans with internal audit.
developing a risk monitoring process.
reviewing an external risk assessment.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best time to identify Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) is while developing a risk monitoring process.
KRIs and Risk Monitoring:
Definition: KRIs are metrics used to signal potential risk events and the effectiveness of controls in place. They help in monitoring the risk landscape continuously.
Integration in Monitoring: As the risk monitoring process is developed, identifying KRIs ensures that the process includes mechanisms to track and respond to these indicators effectively.
Benefits:
Proactive Risk Management: Identifying KRIs during the development of the monitoring process allows the organization to set up a proactive risk management system. It ensures that potential risks are detected early and managed appropriately.
Alignment with Objectives: This timing allows KRIs to be aligned with organizational risk management objectives and thresholds from the beginning, ensuring coherence in the overall risk management strategy.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of integrating KRIs into the risk monitoring process for effective risk management and early warning systems .
Which of the following should be done FIRST when a new risk scenario has been identified
Options:
Estimate the residual risk.
Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).
Design control improvements.
Identify the risk owner.
Answer:
DExplanation:
•A risk owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to manage a specific risk1. The risk owner is accountable for the implementation and effectiveness of the risk response strategy and the risk treatment plan2.
•Identifying the risk owner is the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because the risk owner is the key stakeholder who will be involved in the subsequent steps of the risk management process, such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, risk treatment, and risk monitoring2.
•Identifying the risk owner also helps to clarify the roles and responsibilities of different parties involved in the risk management process, such as the risk manager, the risk analyst, the risk committee, and the risk auditor3. This can improve the communication, coordination, and collaboration among the risk management team and ensure that the risk is managed effectively and efficiently.
•Estimating the residual risk (option A) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because the residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk treatment plan has been implemented2. Therefore, estimating the residual risk requires prior steps such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, and risk treatment.
•Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) (option B) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because KRIs are metrics or data points that provide early warning signals or information about the level or trend of a risk4. Therefore, establishing KRIs requires prior steps such as risk identification, risk analysis, and risk evaluation.
•Designing control improvements (option C) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because control improvements are part of the risk treatment plan, which is the set of actions and resources needed to implement the chosen risk response strategy2. Therefore, designing control improvements requires prior steps such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, and risk response selection.
References =
•Risk Owner - Institute of Internal Auditors
•Risk Treatment Plan - ISACA
•Risk Management Roles and Responsibilities - 360factors
•Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture
A migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing. Which part of the risk register should be updated FIRST?
Options:
Payroll system risk factors
Payroll system risk mitigation plans
Payroll process owner
Payroll administrative controls
Answer:
BExplanation:
Payroll system risk mitigation plans are the actions that are taken to reduce or eliminate the risk associated with payroll processing. When a migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing, the first part of the risk register that should be updated is the payroll system risk mitigation plans. This is because the migration may introduce new risks or change the existing risks, and the risk mitigation plans may need to be revised or replaced accordingly. Updating the payroll system risk mitigation plans can help ensure that the risk level is acceptable and the payroll process is secure and reliable. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key risk treatment techniques is to update the risk action plan, which is a document that outlines the risk mitigation plans1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, updating the risk mitigation plans is the correct answer to this question2.
Payroll system risk factors, payroll process owner, and payroll administrative controls are not the first part of the risk register that should be updated when a migration is affecting a key risk scenario. Payroll system risk factors are the sources or causes of risk, such as threats, vulnerabilities, or uncertainties. Payroll process owner is the person who is responsible for the payroll process and its outcomes. Payroll administrative controls are the policies, procedures, or guidelines that govern the payroll process. These parts of the risk register may also need to be updated, but they are not as urgent or critical as the risk mitigation plans. Updating the risk factors, process owner, and administrative controls can help identify, assess, and monitor the risk, but they do not directly address the risk response. The risk response is the most important part of the risk management process, as it determines how the risk is handled and controlled.
Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?
Options:
Data protection officer
Chief information officer (CIO)
Information asset custodian
Information asset owner
Answer:
DExplanation:
The organizational role that should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified is the information asset owner, as they have the authority and responsibility to define the classification, retention, and disposal requirements for the information assets they own, and to manage the risk and controls related to the information assets. The other options are not the correct roles, as they have different roles and responsibilities related to the protection, governance, or maintenance of the information assets, respectively, rather than the classification of the information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization's cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?
Options:
The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization's systems from cyberattacks.
The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.
The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.
The policy has not been approved by the organization's board.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The policy has not been approved by the organization’s board should be of most concern, as it indicates a lack of governance and oversight for the organization’s cybersecurity posture. The board is ultimately responsible for setting the strategic direction, objectives, and risk appetite of the organization, and for ensuring that the cybersecurity policy aligns with them. Without the board’s approval, the policy may not reflect the organization’s vision, mission, values, and culture, and may not be communicated, implemented, or enforced effectively. The board’s approval also demonstrates the commitment and support of the senior management for the cybersecurity program, and enhances the accountability and responsibility of the stakeholders involved.
References:
•ISACA, Essential Functions of a Cybersecurity Program1
•ISACA, Cybersecurity: Based on the NIST Cybersecurity Framework2
A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:
Options:
Aligned with risk management capabilities.
Based on industry trends.
Related to probable events.
Mapped to incident response plans.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Risk scenarios should reflect probable events to ensure relevance and practicality in risk assessments. This guidance supports the Risk Identification and Scenario Development process.
A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Options:
Reassess the risk profile.
Modify the risk taxonomy.
Increase the risk tolerance.
Review the risk culture.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Reassessing the risk profile is the first course of action that a risk practitioner should take after a hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. This is because reassessing the risk profile can help identify, analyze, and evaluate the new or changed risks that the new technology may introduce or affect, such as data privacy, security, quality, reliability, or compliance risks. Reassessing the risk profile can also help determine the appropriate risk response and mitigation strategies, as well as monitor and report the risk performance and outcomes. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, reassessing the risk profile is one of the key steps in the IT risk management process1. According to the web search results, reassessing the risk profile is a common and recommended practice for addressing the risks of virtual patient appointments
In a public company, which group is PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring sufficient attention and resources are applied to the risk management process?
Options:
Board of directors
Risk officers
Line management
Senior management
Answer:
AWhich of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?
Options:
The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions
The number of servers with local credentials to install patches
The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements
The number of servers running the software patching service
Answer:
CExplanation:
This KPI measures how well the server patch management process meets the agreed-upon standards and expectations for timeliness, quality, and security. It reflects the efficiency and effectiveness of the patch deployment and the compliance with the patch policy. It also helps to identify and address any issues or delays that may affect the patching performance.
References
•Patch Management KPI Metrics - Motadata
•KPI Examples for Patch and Vulnerability Management - Heimdal Security
•Measuring the Effectiveness of Your Patch Management Strategy - Automox
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address risk associated with technical complexity?
Options:
Documenting system hardening requirements
Minimizing dependency on technology
Aligning with a security architecture
Establishing configuration guidelines
Answer:
DExplanation:
Establishing configuration guidelines reduces complexity by standardizing processes, making systems easier to manage and secure. This is a fundamental aspect of Technical Risk Management.
Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?
Options:
Transaction log monitoring
Access control attestation
Periodic job rotation
Whistleblower program
Answer:
DExplanation:
Whistleblower Program:
Definition: A whistleblower program allows employees to report unethical or illegal activities within the organization anonymously.
Detection of Ethical Violations: Employees are often in the best position to observe unethical behavior. A well-structured whistleblower program encourages them to report such behavior without fear of retaliation.
Anonymity and Protection: Providing anonymity and protection to whistleblowers increases the likelihood that employees will report violations, thus enabling the organization to detect and address ethical issues more effectively.
Comparison with Other Options:
Transaction Log Monitoring: While useful for detecting anomalies and potential fraud, it is not specifically focused on ethical violations and may not capture all types of unethical behavior.
Access Control Attestation: This ensures that users have the correct access permissions but does not directly detect unethical behavior.
Periodic Job Rotation: This can help prevent fraud by reducing the risk of collusion and providing fresh perspectives on processes, but it does not directly detect ethical violations.
Best Practices:
Clear Reporting Channels: Ensure that the whistleblower program has clear and accessible reporting channels.
Training and Awareness: Regularly train employees on the importance of reporting unethical behavior and the protections offered by the whistleblower program.
Follow-up and Action: Ensure that reports are investigated thoroughly and appropriate actions are taken to address verified violations.
References:
CRISC Review Manual: Emphasizes the importance of ethical behavior and the role of whistleblower programs in detecting and addressing ethical violations within organizations.
ISACA Guidelines: Support the implementation of whistleblower programs as a key component of a comprehensive risk management and ethical governance framework.
A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:
Options:
based on industry trends.
mapped to incident response plans.
related to probable events.
aligned with risk management capabilities.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Understanding the Question:
The question asks for the best guidance for developing relevant risk scenarios.
Analyzing the Options:
A. Based on industry trends: Important but may not always be directly relevant to the specific organization.
B. Mapped to incident response plans: Useful but secondary to ensuring the scenarios are probable.
C. Related to probable events: Ensures the scenarios are realistic and likely, making them more relevant and actionable.
D. Aligned with risk management capabilities: Important for managing risks but not as critical as ensuring scenarios are probable.
Detailed Explanation:
Probable Events: Developing risk scenarios that are based on probable events ensures that the organization is prepared for the most likely risks. This makes risk management efforts more practical and focused on real threats.
Relevance: By focusing on probable events, the scenarios will be more relevant to the organization's actual risk environment, making it easier to allocate resources and plan responses effectively.
References:
CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, emphasizes the importance of identifying and evaluating probable risk events to develop effective risk scenarios.
Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?
Options:
Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted
Revoking access for users changing roles
Monitoring user activity using security logs
Granting access based on least privilege
Answer:
AExplanation:
Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted helps to mitigate risks associated with excessive access by authorized users. This practice ensures that users have only the necessary permissions required to perform their roles and that any outdated or unnecessary access rights are removed promptly. Here’s a detailed explanation:
Periodic Reviews of Authorizations Granted:
Regular Audits: Regularly scheduled reviews or audits help identify any discrepancies in user access levels. These audits ensure that users' access rights align with their current roles and responsibilities within the organization.
Detection of Excessive Privileges: During these reviews, any excessive or unnecessary access privileges that have been granted can be identified and revoked. This reduces the risk of unauthorized activities, either intentional or accidental, by users who have more access than required.
Compliance with Policies: Ensuring that user access rights are reviewed periodically aligns with best practices and regulatory requirements, supporting the overall governance framework of the organization.
Comparison with Other Options:
Revoking Access for Users Changing Roles: While revoking access for users changing roles is crucial, it is a reactive measure that only applies when roles change. Periodic reviews are proactive and continuous.
Monitoring User Activity Using Security Logs: Monitoring security logs is essential for detecting and responding to suspicious activities but does not prevent the initial granting of excessive access.
Granting Access Based on Least Privilege: Least privilege is a fundamental principle, but it needs to be continuously enforced and validated through periodic reviews to be effective.
Best Practices:
Automation: Implementing automated tools for access reviews can streamline the process and reduce human errors.
Documentation: Maintaining detailed records of the reviews and any changes made helps in compliance and provides an audit trail.
Segregation of Duties: Ensuring that the review process itself is subject to segregation of duties, preventing conflicts of interest and ensuring objectivity.
CRISC Review Manual: Discusses the importance of periodic reviews in ensuring the effectiveness of access controls and maintaining a secure environment.
ISACA Standards and Guidelines: Emphasize the need for continuous monitoring and review of user access to mitigate risks associated with excessive permissions.
References:
The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:
Options:
the risk register change log.
evidence of risk acceptance.
control effectiveness test results.
control design documentation.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Reviewing the risk register change log is the best way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed, because it helps to track and monitor the changes and updates that have been made to the risk register, and to verify that the risk response activities have been implemented and closed. A risk register is a document that captures, identifies, assesses and tracks risk as part of the risk management process4. A risk register change log is a record that documents the date, description, and reason for each change or update that is made to the risk register. A risk response activity is an action or task that is performed to implement the chosen risk response strategy for a specific risk, such as avoid, transfer, mitigate, or accept. Reviewing the risk register change log is the best way, as it helps to ensure that the risk register is accurate and current, and that the risk response activities have been completed and reported. Reviewing evidence of risk acceptance, control effectiveness test results, and control design documentation are all possible ways to validate whether risk response activities have been completed, but they are not the best way, as they may not cover all the risk response activities, and they may not reflect the changes or updates in the risk register. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 101
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?
Options:
To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities
To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits
To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements
To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective
Answer:
BExplanation:
The primary reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management is to ensure that IT risk is managed within acceptable limits, because it helps to inform and advise the senior management on the current state and direction of IT risk, and to support the risk-based decision making and prioritization. An IT risk profile is a summary of the key IT risks that an organization faces, and their implications for the organization’s objectives and strategy. An IT risk profile may change or evolve over time, due to factors such as new technologies, business initiatives, or external events. Reporting changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management is the primary reason, as it helps to ensure that the senior management is aware of and prepared for the IT risk challenges and opportunities, and that the IT risk is managed within the acceptable limits defined by the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities, to ensure the organization complies with legal requirements, and to ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective are all possible reasons for reporting changes and trends in the IT risk profile, but they are not the primary reason, as they are not directly related to the management of IT risk within acceptable limits. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3, page 91
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?
Options:
Scheduling periodic audits
Assigning a data custodian
Implementing technical controls over the assets
Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Answer:
AExplanation:
Scheduling periodic audits is the best way to facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements, because it helps to verify and validate that the data are classified and handled according to the established policies, standards, and guidelines, and that the data classification requirements are updated and aligned with the changes in the data environment or regulations. Data classification is a process of categorizing data according to their sensitivity, confidentiality, and value to the organization, and specifying the appropriate handling and protection measures for each category. Data classification requirements are the rules or criteria that define how data should be classified and treated. Scheduling periodic audits is the best way to ensure that the data classification requirements are followed and maintained, and that any issues or gaps are identified and addressed. Assigning a data custodian, implementing technical controls over the assets, and establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution are all useful ways to facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements, but they are not the best way, as they do not provide a comprehensive and independent review and assessment of the data classification process and outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
What is senior management's role in the RACI model when tasked with reviewing monthly status reports provided by risk owners?
Options:
Accountable
Informed
Responsible
Consulted
Answer:
AExplanation:
Senior management’s role in the RACI model when tasked with reviewing monthly status reports provided by risk owners is accountable, as it means that they have the ultimate authority and responsibility to approve or reject the risk management decisions and actions, and to oversee the risk management performance and outcomes. The other options are not the correct roles, as they imply different levels or types of involvement or participation in the risk management process, such as being informed, responsible, or consulted, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
Which of the following should be done FIRST upon learning that the organization will be affected by a new regulation in its industry?
Options:
Transfer the risk.
Perform a gap analysis.
Determine risk appetite for the new regulation.
Implement specific monitoring controls.
Answer:
BExplanation:
A gap analysis is the process of comparing the current state of the organization’s compliance with the new regulation and the desired state of compliance. It helps to identify the gaps or deficiencies that need to be addressed and prioritize the actions to close them. Performing a gap analysis is the first step to understand the impact of the new regulation and plan the appropriate risk response.
References
•ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Domain 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.2.3: Gap Analysis
•Regulatory Change: Future of Risk in the Digital Era | Deloitte US
•Gap Analysis: What It Is and How to Perform One | The Blueprint
When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:
Options:
business process owners.
representative data sets.
industry benchmark data.
data automation systems.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Building Key Risk Indicators (KRIs):
KRIs are metrics used to provide an early signal of increasing risk exposure in various areas of an organization.
Importance of Representative Data Sets:
To ensure KRIs are accurate and meaningful, it is critical that the data used is representative of the entire population or relevant subset of activities being monitored.
Representative data ensures that the KRIs reflect the true state of risk and are not biased or incomplete.
Impact on KRIs:
Using representative data sets improves the reliability and validity of KRIs, enabling better risk detection and management.
It ensures that the KRIs provide a realistic view of potential risk trends and patterns.
Comparing Other Data Sources:
Business Process Owners: While they provide valuable insights, data from them alone may not be representative.
Industry Benchmark Data: Useful for comparisons but not specific to the organization’s unique context.
Data Automation Systems: Helpful for efficiency but must ensure the data is representative.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of using representative data to build effective KRIs (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.11 Data Collection Aggregation Analysis and Validation) .
Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of fraudulent activity that occurs through use of a digital wallet?
Options:
Require public key infrastructure (PKI) to authorize transactions.
Require multi-factor authentication (MFA) to access the digital wallet.
Use a digital key to encrypt the contents of the wallet.
Enable audit logging on the digital wallet's device.
Answer:
BExplanation:
MFA significantly increases security by requiring multiple authentication factors, making it harder for attackers to access digital wallets fraudulently. This is a cornerstone of Access Control Measures in risk mitigation.
Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?
Options:
Avoidance
Transfer
Mitigation
Acceptance
Answer:
AExplanation:
Risk Treatment Strategy - Avoidance:
Definition: Risk avoidance involves taking actions to completely eliminate a risk by discontinuing the activities or conditions that give rise to it.
Application: In this case, the organization decided to shut down its online sales order system temporarily to avoid the risk of a data breach until sufficient controls are implemented.
Steps Involved:
Identifying the Risk: Recognizing the potential for a data breach due to inadequate controls.
Decision to Avoid: Determining that the best course of action is to shut down the system to prevent any possible breach.
Implementation: Taking immediate action to shut down the system and communicate this decision to relevant stakeholders.
Comparison with Other Options:
Transfer: Involves shifting the risk to another party (e.g., through insurance), which is not applicable here.
Mitigation: Involves reducing the impact or likelihood of the risk, but does not eliminate it completely as avoidance does.
Acceptance: Accepting the risk without taking action, which is not the chosen strategy here.
Best Practices:
Comprehensive Risk Assessment: Conduct thorough risk assessments to determine when risk avoidance is the most appropriate strategy.
Clear Communication: Ensure all stakeholders are informed about the decision and the reasons behind it.
CRISC Review Manual: Provides detailed explanations of different risk treatment strategies, including avoidance.
ISACA Guidelines: Highlight the importance of choosing the appropriate risk treatment strategy based on the specific risk scenario.
References:
Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?
Options:
Balanced scorecard
Risk management framework
Capability maturity model
Risk scenario analysis
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most useful tool for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state is the capability maturity model, as it provides a structured and standardized way to assess the current and target levels of maturity, performance, and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to identify the gaps and improvement opportunities. The balanced scorecard, the risk management framework, and the risk scenario analysis are not the most useful tools, as they are more related to the evaluation, design, or identification of the risk management process, respectively, rather than the measurement of the risk management process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for risk treatment?
Options:
Risk owner
Enterprise risk management (ERM)
Risk practitioner
Control owner
Answer:
AExplanation:
The risk owner holds ultimate accountability for risk treatment, as they are responsible for decisions regarding the management and mitigation of the risk. This is a fundamental principle of Risk Ownership and Accountability within the CRISC framework.
An organization uses a biometric access control system for authentication and access to its server room. Which control type has been implemented?
Options:
Detective
Deterrent
Preventive
Corrective
Answer:
CExplanation:
Biometric systems are preventive controls designed to restrict access to authorized personnel only, thereby proactively mitigating unauthorized access risks. This aligns with Access and Authentication Control principles in risk management.
An organization's decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:
Options:
The region in which the organization operates.
Established business culture.
Risk appetite set by senior management.
Identified business process controls.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Risk appetite determined by senior management reflects the enterprise's willingness to accept certain levels of risk, including noncompliance. This decision underscores the strategic trade-offs made in risk management, a key element in Governance and Risk Policy Alignment.
A large organization recently restructured the IT department and has decided to outsource certain functions. What action should the control owners in the IT department take?
Options:
Conduct risk classification for associated IT controls.
Determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk.
Perform vulnerability and threat assessments.
Analyze and update IT control assessments.
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control study guide and handbook, the control owners in the IT department should determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk after a restructuring and outsourcing of certain functions. This is because the restructuring and outsourcing may have changed the risk profile, the control environment, and the control activities of the IT department. The control owners should review the existing risk responses and evaluate if they are still appropriate, adequate, and efficient in mitigating the risks associated with the outsourced functions. The control owners should also monitor the performance and compliance of the service providers and ensure that the contractual obligations and service level agreements are met12
1: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Study Guide, 4th Edition, page 33 2: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Handbook, 1st Edition, page 25
Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?
Options:
Threat event
Vulnerability event
Technical event
Loss event
Answer:
DExplanation:
A loss event is the result of a realized risk scenario, as it represents the actual occurrence of an adverse outcome or impact due to the exploitation of a vulnerability by a threat. A threat event, a vulnerability event, and a technical event are not the results of a realized risk scenario, as they are more related to the sources, conditions, or mechanisms of the risk, respectively, rather than the outcome or impact of the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?
Options:
Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.
Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.
Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.
Transfer a read-only version of the data.
Answer:
CExplanation:
A VPN ensures secure data transmission by encrypting communications over public networks. This approach minimizes interception risks and adheres to Data Security Controls.
During a post-implementation review for a new system, users voiced concerns about missing functionality. Which of the following is the BEST way for the organization to avoid this situation in the future?
Options:
Test system reliability and performance.
Adopt an Agile development approach.
Conduct user acceptance testing (UAT).
Adopt a phased changeover approach.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Conducting User Acceptance Testing (UAT) is the best way for an organization to avoid situations where users voice concerns about missing functionality after a system implementation.
User Acceptance Testing (UAT):
Definition: UAT involves testing the system with actual users to ensure it meets their needs and requirements. It verifies that the system performs in real-world scenarios as expected by the users.
Involvement of Users: UAT includes the end-users in the testing process, ensuring that their feedback is incorporated and that the system functionalities align with their expectations.
Benefits:
Identifying Gaps: UAT helps in identifying gaps between the delivered system and user expectations. This early detection allows for adjustments before the system goes live.
Improved Satisfaction: By involving users in the testing process, the likelihood of the system meeting their needs increases, leading to higher user satisfaction and reduced post-implementation issues.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual and best practices in project management emphasize the importance of UAT in ensuring that the system meets user requirements and avoids post-implementation functionality concerns .
When classifying and prioritizing risk responses, the areas to address FIRST are those with:
Options:
low cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels
high cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.
high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels
low cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The areas to address first when classifying and prioritizing risk responses are those with high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels, as they represent the most optimal and urgent risk responses that can reduce the risk exposure and impact significantly with a reasonable cost. The other options are not the areas to address first, as they may indicate suboptimal or less urgent risk responses that may not align with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Who is BEST suited to provide information to the risk practitioner about the effectiveness of a technical control associated with an application?
Options:
System owner
Internal auditor
Process owner
Risk owner
Answer:
AExplanation:
Role of the System Owner:
The system owner is responsible for the overall operation and management of an application or system. This includes ensuring that technical controls are implemented and functioning as intended.
They have detailed knowledge of the system's architecture, the controls in place, and how those controls are applied within the system.
Effectiveness of Technical Controls:
Assessing the effectiveness of a technical control requires understanding its implementation, configuration, and operational context.
The system owner is best positioned to provide this information as they manage and oversee the technical environment of the application.
Comparing Other Roles:
Internal Auditor: While auditors review and evaluate the effectiveness of controls, they do so from an independent standpoint and might not have detailed, day-to-day operational insights.
Process Owner: The process owner focuses on business processes rather than technical controls specific to an application.
Risk Owner: The risk owner is responsible for managing risk but may not have the technical expertise or detailed operational knowledge of the system.
Supporting Information:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the system owner is often involved in the assessment and reporting of control effectiveness, especially regarding technical controls (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.1.3 Assessing Control Effectiveness) .
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in?
Options:
To reduce the likelihood of insider threat
To eliminate the possibility of insider threat
To enable rapid discovery of insider threat
To reduce the impact of insider threat
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in is to reduce the likelihood of insider threat, as it informs the users of the policies, rules, and expectations for the use of the organization’s IT resources, and deters them from engaging in unauthorized or malicious activities. The other options are not the primary reasons, as they are more related to the detection, prevention, or mitigation of insider threat, respectively, rather than the reduction of the likelihood of insider threat. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 155.
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?
Options:
Inaccurate record management data
Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)
Lack of accountability for data ownership
Users having unauthorized access to data
Answer:
DExplanation:
The greatest risk associated with inappropriate classification of data is users having unauthorized access to sensitive information. Proper data classification ensures that access controls are applied appropriately, protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access.
Importance of Data Classification
Data classification involves categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity and the impact that unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or destruction would have on the organization.
It ensures that appropriate security measures are applied according to the data's classification.
Risks of Inappropriate Classification
Unauthorized Access: If data is not classified correctly, sensitive information may not receive the necessary protections, leading to unauthorized access.
Lack of Accountability: Misclassification can result in unclear responsibilities for data protection, but the primary concern remains unauthorized access.
Inaccurate Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs): While important, this is secondary to the risk of unauthorized access.
Inaccurate Record Management Data: This can affect operational efficiency but is not as critical as unauthorized access.
Implementing Effective Classification
Organizations must have a clear data classification policy and ensure it is followed consistently.
Regular audits and reviews should be conducted to verify that data is classified appropriately and that access controls are enforced.
References
CISM Review Manual Full text.html, emphasizing the importance of proper data classification and the risks associated with misclassification, especially unauthorized access to data.
Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?
Options:
Cost of implementation
Implementation of unproven applications
Disruption to business processes
Increase in attack surface area
Answer:
BWhich of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?
Options:
Mean time between failures (MTBF)
Mean time to recover (MTTR)
Planned downtime
Unplanned downtime
Answer:
AExplanation:
Mean time between failures (MTBF) is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the average time that a system or component operates without interruption or failure. MTBF is a common metric for reliability and availability of IT services. A higher MTBF indicates a lower frequency of failures and a higher ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, MTBF is one of the KPIs for IT service delivery1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, MTBF is the correct answer to this question2.
Mean time to recover (MTTR), planned downtime, and unplanned downtime are not the best KPIs to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services. MTTR measures the average time that it takes to restore a system or component to normal operation after a failure. Planned downtime measures the scheduled time that a system or component is not available for use due to maintenance or upgrades. Unplanned downtime measures the unscheduled time that a system or component is not available for use due to failures or incidents. These KPIs are useful for measuring the impact and duration of service interruptions, but they do not directly reflect the ability to prevent or avoid service interruptions.
A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Options:
Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations.
Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis.
Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA).
Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Reviewing the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA) is the first thing that a risk practitioner should do when wanting to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process, because it helps to ensure that the BIA is conducted in a consistent, comprehensive, and reliable manner, and that it covers all the relevant aspects and scenarios of the business process and its continuity. A BIA is a process of analyzing the potential impact of disruption to the critical business functions or processes, and identifying the recovery priorities and requirements. A BIA methodology is a set of principles, standards, and techniques that guide and support the BIA process, such as the scope, objectives, data sources, data collection methods, data analysis methods, and reporting methods. Reviewing the BIA methodology is the first thing to do, as it helps to establish the foundation and framework for the BIA process, and to ensure that the BIA results are valid and useful for identifying the potential risk events and their consequences. Evaluating current risk management alignment with relevant regulations, determining if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis, and conducting a benchmarking exercise against industry peers are all possible things to do after reviewing the BIA methodology, but they are not the first thing to do, as they depend on the quality and accuracy of the BIA process and outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 143
After the announcement of a new IT regulatory requirement, it is MOST important for a risk practitioner to;
Options:
prepare an IT risk mitigation strategy.
escalate to senior management.
perform a cost-benefit analysis.
review the impact to the IT environment.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Reviewing the impact to the IT environment is the most important task for a risk practitioner to perform after the announcement of a new IT regulatory requirement, because it helps to identify and assess the gaps and risks that the new requirement may introduce or affect. A regulatory requirement is a rule or standard that an organization must comply with to meet the expectations of a regulator, such as a government agency or an industry body. A new regulatory requirement may impose new obligations, restrictions, or expectations on the organization, especially on its IT environment, which supports the business processes and functions. Therefore, reviewing the impact to the IT environment is the first step to understand the implications and implications of the new requirement, and to plan the appropriate actions to achieve compliance. Preparing an IT risk mitigation strategy, escalating to senior management, and performing a cost-benefit analysis are all important tasks to perform after reviewing the impact to the IT environment, but they are not the most important task, as they depend on the results of the impact review. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 153
Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?
Options:
Vulnerability assessment
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Penetration testing
Root cause analysis
Answer:
AExplanation:
A vulnerability assessment is a process that identifies and quantifies vulnerabilities in a system. It is the most effective process to determine the relevance of threats for risk scenarios as it helps in identifying potential security threats and vulnerabilities, quantifying the seriousness of each, and prioritizing techniques to mitigate attack and protect IT resources1.
References
2Identifying and Estimating Cybersecurity Risk for Enterprise Risk Management
3Threat Modeling Process | OWASP Foundation
1Threat modeling explained: A process for anticipating cyber attacks
4Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment: A Guide - SafetyCulture
5How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?
Options:
Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs).
Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register.
Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs).
Developing contingency plans for key processes.
Answer:
AExplanation:
KRIs provide early warnings about potential deviations from the organization's risk appetite. These indicators enable proactive measures to prevent risk levels from exceeding acceptable thresholds, a critical component of Risk Monitoring and Reporting.
Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to continuously monitor a critical security transformation program?
Options:
To validate the quality of defined deliverables for the program
To detect increases in program costs
To ensure program risk events are mitigated in a timely manner
To provide timely reporting to the governance steering committee
Answer:
CExplanation:
Continuously monitoring a critical security transformation program is crucial for a risk practitioner primarily to ensure that any risk events are identified and mitigated promptly. This ensures that the security transformation remains on track and that potential risks do not escalate to a level that could compromise the program’s success.
Identifying and Mitigating Risks:
Risk Identification: Continuously monitoring the program helps in the early identification of risks. This is essential because unidentified risks can lead to unexpected issues that might derail the program.
Timely Mitigation: Once risks are identified, it is crucial to mitigate them as quickly as possible. Delays in mitigation can allow risks to grow in impact, making them harder and more expensive to address.
Ensuring Program Continuity:
Maintaining Momentum: Security transformation programs often involve significant changes and can be disruptive. By ensuring that risks are mitigated in a timely manner, the risk practitioner helps maintain the program’s momentum and keeps it on schedule.
Preventing Escalation: Timely risk mitigation prevents minor issues from escalating into major problems that could halt the program.
Aligning with Strategic Goals:
Strategic Alignment: Ensuring timely mitigation of risks helps in keeping the program aligned with the strategic goals of the organization. It ensures that the security objectives are met without significant delays or cost overruns.
References:
The importance of timely risk mitigation in program management is emphasized in various risk management frameworks and standards, such as the ISO 31000 and ISACA's Risk IT Framework. These frameworks highlight the need for ongoing risk monitoring and timely response to ensure successful program execution.
Which of the following is the BEST method to track asset inventory?
Options:
Periodic asset review by management
Asset registration form
IT resource budgeting process
Automated asset management software
Answer:
DExplanation:
Automated asset management software provides a continuous and efficient way to track assets throughout their lifecycle. It reduces the likelihood of human error, ensures up-to-date records, and can often integrate with other systems to provide comprehensive oversight of an organization’s assets.
When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?
Options:
Materiality
Confidentiality
Maturity
Transparency
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most important factor when reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk is materiality. Materiality is the extent to which the information reported is significant, relevant, and useful for decision-making purposes. Materiality helps to prioritize the most important risks and communicate them effectively to senior management12
1: Integrating KRIs and KPIs for Effective Technology Risk Management - ISACA 2: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 271
A user has contacted the risk practitioner regarding malware spreading laterally across the organization's corporate network. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?
Options:
Review all log files generated during the period of malicious activity.
Perform a root cause analysis.
Notify the cybersecurity incident response team.
Update the risk register.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Notifying the incident response team ensures immediate action to contain and remediate the malware spread, limiting further impact. This aligns with Incident Response and Containment protocols under risk management.
An enterprise has taken delivery of software patches that address vulnerabilities in its core business software. Prior to implementation, which of the following is the MOST important task to be performed?
Options:
Assess the impact of applying the patches on the production environment.
Survey other enterprises regarding their experiences with applying these patches.
Seek information from the software vendor to enable effective application of the patches.
Determine in advance an off-peak period to apply the patches.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Assessing the impact of applying the patches on the production environment is the most important task to be performed prior to implementation, because it helps to identify and mitigate any potential risks or issues that may arise from the patching process. Patching is a process of applying updates or fixes to software or hardware to address vulnerabilities, bugs, or performance issues. Patching is essential for maintaining the security and functionality of IT systems, but it also introduces the risk of introducing new problems or breaking existing features. Therefore, before applying patches, the organization should assess the impact of the patches on the production environment, such as compatibility, performance, availability, functionality, and security. Surveying other enterprises regarding their experiences with applying these patches, seeking information from the software vendor to enable effective application of the patches, and determining in advance an off-peak period to apply the patches are all helpful tasks to be performed prior to implementation, but they are not the most important task, as they do not directly address the impact of the patches on the production environment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2, page 211
Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?
Options:
Industry trends in Al
Expected algorithm outputs
Data feeds
Alert functionality
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most important factor for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (AI) solution is the expected algorithm outputs, as they define the desired outcomes and objectives of the AI solution, and guide the design, testing, and validation of the AI algorithm. The other options are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the research, input, or monitoring of the AI solution, respectively, rather than the output of the AI solution. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment?
Options:
It maintains evidence of compliance with risk policy.
It facilitates timely risk-based decisions.
It validates the organization's risk appetite.
It helps to mitigate internal and external risk factors.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment is the greatest benefit because it enables the organization to prioritize and respond to the most significant risks in a timely manner. The risk register is a tool that records and tracks the current status of risks, their likelihood, impact, and response strategies. By updating the risk register with the results of a risk assessment, the organization can ensure that the risk information is accurate, relevant, and actionable. Maintaining evidence of compliance with risk policy, validating the organization’s risk appetite, and helping to mitigate internal and external risk factors are all possible benefits of updating the risk register, but they are not the greatest benefit, as they do not directly support risk-based decision making. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 83
A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:
Options:
Identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite.
Help with internal control assessments concerning risk appetite.
Assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds.
Identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds.
Answer:
DExplanation:
KRIs provide measurable indicators that flag when risks exceed predefined thresholds, enabling swift and effective risk response. This supports the Monitoring and Reporting function in risk management, ensuring risks are managed proactively.
Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to continuously monitor a critical security transformation program?
Options:
To validate the quality of defined deliverables for the program
To detect increases in program costs
To ensure program risk events are mitigated in a timely manner
To provide timely reporting to the governance steering committee
Answer:
CExplanation:
Continuous monitoring ensures that risk events are promptly identified and addressed, maintaining program security and aligning with Risk Monitoring and Response protocols.
A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?
Options:
A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.
A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.
Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.
Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Independent Assessment:
Objective Evaluation: An assessment by a qualified independent party ensures that the evaluation of the new controls is unbiased and thorough. It provides a credible verification of the control's effectiveness.
Expertise and Standards: Independent assessors bring specialized expertise and follow established standards and best practices, ensuring a comprehensive review of the control implementation.
Validation and Assurance: This assessment provides assurance to stakeholders that the controls are functioning as intended and meet the required security and operational standards.
Comparison with Other Options:
Post-Implementation Review by Key Personnel: While valuable, this review may lack the objectivity and thoroughness of an independent assessment.
Senior Management Sign-Off: Sign-off from senior management is important but does not provide the detailed validation of control effectiveness that an independent assessment offers.
Daily Operation of Robots without Human Interference: This indicates operational stability but does not verify that all controls are functioning as intended.
Best Practices:
Regular Independent Assessments: Schedule regular independent assessments to continuously validate the effectiveness of controls.
Comprehensive Reporting: Ensure that the independent assessment includes comprehensive reporting on findings and recommendations for improvement.
Follow-Up Actions: Implement any recommended actions from the assessment to address identified gaps or weaknesses in the controls.
CRISC Review Manual: Recommends independent assessments as a best practice for validating control effectiveness and ensuring comprehensive risk management.
ISACA Standards: Support the use of independent assessments to provide objective and credible evaluations of control implementations.
References:
A penetration test reveals several vulnerabilities in a web-facing application. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in selecting a risk response?
Options:
Correct the vulnerabilities to mitigate potential risk exposure.
Develop a risk response action plan with key stakeholders.
Assess the level of risk associated with the vulnerabilities.
Communicate the vulnerabilities to the risk owner.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The first step in selecting a risk response after a penetration test reveals several vulnerabilities in a web-facing application is to assess the level of risk associated with the vulnerabilities, as it involves evaluating the likelihood and impact of the vulnerabilities being exploited, and comparing them with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. Correcting the vulnerabilities, developing a risk response action plan, and communicating the vulnerabilities are possible steps in selecting a risk response, but they are not the first step, as they require the prior knowledge of the risk level and the optimal risk response. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 108.
An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?
Options:
Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.
Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.
Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.
Transfer a read-only version of the data.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Using a VPN ensures the secure transmission of sensitive data over a public network by encrypting the communication channel. This mitigates risks such as interception or unauthorized access, aligning with Data Protection and Privacy Standards.
Which of the following facilitates a completely independent review of test results for evaluating control effectiveness?
Options:
Segregation of duties
Three lines of defense
Compliance review
Quality assurance review
Answer:
BExplanation:
The three lines of defense model is a framework that defines the roles and responsibilities of different functions in an organization for managing risks and ensuring effective internal control1. The three lines of defense are:
The first line of defense: the operational management and staff who are responsible for implementing and maintaining the internal control system and managing the risks within their areas of activity
The second line of defense: the oversight functions, such as risk management, compliance, and quality assurance, who provide guidance, support, and monitoring to the first line of defense and ensure that the internal control system is designed and operating effectively
The third line of defense: the internal audit function, who provides independent and objective assurance to the board and senior management on the adequacy and effectiveness of the internal control system and the performance of the first and second lines of defense2
The three lines of defense model facilitates a completely independent review of test results for evaluating control effectiveness, because it ensures that the internal audit function, as the third line of defense, has the authority, independence, and competence to conduct objective and unbiased assessments of the internal control system and report its findings and recommendations to the board and senior management3. The internal audit function can also use the test results from the first and second lines of defense as inputs for its own audit planning and testing, and verify their validity and reliability4.
References = The Three Lines of Defense in Effective Risk Management and Control - IIA, The Three Lines Model - IIA, The Role of Internal Audit in the Three Lines of Defense - IIA, Evaluating and Improving Internal Control in Organizations - IFAC
Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?
Options:
Level of residual risk
The results of a gap analysis
IT alignment to business objectives
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Answer:
DExplanation:
Risk management maturity level is the degree to which an organization has developed and implemented a systematic and proactive approach to managing the risks that it faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. Risk management maturity level reflects the organization’s risk culture and capability, and its alignment with its objectives and strategies1.
The best measurement of an organization’s risk management maturity level is the key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potential exposure and performance of the organization in relation to specific risks. KRIs can help to:
Monitor and track the changes or trends in the risk level and the risk response over time
Identify and alert the risk issues or events that require attention or action
Evaluate and report the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and practices
Support and inform the risk decision making and improvement23
KRIs can be classified into different types, such as:
Leading KRIs, which are forward-looking and predictive, and indicate the likelihood or probability of a risk event occurring in the future
Lagging KRIs, which are backward-looking and descriptive, and indicate the impact or consequence of a risk event that has already occurred
Quantitative KRIs, which are numerical or measurable, and indicate the magnitude or severity of a risk event or outcome
Qualitative KRIs, which are descriptive or subjective, and indicate the nature or characteristics of a risk event or outcome4
The other options are not the best measurements of an organization’s risk management maturity level, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. Level of residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the risk response has been implemented. Level of residual risk reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response, and the need for further action or monitoring. The results of a gap analysis are the differences between the current and the desired state of the risk management processes and practices. The results of a gap analysis reflect the completeness and coverage of the risk management activities, and the areas for improvement or enhancement. IT alignment to business objectives is the extent to which IT supports and enables the achievement of the organization’s goals and strategies. IT alignment to business objectives reflects the integration and coordination of the IT and business functions, and the optimization of the IT value and performance. References =
Risk Maturity Assessment Explained | Risk Maturity Model
Key Risk Indicators - ISACA
Key Risk Indicators: What They Are and How to Use Them
Key Risk Indicators: Types and Examples
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
An organization has implemented a preventive control to lock user accounts after three unsuccessful login attempts. This practice has been proven to be unproductive, and a change in the control threshold value has been recommended. Who should authorize changing this threshold?
Options:
Risk owner
IT security manager
IT system owner
Control owner
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, a control owner is the person who is accountable for ensuring that specific control activities are performed. The control owner is responsible for defining, implementing, monitoring, and improving the control. Therefore, the control owner should authorize changing the control threshold value, as it is part of their role to ensure that the control is effective and efficient. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not directly involved in the control activities. The risk owner is the person who is accountable for the risk and its associated mitigation actions. The IT security manager is the person who is responsible for overseeing the IT security function and ensuring that the IT security policy is enforced. The IT system owner is the person who is responsible for the operation and maintenance of the IT system and its associated data. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.2, page 108.
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process would be the number of:
Options:
resources to monitor backups
restoration monitoring reports
backup recovery requests
recurring restore failures
Answer:
DExplanation:
The number of recurring restore failures is the best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process, as it helps to evaluate the reliability and quality of the backup data and the backup system. A backup process is a process of creating and storing copies of data or systems to enable recovery in case of data loss, corruption, or disaster. A restore process is a process of retrieving and restoring the backup data or systems to the original or alternative location or state. A restore failure is an event that occurs when the restore process fails to complete successfully or correctly, due to various reasons, such as corrupted or missing backup data, incompatible or outdated backup system, or insufficient or unavailable resources. A recurring restore failure is a restore failure that happens repeatedly or frequently, indicating a persistent or systemic problem with the backup process.
The number of recurring restore failures helps to measure the effectiveness of the backup process by providing the following benefits:
It indicates the extent and magnitude of the backup process performance and quality issues, and the impact and severity of the backup process failures on the data or system availability and integrity.
It identifies and analyzes the root causes and contributing factors of the backup process failures, and the gaps or weaknesses in the backup process design, implementation, operation, or monitoring.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the backup process improvement and enhancement, and guides the development and implementation of corrective or preventive actions.
It communicates and reports the backup process status and results to the relevant stakeholders, and supports the alignment of the backup process with the organizational strategy and objectives.
The other options are not the best key performance indicators (KPIs) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process. The number of resources to monitor backups is a measure of the inputs or costs of the backup process, but it does not indicate the outputs or benefits of the backup process. The number of restoration monitoring reports is a measure of the documentation or communication of the backup process, but it does not reflect the actual or potential performance or quality of the backup process. The number of backup recovery requests is a measure of the demand or frequency of the backup process, but it does not evaluate the reliability or quality of the backup process. References = 12 Process KPIs to Monitor Process Performance in 2024 - AIMultiple, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Mastering RTO and RPO in Backup Strategies: A Key to Data Recovery Success
What information is MOST helpful to asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment?
Options:
Potential loss to tie business due to non-performance of the asset
Known emerging environmental threats
Known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer
Cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services
Answer:
AExplanation:
The potential loss to the business due to non-performance of the asset is the most helpful information for asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment, because it reflects the value and criticality of the asset to the business objectives and processes. The potential loss can be measured in terms of financial, operational, reputational, or legal impacts. The known emerging environmental threats are not relevant for asset classification, because they are external factors that affect the risk level, not the asset value. The known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer are not relevant for asset classification, because they are internal factors that affect the risk level, not the asset value. The cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services is not relevant for asset classification, because it does not reflect the business impact of losing the asset functionality or availability. References = CRISC Sample Questions 2024
Which of the following BEST enables the identification of trends in risk levels?
Options:
Correlation between risk levels and key risk indicators (KRIs) is positive.
Measurements for key risk indicators (KRIs) are repeatable
Quantitative measurements are used for key risk indicators (KRIs).
Qualitative definitions for key risk indicators (KRIs) are used.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potential exposure and performance of an organization in relation to specific risks. KRIs can help to monitor and track the changes or trends in the risk level and the risk response over time, identify and alert the risk issues or events that require attention or action, evaluate and report the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and practices, and support and inform the risk decision making and improvement1.
The best way to enable the identification of trends in risk levels is to ensure that the correlation between risk levels and KRIs is positive, because it means that the KRIs are aligned with and reflective of the risk levels, and that they can capture and indicate the variations or movements in the risk levels accurately and reliably. A positive correlation between risk levels and KRIs can be achieved by:
Selecting and defining the KRIs that are relevant and appropriate for the specific risks that the organization faces, and that are consistent and comparable across different domains and contexts
Collecting and analyzing the data and information that are reliable and sufficient for the KRIs, and that are sourced from various methods and sources, such as risk assessments, audits, monitoring, alerts, or incidents
Applying and using the tools and techniques that are suitable and feasible for the KRIs, such as risk matrices, risk registers, risk indicators, or risk models
Reviewing and updating the KRIs periodically or as needed, and ensuring that they reflect the current or accurate risk levels, which may change over time or due to external factors23
The other options are not the best ways to enable the identification of trends in risk levels, but rather some of the factors or aspects of KRIs. Measurements for KRIs are repeatable is a factor that can enhance the reliability and validity of the KRIs, as it means that the KRIs can produce the same or similar results under the same or similar conditions. However, repeatability does not necessarily imply accuracy or sensitivity, and it may not capture or reflect the changes or trends in the risk levels. Quantitative measurements are used for KRIs is an aspect that can improve the objectivity and precision of the KRIs, as it means that the KRIs are expressed in numerical or measurable values, such as percentages, probabilities, or monetary amounts. However, quantitative measurements may not be suitable or feasible for all types of risks or KRIs, and they may not capture or reflect the complexity or uncertainty of the risk levels. Qualitative definitions for KRIs are used is an aspect that can enhance the understanding and communication of the KRIs, as it means that the KRIs are expressed in descriptive or subjective terms, such as high, medium, or low, based on criteria such as likelihood, impact, or severity. However, qualitative definitions may not be consistent or comparable across different risks or KRIs, and they may not capture or reflect the magnitude or variation of the risk levels. References =
Key Risk Indicators: What They Are and How to Use Them
Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture
Key Risk Indicators: Types and Examples
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the MOST common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider?
Options:
Lack of technical expertise
Combining incompatible duties
Unauthorized data usage
Denial of service attacks
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider is unauthorized data usage, which means the misuse, disclosure, or theft of the organization’s data by the service provider or its employees, contractors, or subcontractors1. Unauthorized data usage can pose significant risks to the organization, such as:
Data security and privacy breaches, which can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data, and expose the organization to legal liability, regulatory penalties, reputational damage, or loss of trust and credibility2.
Data quality and accuracy issues, which can affect the reliability and validity of the data, and impair the decision-making, reporting, or performance of the organization3.
Data ownership and control issues, which can limit the access and rights of the organization to its own data, and create dependency or lock-in with the service provider4.
The other options are not the most common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, because:
Lack of technical expertise is a potential but not prevalent concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may affect the quality and efficiency of the services provided by the service provider, and the compatibility and integration of the services with the organization’s systems and processes5. However, most service providers have sufficient technical expertise in their domain or field, and they can offer specialized skills or resources that the organization may not have internally6.
Combining incompatible duties is a possible but not frequent concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may create conflicts of interest or segregation of duties issues for the service provider or the organization, and increase the risk of errors, fraud, or abuse7. However, most service providers have adequate governance and control mechanisms to prevent or mitigate such issues, and they can adhere to the organization’s policies and standards regarding the separation of duties8.
Denial of service attacks is a rare but not common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may disrupt the availability or functionality of the services provided by the service provider, and affect the operations or continuity of the organization. However, most service providers have robust security measures and contingency plans to protect and recover from such attacks, and they can ensure the resilience and reliability of the services.
References =
Unauthorized Data Usage - CIO Wiki
What is outsourcing? Definitions, benefits, challenges, processes, advice | CIO
The Pros and Cons of Outsourcing in 2023 - GrowthForce
13 Common Problems of Outsourcing and How to Avoid Them - ENOU Labs
The Top 10 Problems with Outsourcing Implementation - SSON
10 problems with outsourcing (+ Solutions for each) - Time Doctor Blog
Segregation of Duties - CIO Wiki
Outsourcing Governance - CIO Wiki
[Denial-of-Service Attack - CIO Wiki]
[Business Continuity Planning - CIO Wiki]
Upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:
Options:
inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions
keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal
adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance
initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency
Answer:
AExplanation:
The best course of action for the risk practitioner upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold is to inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions. This would help the risk practitioner to understand the root causes of the problem, the progress of the remediation efforts, and the expected timeline for resolution. It would also help the risk practitioner to provide guidance and support to the responsible parties, and to escalate the issue if necessary. Inquiring about the status of any planned corrective actions would demonstrate the risk practitioner’s proactive and collaborative approach to risk management, and ensure that the risk exposure is reduced to an acceptable level as soon as possible. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.3, page 2371
Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?
Options:
Occurrences of specific events
A performance measurement
The risk tolerance level
Risk scenarios
Answer:
AExplanation:
Occurrences of specific events are the most likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds, as they represent the actual or potential realization of the risk. A KRI is a metric that measures the level of risk exposure and the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and it has predefined thresholds that indicate the acceptable or unacceptable risk status. When a specific event occurs that affects the risk, such as a security breach, a system failure, or a compliance violation, the KRI value may change and exceed the thresholds, triggering an alert or an action. A performance measurement, the risk tolerance level, and risk scenarios are not the most likely to cause a KRI to exceed thresholds, as they do not reflect the actual or potential occurrence of the risk, but rather the expected or desired outcome, limit, or simulation of the risk. References = [CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version)], page 121; CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 217.
In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?
Options:
Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential
Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data
Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed when an organization allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes is to require employees to sign nondisclosure agreements. Nondisclosure agreements are legal contracts that prohibit the employees from disclosing or sharing the company sensitive information with unauthorized parties, such as competitors, media, or regulators. Nondisclosure agreements also specify the scope, duration, and conditions of the nondisclosure obligation, and the penalties or remedies for breaching the agreement. Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements is the best way to protect company sensitive information, as it helps to prevent or deter the employees from exposing or leaking the company sensitive information on social media, and to hold the employees accountable and liable for their actions. Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements also helps to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements for data protection and privacy. Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential, implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, and taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data are also useful ways, but they are not as effective as requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements, as they are either dependent on the employees’ awareness or behavior, or reactive or corrective measures, rather than proactive or preventive measures. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
Determining if organizational risk is tolerable requires:
Options:
mapping residual risk with cost of controls
comparing against regulatory requirements
comparing industry risk appetite with the organizations.
understanding the organization's risk appetite.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Determining if organizational risk is tolerable requires understanding the organization’s risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives1. Understanding the organization’s risk appetite can help to:
Define and communicate the risk tolerance, which is the acceptable or unacceptable level of risk for each risk category or scenario2.
Guide and align the risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment processes, and ensure that the risks are consistent and proportional to the risk appetite3.
Measure and monitor the risk performance and outcome, and ensure that the residual risk (the risk that remains after the risk responses) is within the risk appetite, or take corrective actions if needed4.
The other options are not the best ways to determine if organizational risk is tolerable, because:
Mapping residual risk with cost of controls is a useful but not sufficient way to determine if organizational risk is tolerable, as it provides a quantitative analysis of the trade-off between the risk level and the risk response cost5. However, mapping residual risk with cost of controls does not consider the qualitative aspects of the risk, such as the impact on the organization’s strategy, culture, or reputation.
Comparing against regulatory requirements is a necessary but not sufficient way to determine if organizational risk is tolerable, as it ensures that the organization complies with the applicable laws, rules, or standards that govern its activities and operations6. However, comparing against regulatory requirements does not guarantee that the organization meets its own objectives and expectations, which may be higher or lower than the regulatory requirements.
Comparing industry risk appetite with the organization’s risk appetite is a helpful but not sufficient way to determine if organizational risk is tolerable, as it provides a reference or a standard for benchmarking the organization’s risk level and performance with its peers or competitors7. However, comparing industry risk appetite with the organization’s risk appetite does not ensure that the organization addresses its specific or unique risks, which may differ from the industry risks.
References =
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
Risk Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Management Process - CIO Wiki
Risk Monitoring - CIO Wiki
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Regulatory Compliance - CIO Wiki
Benchmarking - CIO Wiki
Risk and Information Systems Control documents and learning resources by ISACA
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?
Options:
Improved senior management communication
Optimized risk treatment decisions
Enhanced awareness of risk management
Improved collaboration among risk professionals
Answer:
BExplanation:
The greatest benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment is optimized risk treatment decisions. Risk treatment decisions are the choices made by the organization on how to respond to the identified risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting them. Optimized risk treatment decisions are those that align with the organizational risk appetite and objectives, and provide the best balance between the costs and benefits of the risk response actions.
Updating the risk register promptly after the completion of a risk assessment helps to optimize risk treatment decisions by providing the most current and accurate information on the risk exposure and control environment. By updating the risk register, the organization can ensure that the risk scenarios, risk levels, risk owners, risk responses, and risk indicators are consistent with the risk assessment results and reflect the changes in the internal and external environment. Updating the risk register also helps to prioritize the risks and allocate the resources more effectively and efficiently for risk treatment. Updating the risk register also facilitates the communication, collaboration, and accountability among the stakeholders involved in the risk management and control processes.
The other options are not the greatest benefits to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment. Improved senior management communication is a benefit of updating the risk register, as it helps to inform and involve the senior management in the risk management and control processes, but it is not the greatest benefit. Enhanced awareness of risk management is a benefit of updating the risk register, as it helps to educate and engage the staff and other stakeholders in the risk management and control processes, but it is not the greatest benefit. Improved collaboration among risk professionals is a benefit of updating the risk register, as it helps to coordinate and integrate the efforts and expertise of the risk professionals, but it is not the greatest benefit. References = Risk Register: Examples, Benefits, and Best Practices, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Discover 10 major benefits for keeping a risk register
In which of the following system development life cycle (SDLC) phases should controls be incorporated into system specifications?
Options:
Implementation
Development
Design
Feasibility
Answer:
CExplanation:
Controls should be incorporated into system specifications in the design phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC), because this is the phase where the system requirements are translated into detailed specifications and architectures that define how the system will be built and operated. Incorporating controls in the design phase ensures that the system is secure, reliable, and compliant from the start, and reduces the cost and complexity of implementing controls later in the SDLC. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not the phases where controls are incorporated into system specifications. The implementation phase is the phase where the system is installed, configured, and tested. The development phase is the phase where the system is coded, integrated, and tested. The feasibility phase is the phase where the system concept and scope are defined and evaluated. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
An application runs a scheduled job that compiles financial data from multiple business systems and updates the financial reporting system. If this job runs too long, it can delay financial reporting. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?
Options:
Implement database activity and capacity monitoring.
Ensure the business is aware of the risk.
Ensure the enterprise has a process to detect such situations.
Consider providing additional system resources to this job.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The risk practitioner’s best recommendation is to consider providing additional system resources to this job, as this would help to reduce the likelihood and impact of the risk of delaying financial reporting. Providing additional system resources, such as memory, CPU, disk space, or bandwidth, can improve the performance and efficiency of the application and the scheduled job. This can also help to avoid potential errors, failures, or interruptions that could affect the quality and timeliness of the financial data and reporting.
The other options are not the best recommendations for this situation. Implementing database activity and capacity monitoring is a good practice to identify and analyze the root causes of performance issues, but it does not directly address the risk of delaying financial reporting. Ensuring the business is aware of the risk is an important step to communicate and escalate the risk, but it does not provide a solution or mitigation strategy. Ensuring the enterprise has a process to detect such situations is a preventive measure to avoid or minimize the occurrence of the risk, but it does not eliminate or reduce the risk. References = Practical Recommendations for Better Enterprise Risk Management - ISACA, HR Risk Management: A Practitioner’s Guide - AIHR, Isaca CRISC today updated questions - Verified by Isaca Experts
When evaluating enterprise IT risk management it is MOST important to:
Options:
create new control processes to reduce identified IT risk scenarios
confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management
review alignment with the organization's investment plan
Answer:
BExplanation:
Enterprise IT risk management is the process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the IT-related risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or assets1. Enterprise IT risk management should be aligned with the organization’s overall risk management framework and strategy, and support the organization’s value creation and protection2.
When evaluating enterprise IT risk management, it is most important to confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to take in order to meet its strategic objectives3. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that an organization is willing to accept around its risk appetite4. By confirming the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, the evaluation can:
Ensure that the enterprise IT risk management is consistent and compatible with the organization’s risk culture and vision
Provide clear and measurable criteria and boundaries for assessing and prioritizing the IT risks and their impacts
Guide the selection and implementation of the appropriate risk responses and controls that balance the costs and benefits of risk mitigation
Enable the monitoring and reporting of the IT risk performance and outcomes, and the adjustment of the IT risk strategy and objectives as needed5
References = Enterprise IT Risk Management - ISACA, Enterprise Risk Management - Wikipedia, Risk Appetite - COSO, Risk Tolerance - COSO, Risk Appetite and Tolerance - IRM
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?
Options:
Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan
Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls
Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level
Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk
Answer:
CExplanation:
The primary focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk is to ensure that the control design reduces the risk to an acceptable level. This means that the risk owner should verify that the control objectives, specifications, and implementation are aligned with the risk mitigation plan, and that the control is effective in reducing the risk exposure to within the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. The risk owner should also ensure that the control design is consistent with the enterprise’s policies, standards, and procedures, and that it complies with any relevant laws, regulations, or contractual obligations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.4, page 185.
A risk manager has determined there is excessive risk with a particular technology. Who is the BEST person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology?
Options:
IT system owner
Chief financial officer
Chief risk officer
Business process owner
Answer:
AExplanation:
The best person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology is the IT system owner. The IT system owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility for the acquisition, development, maintenance, and operation of the IT system. The IT system owner is also responsible for ensuring that the IT system meets the business requirements, security standards, and compliance obligations of the enterprise. The IT system owner should own the unmitigated risk of the technology, as they are in the best position to understand the nature and impact of the risk, and to implement the appropriate risk responses to reduce the risk exposure to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1, page 251234
The BEST way to determine the likelihood of a system availability risk scenario is by assessing the:
Options:
availability of fault tolerant software.
strategic plan for business growth.
vulnerability scan results of critical systems.
redundancy of technical infrastructure.
Answer:
CExplanation:
A system availability risk scenario is a situation where a system or a service is not accessible or functional due to a failure or an attack. The likelihood of such a scenario depends on the vulnerabilities or weaknesses that exist in the system or the service, and the threats or attackers that could exploit them. Therefore, by scanning the critical systems or services for vulnerabilities and analyzing the results, one can estimate the probability or frequency of a system availability risk scenario1.
A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential security risks in a system or a service. A vulnerability scan report provides a list of vulnerabilities that have been detected, categorized by their severity levels, and accompanied by remediation recommendations. By reviewing the report, one can understand the current security posture of the system or the service, and the actions that need to be taken to address the vulnerabilities2.
The other options are not the best ways to determine the likelihood of a system availability risk scenario, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. Availability of fault tolerant software is a factor that can reduce the likelihood of a system availability risk scenario, as it means that the software can continue to operate without interruption even if some of its components fail. Fault tolerant software can achieve this by using backup or redundant components, or by implementing error detection and correction mechanisms3. Strategic plan for business growth is an outcome of a system availability risk scenario, as it can affect the organization’s objectives and strategies. A system availability risk scenario can have negative impacts on the organization’s performance, reputation, customer satisfaction, and competitive advantage, and thus hamper its growth potential4. Redundancy of technical infrastructure is a factor that can reduce the likelihood of a system availability risk scenario, as it means that the infrastructure has duplicate or alternative devices or paths that can take over in case of a failure or an attack. Redundancy of technical infrastructure can ensure network availability and prevent data loss5. References =
Describe the risk scenarios | NZ Digital government
How to Read a Vulnerability Scan Report | Evolve Security
Learn about Fault Tolerant Servers | What is Fault Tolerance?-Stratus
The Importance of Redundancies in Your Infrastructure - INAP
What is Redundancy? - Your IT Department
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following BEST protects an organization against breaches when using a software as a service (SaaS) application?
Options:
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Security information and event management (SIEM) solutions
Data privacy impact assessment (DPIA)
Data loss prevention (DLP) tools
Answer:
DExplanation:
Software as a service (SaaS) is a cloud computing model that provides software applications over the internet, without requiring the customer to install or maintain them on their own devices1. SaaS applications can offer many benefits, such as scalability, accessibility, and cost-efficiency, but they also pose security risks, such as data breaches, unauthorized access, and compliance violations2.
One of the best ways to protect an organization against breaches when using a SaaS application is to use data loss prevention (DLP) tools. DLP tools are software solutions that monitor, detect, and prevent the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data from an organization’s network or devices3. DLP tools can help an organization to:
Identify and classify sensitive data, such as personal information, intellectual property, or financial records, and apply appropriate policies and controls to protect them
Encrypt data in transit and at rest, and use secure protocols and encryption keys to ensure data confidentiality and integrity
Block or alert on suspicious or malicious data transfers, such as unauthorized uploads, downloads, or sharing of data to external sources or devices
Audit and report on data activities and incidents, and provide evidence for compliance with data protection regulations and standards, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI-DSS4
References = What is SaaS?, Top 7 SaaS Security Risks (and How to Fix Them), What is Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?, Data Loss Prevention (DLP) for SaaS Applications
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization's risk profile?
Options:
Control identification and mitigation
Adoption of a compliance-based approach
Prevention and detection techniques
Scenario analysis and stress testing
Answer:
DExplanation:
Scenario analysis and stress testing are the best methods to enable an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization’s risk profile, as they help to simulate and evaluate the potential outcomes and effects of various risk events and scenarios on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. Scenario analysis and stress testing can help to identify and assess the impact of external emerging risk factors, such as changes in the market, technology, regulation, or environment, and to measure the resilience and preparedness of the enterprise to cope with these factors. Control identification and mitigation, adoption of a compliance-based approach, and prevention and detection techniques are not the best methods to enable an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization’s risk profile, as they do not help to simulate and evaluate the potential outcomes and effects of various risk events and scenarios, but rather to manage and monitor the existing or known risks. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 223.
An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?
Options:
Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.
Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.
Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.
The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.
Answer:
AExplanation:
In an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority, the risk practitioner’s greatest concern should be whether sufficient resources are assigned to IT development projects. Resources include human, financial, technical, and physical assets that are needed to plan, design, develop, test, and deliver high-quality software products in a timely manner. If the IT development projects are under-resourced, they may face challenges such as delays, errors, defects, rework, scope creep, or failure to meet customer expectations or requirements. These challenges can increase the risk of losing competitive advantage, market share, customer satisfaction, or reputation. The other options are less critical, as they are not directly related to the core business priority of reducing time-to-market for new software products. Customer support help desk staff training, email infrastructure rollback plans, and corporate email system phishing detection are important aspects of information security and customer service, but they are not the primary drivers of software product development and delivery. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: Risk Response Options, p. 115-116.
A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Options:
Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.
Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.
Outsource the process for updating the risk register.
Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The best course of action for a newly hired risk practitioner who finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year is to identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews. This would help the risk practitioner to update the risk register with the current and relevant information on the risks facing the enterprise, such as their sources, drivers, indicators, likelihood, impact, and responses. It would also help the risk practitioner to evaluate the effectiveness of the existing controls, and to identify any new or emerging risks that need to be addressed. Identifying changes in risk factors and initiating risk reviews would enable the risk practitioner to maintain the accuracy and completeness of the risk register, and to provide valuable input for the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.1.1, page 2271
Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?
Options:
Privileged user activity monitoring controls
Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios
Recent audit findings of control weaknesses
A list of critical security processes
Answer:
BExplanation:
Key control indicators (KCIs) are metrics that provide information on the extent to which a given control is meeting its intended objectives in terms of loss prevention, reduction, etc. In order to provide such information, the control effectiveness indicator has to have an explicit relationship to both the specific control and to the specific risk against which the control has been implemented1. Therefore, the best source for identifying KCIs is to use controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios, which can help define the control objectives, the expected outcomes, and the relevant indicators for each risk scenario. This approach can also help align the KCIs with the organizational goals and strategy, and enable the monitoring and reporting of the control effectiveness23.
The other options are not the best sources for identifying KCIs, because:
Privileged user activity monitoring controls are specific types of controls that aim to prevent unauthorized access or misuse of sensitive data or systems by privileged users. They are not a source for identifying KCIs, but rather a possible subject of KCIs. For example, a KCI for this type of control could be the number of privileged user accounts that have not been reviewed or revoked within a specified period4.
Recent audit findings of control weaknesses are useful for identifying the gaps or deficiencies in the existing control environment, and for recommending corrective actions or improvements. However, they are not a source for identifying KCIs, but rather an input for evaluating or revising the existing KCIs. For example, if an audit finding reveals that a control is not operating as intended, or that a KCI is not providing reliable or timely information, then the control or the KCI may need to be modified or replaced5.
A list of critical security processes is a high-level overview of the key activities or functions that are essential for maintaining the security of the organization’s assets and information. It is not a source for identifying KCIs, but rather a starting point for defining the control objectives and requirements. For example, a critical security process could be incident response, which requires a set of controls to ensure the timely and effective detection, containment, analysis, and recovery of security incidents. The KCIs for this process could be the number of incidents detected, the average time to resolve incidents, or the percentage of incidents that resulted in data breaches6.
References =
Key Control Indicator (KCI) - CIO Wiki
How to Develop Key Control Indicators to Improve Security Risk Monitoring - Gartner
Indicators - Program Evaluation - CDC
Privileged User Monitoring: What Is It and Why Is It Important? - LogRhythm
Internal Audit Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) - AuditBoard
Hierarchy of Controls - NIOSH - CDC
Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when ensuring that mitigated risk remains within acceptable limits?
Options:
Building an organizational risk profile after updating the risk register
Ensuring risk owners participate in a periodic control testing process
Designing a process for risk owners to periodically review identified risk
Implementing a process for ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most helpful activity for a risk practitioner when ensuring that mitigated risk remains within acceptable limits is to implement a process for ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness. This would enable the risk practitioner to track the performance of the controls, identify any deviations or gaps, and take corrective actions as needed. Ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness would also provide assurance that the risk responses are working as intended, and that the residual risk is aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 188.
Winch of the following key control indicators (KCIs) BEST indicates whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project He cycle?
Options:
Number of projects going live without a security review
Number of employees completing project-specific security training
Number of security projects started in core departments
Number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers
Answer:
AExplanation:
The number of projects going live without a security review is the best key control indicator (KCI) to indicate whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project life cycle, because it measures the compliance and effectiveness of the security review process. A security review is a process that ensures that the security requirements are defined, implemented, tested, and verified for each project, and that any security risks or issues are identified and resolved before the project is deployed. The number of projects going live without a security review should be minimized or eliminated, as it indicates a failure or weakness of the security review process. The other options are not the best KCIs, because they do not directly measure the identification and management of security requirements. The number of employees completing project-specific security training, the number of security projects started in core departments, and the number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers are examples of input or output indicators that measure the activities or results of the project, but not the security requirements. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?
Options:
Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed
Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding
Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities
Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed
Answer:
DExplanation:
A key control indicator (KCI) is a metric that measures the effectiveness of a control in mitigating a risk. A good KCI for a vulnerability management program should reflect how well the program is reducing the exposure to high-risk vulnerabilities. The percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed is a KCI that shows the proportion of identified high-risk vulnerabilities that have been remediated or mitigated within a defined time frame. This KCI can help monitor the progress and performance of the vulnerability management program and identify areas for improvement.
The other options are not the best KCI for a vulnerability management program because they do not measure the effectiveness of the control. The percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed is a measure of the completeness of the vulnerability scanning process, not the control. The number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding is a measure of the current risk exposure, not the control. The defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities are a measure of the risk appetite, not the control. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, Section 3.4: Risk Indicators, p. 133-134.
While reviewing an organization's monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?
Options:
Temporarily suspend emergency changes.
Document the control deficiency in the risk register.
Conduct a root cause analysis.
Continue monitoring change management metrics.
Answer:
CExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, a root cause analysis is a technique that identifies the underlying causes of an event or a problem. It helps to determine the most effective actions to prevent or mitigate the recurrence of the event or problem. A root cause analysis is the best approach for the risk practitioner to take in this scenario, because it will help to understand why the number of emergency changes has increased substantially and what can be done to address the issue. The other options are not the best approaches, because they do not address the underlying causes of the problem. Temporarily suspending emergency changes may disrupt the business operations and create more risks. Documenting the control deficiency in the risk register is a passive action that does not resolve the problem. Continuing monitoring change management metrics is an ongoing activity that does not provide any insight into the problem. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.4, page 130.
An employee lost a personal mobile device that may contain sensitive corporate information. What should be the risk practitioner's recommendation?
Options:
Conduct a risk analysis.
Initiate a remote data wipe.
Invoke the incident response plan
Disable the user account.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best recommendation for a risk practitioner when an employee lost a personal mobile device that may contain sensitive corporate information is to initiate a remote data wipe. A remote data wipe is a process of erasing the data stored on a device remotely, using a command sent over a network or a wireless connection. A remote data wipe can help to prevent the unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or theft of the sensitive corporate information, and to minimize the potential impact of the loss on the enterprise’s reputation, operations, and compliance. A remote data wipe can also help to comply with the data breach notification laws and regulations, and to reduce the legal liability and penalties. Conducting a risk analysis, invoking the incident response plan, and disabling the user account are not as immediate and effective as initiating a remote data wipe, as they do not address the primary risk of data exposure and loss. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:
Options:
a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.
the likelihood of a given threat.
a function of the likelihood and impact.
the magnitude of an impact.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as a function of the likelihood and impact, as it helps to measure and quantify the residual risk level and exposure. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls or risk treatments. Residual risk can be calculated by multiplying the likelihood and impact of a risk event, where likelihood is the probability or frequency of the risk event occurring, and impact is the consequence or severity of the risk event on the asset or objective. Residual risk can be expressed as:
ResidualRisk=Likelihood×Impact
Expressing the risk associated with an asset after controls are applied as a function of the likelihood and impact helps to provide the following benefits:
It enables a data-driven and evidence-based approach to risk assessment and reporting, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
It facilitates a consistent and standardized way of measuring and communicating risk levels and exposure across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
It supports the alignment of risk management and control activities with the organizational strategy and objectives, and helps to evaluate the achievement of the desired outcomes.
It helps to identify and prioritize the areas for improvement and enhancement of the risk management and control processes, and guide the development and implementation of corrective or preventive actions.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the risk management and control processes, and helps to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best ways to express the risk associated with an asset after controls are applied. A function of the cost and effectiveness of controls is a measure of the inputs or outputs of the risk management and control processes, but it does not indicate the risk level or exposure. The likelihood of a given threat is a component of the risk calculation, but it does not reflect the impact or consequence of the threat. The magnitude of an impact is a component of the risk calculation, but it does not reflect the likelihood or probability of the risk event. References = Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management - Video & Lesson …
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when developing a risk profile for management approval?
Options:
Residual risk and risk appetite
Strength of detective and preventative controls
Effectiveness and efficiency of controls
Inherent risk and risk tolerance
Answer:
AExplanation:
A risk profile is a summary of the key risks that an organization faces, along with the corresponding risk responses, risk owners, and risk indicators1. A risk profile is a useful tool for communicating and reporting the risk status and performance to the management and other stakeholders2. When developing a risk profile for management approval, the most useful information to include is the residual risk and the risk appetite, because:
Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses3. It indicates the degree of exposure or uncertainty that the organization still faces, and the potential impact or consequences of the risk events. Residual risk helps the management to evaluate the effectiveness and adequacy of the risk responses, and to decide whether to accept, reduce, transfer, or avoid the risk4.
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives5. It reflects the organization’s risk culture, strategy, and priorities, and provides a basis for setting risk thresholds and targets. Risk appetite helps the management to align the risk profile with the organizational goals and values, and to ensure that the risk responses are consistent and proportional to the risk level6.
The other options are not the most useful information when developing a risk profile for management approval, because:
Strength of detective and preventative controls is a measure of how well the controls can identify or prevent the occurrence or impact of the risk events7. It is a part of the risk response information, but it does not provide a comprehensive or holistic view of the risk profile. It does not show the residual risk or the risk appetite, which are more relevant and important for the management approval.
Effectiveness and efficiency of controls is a measure of how well the controls achieve their intended objectives and how well they use the available resources8. It is a part of the risk performance information, but it does not provide a complete or balanced view of the risk profile. It does not show the residual risk or the risk appetite, which are more significant and meaningful for the management approval.
Inherent risk and risk tolerance are related but different concepts from residual risk and risk appetite. Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists before the implementation of risk responses3. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation or deviation from the risk appetite or the risk objectives5. They are useful for the risk assessment and analysis, but they do not provide the current or desired state of the risk profile. They do not show the residual risk or the risk appetite, which are more critical and valuable for the management approval.
References =
Risk Profile - CIO Wiki
Risk Profile: Definition, Example, and How to Create One
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
Preventive and Detective Controls - CIO Wiki
Control Effectiveness and Efficiency - CIO Wiki
To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should:
Options:
continuously monitor the environment.
develop key performance indicators (KPIs).
maintain a risk matrix.
maintain a risk register.
Answer:
AExplanation:
To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should continuously monitor the environment, as it can help to detect and respond to any changes or emerging risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and strategy. Continuous monitoring can also provide timely and relevant feedback and information to the decision-makers and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the risk strategy and response actions accordingly. Continuous monitoring can also help to ensure that the risk management process is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and supports the achievement of the organization’s goals and value creation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 243. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 243. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 243.
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to senior management when the results of a risk and control assessment indicate a risk scenario can only be partially mitigated?
Options:
Implement controls to bring the risk to a level within appetite and accept the residual risk.
Implement a key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the existing control performance.
Accept the residual risk in its entirety and obtain executive management approval.
Separate the risk into multiple components and avoid the risk components that cannot be mitigated.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Implementing controls to bring the risk to a level within appetite and accept the residual risk is the best recommendation to senior management when the results of a risk and control assessment indicate a risk scenario can only be partially mitigated, as it helps to balance the costs and benefits of the risk management and control processes, and to align them with the organizational strategy and objectives. A risk and control assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks and controls associated with a specific activity, process, or objective. A risk scenario is a description of a possible event or situation that could cause harm or loss to the organization or its stakeholders. A risk scenario can only be partially mitigated when the existing or proposed controls are not sufficient or effective to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. A risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. A residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls or risk treatments.
Implementing controls to bring the risk to a level within appetite and accept the residual risk helps to provide the following benefits:
It enables a data-driven and evidence-based approach to risk management and reporting, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
It facilitates a consistent and standardized way of measuring and communicating risk levels and exposure across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
It supports the development and implementation of effective and efficient risk response and mitigation strategies and actions that are aligned with the business risk appetite and objectives.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the risk management and control processes, and helps to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best recommendations to senior management when the results of a risk and control assessment indicate a risk scenario can only be partially mitigated. Implementing a key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the existing control performance is a useful method to measure and monitor the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, but it does not address the residual risk or the risk appetite. Accepting the residual risk in its entirety and obtaining executive management approval is a possible option to deal with the risk scenario, but it may expose the organization to excessive or unacceptable risk, and it may not comply with the legal or regulatory obligations or requirements. Separating the risk into multiple components and avoiding the risk components that cannot be mitigated is a possible option to deal with the risk scenario, but it may not be feasible or practical, and it may create new or additional risks or challenges. References = Risk and Control Self-Assessment (RCSA) - Management Study Guide, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Risk Mitigation: What It Is and How to Implement It (Free Templates …
Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?
Options:
The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident
The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.
The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.
The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The greatest concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization is that the risk profile was last reviewed two years ago. A risk profile is a snapshot of the current risk exposure and appetite of the organization, based on the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the risks that could affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives. A risk profile should be reviewed and updated regularly, at least annually, or whenever there are significant changes in the internal or external environment, such as new projects, strategies, regulations, or incidents. A risk profile that was last reviewed two years ago may not reflect the current risk situation and status of the organization, and may lead to inaccurate or incomplete risk assessment and response. The risk profile not being updated after a recent incident, the risk profile being developed without using industry standards, and the risk profile not containing historical loss data are also concerns, but they are not as critical as the risk profile being outdated. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 48.
An organization discovers significant vulnerabilities in a recently purchased commercial off-the-shelf software product which will not be corrected until the next release. Which of the following is the risk manager's BEST course of action?
Options:
Review the risk of implementing versus postponing with stakeholders.
Run vulnerability testing tools to independently verify the vulnerabilities.
Review software license to determine the vendor's responsibility regarding vulnerabilities.
Require the vendor to correct significant vulnerabilities prior to installation.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The risk manager’s best course of action when discovering significant vulnerabilities in a commercial off-the-shelf software product is to review the risk of implementing versus postponing with stakeholders. This means that the risk manager should assess the potential impact and likelihood of the vulnerabilities being exploited, as well as the benefits and costs of using the software product. The risk manager should also consult with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business owners, the IT department, the security team, and the vendor, to understand their perspectives, expectations, and requirements. Based on this analysis, the risk manager should decide whether to proceed with the implementation, delay it until the next release, or look for alternative solutions. The risk manager should also document and communicate the decision and the rationale behind it, and monitor the situation for any changes or new developments.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Running vulnerability testing tools to independently verify the vulnerabilities is a useful step to confirm the existence and severity of the vulnerabilities, but it is not sufficient to address the risk. The risk manager still needs to evaluate the trade-offs between implementing and postponing the software product, and involve the stakeholders in the decision-making process.
Reviewing the software license to determine the vendor’s responsibility regarding vulnerabilities is an important step to understand the contractual obligations and liabilities of the vendor, but it is not enough to mitigate the risk. The risk manager still needs to consider the impact and likelihood of the vulnerabilities, and the benefits and costs of the software product, and consult with the stakeholders to decide the best course of action.
Requiring the vendor to correct significant vulnerabilities prior to installation is an unrealistic and impractical option, as the vendor has already stated that the vulnerabilities will not be corrected until the next release. The risk manager cannot force the vendor to change their schedule or priorities, and may risk damaging the relationship with the vendor. The risk manager should instead work with the vendor to understand the nature and scope of the vulnerabilities, and the expected timeline and features of the next release, and use this information to inform the risk assessment and decision-making process.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems?
Options:
A record of incidents is maintained.
Forensic investigations are facilitated.
Security violations can be identified.
Developing threats are detected earlier.
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the greatest benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems is to detect developing threats earlier, because it helps to identify and correlate the patterns, trends, and anomalies that may indicate a potential attack or compromise. Log analysis is the process of examining and interpreting the log data generated by various systems, such as firewalls, servers, routers, and applications. Log analysis can provide valuable insights into the activities and events that occur on the systems, and can enable the timely detection and response to the emerging threats. The other options are not the greatest benefits of analyzing logs, as they are less proactive or less strategic than detecting developing threats earlier. Maintaining a record of incidents is a benefit of logging, but not of analyzing logs, as it involves storing and preserving the log data for future reference. Facilitating forensic investigations is a benefit of analyzing logs, but it is a reactive and tactical activity that occurs after an incident has happened. Identifying security violations is a benefit of analyzing logs, but it is a specific and operational activity that focuses on the compliance and enforcement of the security policies and standards. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 263.
Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization's user access control processes? An increase in the:
Options:
ratio of disabled to active user accounts.
percentage of users with multiple user accounts.
average number of access entitlements per user account.
average time between user transfers and access updates.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The average time between user transfers and access updates is a trend that would cause the greatest concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization’s user access control processes, as it indicates the delay or inefficiency in updating the user access rights and privileges according to the user’s current role and responsibilities. This can result in unauthorized or excessive access to the organization’s information assets, and increase the risk of data leakage, fraud, or misuse. The user access control processes should ensure that the user access rights and privileges are reviewed and modified regularly, and especially when the user’s role or status changes, such as transfer, promotion, demotion, or termination. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 241. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 241. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 241.
An organization must make a choice among multiple options to respond to a risk. The stakeholders cannot agree and decide to postpone the decision. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted?
Options:
Transfer
Mitigation
Avoidance
Acceptance
Answer:
CExplanation:
Risk avoidance is a type of risk response that involves eliminating the risk entirely by not engaging in the activity that causes the risk or changing the conditions that create the risk1. Risk avoidance is usually applied when the potential impact or likelihood of the risk is high or unacceptable, and when the benefits of avoiding the risk outweigh the costs or losses of doing so2.
In this case, the organization has adopted risk avoidance as its risk response, because it has decided to postpone the decision that could trigger the risk. By delaying the decision, the organization is avoiding the risk of making a wrong or unfavorable choice among the multiple options. However, this may not be the best or most effective risk response, as it could also result in missed opportunities, wasted resources, or increased uncertainty3. The organization should consider the trade-offs and consequences of avoiding the risk, and explore other possible risk responses that could reduce or transfer the risk.
The other options are not the risk responses that the organization has adopted. Risk transfer means shifting the responsibility or burden of the risk to another party, such as a vendor or an insurer2. The organization has not transferred the risk to anyone else, but rather avoided it by postponing the decision. Risk mitigation means implementing controls or safeguards to minimize the negative effects of the risk2. The organization has not mitigated the risk by reducing its impact or likelihood, but rather avoided it by delaying the decision. Risk acceptance means acknowledging the risk and its consequences without taking any action to address it2. The organization has not accepted the risk by tolerating its potential outcomes, but rather avoided it by postponing the decision. References =
10 Risk Mitigation techniques you need to know - Stakeholdermap.com
Risk Response Strategies: Types & Examples (+ Free Template)
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
In an organization where each division manages risk independently, which of the following would BEST enable management of risk at the enterprise level?
Options:
A standardized risk taxonomy
A list of control deficiencies
An enterprise risk ownership policy
An updated risk tolerance metric
Answer:
AExplanation:
A standardized risk taxonomy is a common language and structure for identifying, analyzing, and reporting risks across the enterprise. It enables consistent and comparable risk assessment and aggregation, as well as clear communication and coordination among different divisions. A list of control deficiencies, an enterprise risk ownership policy, and an updated risk tolerance metric are not sufficient to enable management of risk at the enterprise level, as they do not address the issue of risk alignment and integration among divisions. References = [CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version)], page 42; CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 197.
An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the country where it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?
Options:
Analyze data protection methods.
Understand data flows.
Include a right-to-audit clause.
Implement strong access controls.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The first step when addressing the situation of moving the payroll system to a SaaS application and complying with the new data privacy regulation is to understand the data flows. This means identifying where the data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred, and who has access to it. Understanding the data flows can help to determine the scope and impact of the regulation, as well as the potential risks and gaps in the current state. It can also help to identify the roles and responsibilities of the organization and the SaaS provider regarding data protection and compliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1.2, p. 237-238
Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?
Options:
Gap analysis
Risk assessment
Heat map
Risk register
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best way to help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite is to use a risk register, which is a document that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses1. A risk register can help to:
Define the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives2. The risk register can include the risk appetite statement, which is a clear and concise expression of the enterprise’s risk preferences and boundaries3.
Communicate the risk appetite, which is the process of sharing and informing the risk appetite to the relevant stakeholders, such as the board, the management, the employees, or the customers4. The risk register can be used as a communication tool, which can provide a consistent and transparent view of the enterprise’s risk profile and performance5.
The other options are not the best ways to help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite, because:
Gap analysis is a technique that compares the current state and the desired state of a process, system, or organization, and identifies the gaps or differences between them6. Gap analysis can help to assess the alignment or misalignment of the enterprise’s risk appetite with its risk level, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
Risk assessment is a process that estimates the probability and impact of the risks, and prioritizes the risks based on their significance and urgency. Risk assessment can help to identify and analyze the risks that may affect the enterprise’s objectives, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
Heat map is a graphical representation that uses colors to indicate the level or intensity of a variable, such as risk. Heat map can help to visualize and compare the risks based on their probability and impact, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
References =
Risk Register - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite Statement - CIO Wiki
Risk Communication - CIO Wiki
Risk Reporting - CIO Wiki
Gap Analysis - CIO Wiki
[Risk Assessment - CIO Wiki]
[Heat Map - CIO Wiki]
[Risk and Information Systems Control documents and learning resources by ISACA]
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?
Options:
Ongoing availability of data
Ability to aggregate data
Ability to predict trends
Availability of automated reporting systems
Answer:
AExplanation:
Ongoing availability of data is the most important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time, as it ensures that the KRIs can provide timely and reliable information on the current and future risk status and performance. KRIs are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and they should be aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and objectives. Ongoing availability of data means that the data sources and collection methods for the KRIs are consistent, accessible, and sustainable, and that the data quality and integrity are maintained and verified. Ability to aggregate data, ability to predict trends, and availability of automated reporting systems are not the most important considerations, as they do not affect the validity and usefulness of the KRIs, but rather the presentation and analysis of the KRI data. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question213; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 213.
Who should be accountable for monitoring the control environment to ensure controls are effective?
Options:
Risk owner
Security monitoring operations
Impacted data owner
System owner
Answer:
AExplanation:
The risk owner is the person or entity that has the accountability and authority to manage a risk. The risk owner should be accountable for monitoring the control environment to ensure controls are effective, as they are responsible for implementing, maintaining, and improving the risk controls, and for reporting and communicating the risk status and performance. The risk owner should also ensure that the controls are aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise, and that they support the achievement of the enterprise’s objectives and value creation. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 244.
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?
Options:
Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests
Decreased number of reported security incidents
Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations
Number of employees that complete security training
Answer:
AExplanation:
The best indicator of an effective IT security awareness program is the decreased success rate of internal phishing tests. Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that attempts to trick the users into revealing their personal or confidential information, or clicking on malicious links or attachments, by impersonating a legitimate entity or person. Internal phishing tests are simulated phishing attacks that are conducted by the enterprise to test the awareness and behavior of the employees in response to phishing emails. A decreased success rate of internal phishing tests means that fewer employees fall victim to the phishing attempts, and that they are more aware and vigilant of the phishing threats and techniques. A decreased success rate of internal phishing tests also implies that the IT security awareness program has effectively educated and trained the employees on how to recognize and report phishing emails, and how to protect themselves and the enterprise from phishing attacks. A decreased number of reported security incidents, a number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations, and a number of employees that complete security training are not as good indicators of an effective IT security awareness program as a decreased success rate of internal phishing tests, as they do not directly measure the awareness and behavior of the employees in relation to phishing, and may be influenced by other factors such as reporting mechanisms, enforcement policies, and training availability. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 220.
Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?
Options:
Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)
Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)
Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage
Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most helpful way to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives is to include key stakeholders in the review of user requirements, because this ensures that the application is designed and developed according to the needs and expectations of the end users and the business owners. Including key stakeholders in the review of user requirements also helps to avoid scope creep, requirement changes, or miscommunication that may affect the quality, functionality, or usability of the application. The other options are not the most helpful ways to mitigate the risk, although they may also be useful in reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk. Identifying threats that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA), including diverse business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT), and performing risk assessments during the business case development stage are examples of preventive or detective controls that aim to identify and address the potential issues or problems that may arise during the application development process, but they do not address the alignment of the application with the business objectives. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?
Options:
Expected frequency and potential impact
Risk tolerance
Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment
Risk appetite
Answer:
AExplanation:
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the significant IT risks that an organization faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. An IT risk register can help to provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the organization’s IT risk profile, and to support the decision making and reporting of the IT risk management function1.
One of the data that must be updated to maintain an IT risk register is the expected frequency and potential impact of each IT risk. The expected frequency is the probability or likelihood of the IT risk occurring, based on historical data, statistical analysis, expert judgment, or other methods. The potential impact is the magnitude or severity of the consequences or outcomes of the IT risk, measured in terms of cost, time, quality, reputation, or other criteria2.
Updating the expected frequency and potential impact of each IT risk is essential for maintaining an IT risk register, because it can help to:
Evaluate and prioritize the IT risks based on their risk level, which is calculated by multiplying the frequency and impact
Monitor and track the changes or trends in the IT risk exposure and performance over time
Identify and implement the appropriate risk response strategies and controls, based on the risk level and the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization
Report and communicate the IT risk status and progress to the stakeholders, using risk indicators, dashboards, or matrices3
The other options are not the data that must be updated to maintain an IT risk register, but rather the data that are used as inputs or outputs of the IT risk management process. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in the outcomes related to specific objectives or risks. Risk tolerance is used to measure the IT risk analysis and to guide the IT risk response. Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the IT risks across the organization. Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment is used to populate the IT risk register and to inform the IT risk response. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite is used to guide the IT risk analysis and to align the IT risk response. References =
Risk Register - ISACA
Risk Analysis - ISACA
Risk Register 2021-2022 - UNECE
[How To Conduct Business Impact Analysis in 8 Easy Steps - G2]
[Risk Appetite and Risk Tolerance - ISACA]
[Enterprise Risk Assessment - ISACA]
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
An organization is implementing internet of Things (loT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?
Options:
Insufficient network isolation
impact on network performance
insecure data transmission protocols
Lack of interoperability between sensors
Answer:
CExplanation:
Insecure data transmission protocols should be of greatest concern when an organization is implementing internet of Things (IoT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters, because they can expose the IoT devices and data to unauthorized access, interception, or manipulation. Insecure data transmission protocols can also compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the IoT system and the information it collects and transmits. The other options are not the greatest concerns, although they may also pose some challenges or risks to the IoT implementation. Insufficient network isolation, impact on network performance, and lack of interoperability between sensors are examples of technical or operational issues that can affect the functionality, efficiency, or compatibility of the IoT system, but they do not have the same severity or impact as insecure data transmission protocols. References = CRISC Sample Questions 2024
Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk for a global organization when implementing a data classification policy?
Options:
Data encryption has not been applied to all sensitive data across the organization.
There are many data assets across the organization that need to be classified.
Changes to information handling procedures are not documented.
Changes to data sensitivity during the data life cycle have not been considered.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Changes to data sensitivity during the data life cycle present the greatest risk for a global organization when implementing a data classification policy, as they may result in data being under-protected or over-protected, leading to potential data breaches, compliance violations, or inefficiencies. Data sensitivity refers to the level of confidentiality, integrity, and availability that the data requires, and it may change depending on the data’s creation, storage, processing, transmission, or disposal. A data classification policy should consider the changes to data sensitivity during the data life cycle and ensure that the appropriate controls and procedures are applied at each stage. Data encryption not applied to all sensitive data, many data assets that need to be classified, and changes to information handling procedures not documented are not the greatest risks, as they do not affect the data classification policy itself, but rather the implementation or execution of the policy. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question211; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 211.
Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:
Options:
risk register
risk catalog
risk scenario
RACI matrix
Answer:
DExplanation:
A RACI matrix is a tool that assigns the roles and responsibilities for each risk, such as who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. A RACI matrix helps to clarify the expectations and accountabilities for each risk owner and stakeholder, and to ensure that the risk is managed and monitored effectively and efficiently.
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies. A risk register does not assign the accountability for each risk, but rather the ownership and response.
A risk catalog is a collection of risks that have been identified and categorized based on common attributes, such as source, type, or impact. A risk catalog does not assign the accountability for each risk, but rather the classification and description.
A risk scenario is a technique that simulates the possible outcomes of different risk events and assesses their impact on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. A risk scenario does not assign the accountability for each risk, but rather the analysis and evaluation.
References: CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question216; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 216.
The BEST way to improve a risk register is to ensure the register:
Options:
is updated based upon significant events.
documents possible countermeasures.
contains the risk assessment completion date.
is regularly audited.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, probabilities, responses, and owners. It is a living document that should be updated regularly to reflect the changes in the risk environment and the status of the risk responses12. The best way to improve a risk register is to ensure that it is updated based upon significant events, such as:
New risks are identified or existing risks are eliminated
Risk probabilities or impacts change due to internal or external factors
Risk responses are implemented or modified
Risk owners or stakeholders change
Risk incidents or issues occur
Risk thresholds or appetite change
Risk reporting or communication requirements change
Updating the risk register based upon significant events can help to:
Maintain the accuracy and relevance of the risk information
Enhance the risk awareness and accountability of the risk owners and stakeholders
Support the risk monitoring and reporting activities
Facilitate the risk evaluation and decision-making processes
Improve the risk management performance and maturity
References =
Risk Register - Project Management Knowledge
How to Create a Risk Register: A Step-by-Step Guide - ProjectManager.com
Who is BEST suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system?
Options:
Data owner
Control owner
Risk owner
System owner
Answer:
BExplanation:
The control owner is the person who is responsible for designing, implementing, monitoring, and maintaining a control. The control owner is best suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system, as they have the most knowledge and authority over the control. The control owner should also evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the control and report any issues or gaps to the risk owner.
The other options are not the best suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system. The data owner is the person who has the accountability and authority over the data and its classification. The data owner may not have the technical expertise or access to evaluate the new control. The risk owner is the person who has the accountability and authority to manage a specific risk. The risk owner may not have the detailed knowledge or involvement in the new control. The system owner is the person who has the accountability and authority over the system and its operation. The system owner may not have the direct responsibility or oversight of the new control. References = CRISC TOPIC 3 EXAM SHORT Flashcards, CRISC-1-50 topic3 Flashcards, CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question609
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are MOST useful during which of the following risk management phases?
Options:
Monitoring
Analysis
Identification
Response selection
Answer:
AExplanation:
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are most useful during the monitoring phase of the risk management process, as they provide timely and relevant information on the current and future risk status and performance. KRIs are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and they have predefined thresholds that indicate the acceptable or unacceptable risk status. By monitoring the KRIs, the risk practitioner can identify and report any changes or deviations in the risk level, and take appropriate actions to manage the risk. KRIs are not most useful during the analysis, identification, or response selection phases, as they do not help to assess the likelihood or impact of the risk, to find the sources or causes of the risk, or to evaluate or choose the optimal risk response option. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 222.
When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a ewe Business process. which of the following should be done FRST10 ensure continuity of operations?
Options:
a identity conditions that may cause disruptions
Review incident response procedures
Evaluate the probability of risk events
Define metrics for restoring availability
Answer:
AExplanation:
The first step to ensure continuity of operations when performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a new business process is to identify the conditions that may cause disruptions to the service or the process. This is because identifying the potential sources, causes, and scenarios of disruptions helps to determine the impact and likelihood of the risks, and to select the appropriate risk responses and recovery strategies. The other options are not the first steps, although they may also be part of the risk assessment process. Reviewing incident response procedures, evaluating the probability of risk events, and defining metrics for restoring availability are examples of subsequent steps that depend on the identification of the conditions that may cause disruptions. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit when enterprise risk management (ERM) provides oversight of IT risk management?
Options:
Aligning IT with short-term and long-term goals of the organization
Ensuring the IT budget and resources focus on risk management
Ensuring senior management's primary focus is on the impact of identified risk
Prioritizing internal departments that provide service to customers
Answer:
AExplanation:
Enterprise risk management (ERM) is a holistic and strategic approach to managing the risks that an organization faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. ERM aims to align the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance with its objectives and vision, and to optimize the value and performance of the organization1.
IT risk management is a subset of ERM that focuses on identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks related to the use of information technology (IT) in the organization. IT risk management aims to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and information, and to support the IT governance and strategy of the organization2.
The greatest benefit when ERM provides oversight of IT risk management is aligning IT with short-term and long-term goals of the organization, because it can help to:
Integrate IT risk management with the overall business strategy and risk management, and ensure that IT risks are considered and addressed at the enterprise level
Align IT risk appetite and tolerance with the business risk appetite and tolerance, and ensure that IT risks are balanced with the expected benefits and opportunities
Enhance IT risk awareness and communication among the stakeholders, and ensure that IT risks are reported and escalated appropriately
Optimize IT risk response and control, and ensure that IT risks are managed efficiently and effectively
Demonstrate IT risk value and impact, and ensure that IT risks are measured and monitored against the business objectives and performance34
The other options are not the greatest benefit when ERM provides oversight of IT risk management, but rather some of the outcomes or consequences of it. Ensuring the IT budget and resources focus on risk management is a benefit that can help to allocate and prioritize the IT resources and funds according to the IT risk level and the business needs. Ensuring senior management’s primary focus is on the impact of identified risk is a benefit that can help to increase the senior management’s involvement and accountability in IT risk management, and to support the IT risk decision making and reporting. Prioritizing internal departments that provide service to customers is a benefit that can help to improve the quality and efficiency of the IT service delivery and customer satisfaction. References =
Enterprise Risk Management - ISACA
IT Risk Management - ISACA
Aligning IT risks with Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)
Five Benefits of Enterprise Risk Management : Articles : Resources …
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Who should have the authority to approve an exception to a control?
Options:
information security manager
Control owner
Risk owner
Risk manager
Answer:
BExplanation:
The control owner is the person who has the authority to approve an exception to a control. A control is a policy, procedure, or technical measure that is implemented to prevent or mitigate a risk. A control owner is responsible for the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of the control, as well as for monitoring and reporting its performance and effectiveness. A control owner is also accountable for the approval of any changes or exceptions to the control, based on the risk assessment and business justification. An information security manager, a risk owner, and a risk manager are not the best choices, as they do not have the same level of authority, responsibility, and knowledge as the control owner in relation to the control. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 35.
The PRIMARY goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to:
Options:
obtain the support of executive management.
map the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources.
identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services.
document the disaster recovery process.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The primary goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services. A BIA is a process of assessing the potential impact and consequences of a disruption or interruption of the business activities, operations, or functions. A continuity planning process is a process of developing, implementing, and maintaining a plan to ensure the continuity and recovery of the business activities, operations, or functions in the event of a disruption or interruption. The primary goal of conducting a BIA is to identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services, which are the business processes that are essential for the survival and success of the business, and the support services that are required to enable or facilitate the critical business processes, such as IT systems, human resources, facilities, or suppliers. Identifying critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services helps to determine the priorities and requirements for the continuity and recovery of the business activities, operations, or functions, and to select and implement the appropriate continuity and recovery strategies and solutions. Obtaining the support of executive management, mapping the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources, and documenting the disaster recovery process are not the primary goals of conducting a BIA, as they are either the benefits or the outputs of the BIA process, and they do not address the primary need of assessing the impact and consequences of the business disruption or interruption. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
To minimize the risk of a potential acquisition being exposed externally, an organization has selected a few key employees to be engaged in the due diligence process. A member of the due diligence team realizes a close acquaintance is a high-ranking IT professional at a subsidiary of the company about to be acquired. What is the BEST course of action for this team member?
Options:
Enforce segregation of duties.
Disclose potential conflicts of interest.
Delegate responsibilities involving the acquaintance.
Notify the subsidiary's legal team.
Answer:
BExplanation:
A conflict of interest is a situation where a person’s personal or professional interests may interfere with their ability to act in the best interest of the organization or the project1. A conflict of interest can compromise the integrity, objectivity, and impartiality of the person, and create ethical or legal issues for the organization or the project2. In the context of due diligence, a conflict of interest can affect the quality and reliability of the information and analysis, and jeopardize the success and confidentiality of the acquisition3.
The best course of action for a member of the due diligence team who realizes a close acquaintance is a high-ranking IT professional at a subsidiary of the company about to be acquired is to disclose potential conflicts of interest. This means that the team member should inform the due diligence leader and the organization’s management about the relationship with the acquaintance, and explain how it may affect their role or responsibility in the due diligence process. By disclosing potential conflicts of interest, the team member can:
Demonstrate honesty and transparency, and uphold the ethical standards and values of the organization and the project4.
Enable the due diligence leader and the organization’s management to assess the situation and decide the appropriate course of action, such as reassigning the team member, implementing additional controls or safeguards, or obtaining consent or approval from the relevant parties5.
Avoid or minimize the negative consequences or risks that may arise from the conflict of interest, such as legal liability, reputational damage, or loss of trust and credibility6.
References =
Conflict of Interest - CIO Wiki
What is a Conflict of Interest? Give Me Some Examples - The Balance Careers
How to Avoid Conflicts of Interest in M&A Transactions - DealRoom
How to Handle Conflicts of Interest - Harvard Business Review
Conflict of Interest Policy - ISACA
Managing Conflicts of Interest in the Public Sector Toolkit - OECD
Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?
Options:
Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.
Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.
Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.
Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract
Answer:
DExplanation:
Specifying cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract is the most effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud, because it establishes the roles and responsibilities of the cloud service provider and the customer in case of a data breach, and defines the compensation or remediation measures that the cloud service provider should provide. This control also creates an incentive for the cloud service provider to implement adequate security measures to protect the customer’s data and comply with the relevant laws and regulations. The other options are not the most effective controls, although they may also be helpful in reducing the risk of data privacy breaches. Establishing baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider, requiring the cloud service provider to disclose past data privacy breaches, and ensuring the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment are examples of preventive or detective controls that aim to reduce the likelihood or impact of a data breach, but they do not address the accountability or liability of the cloud service provider in case of a data breach. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
From a risk management perspective, the PRIMARY objective of using maturity models is to enable:
Options:
solution delivery.
resource utilization.
strategic alignment.
performance evaluation.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Maturity models are tools that help organizations assess and improve their risk management processes and capabilities. They provide a set of criteria or standards that define different levels of maturity, from ad-hoc to innovative. The primary objective of using maturity models in risk management is to enable strategic alignment, which means ensuring that the risk management activities and objectives are consistent with and support the organization’s mission, vision, values, and goals. By using maturity models, organizations can identify their current level of risk management maturity, compare it with their desired level, and plan and implement actions to close the gap. This way, they can align their risk management practices with their strategic direction and priorities, and enhance their performance and value creation. References = How to Use a Maturity Model in Risk Management — RiskOptics - Reciprocity, Using a Maturity Model to Assess Your Risk Management Program, How to Use a Risk Maturity Model to Level Up · Riskonnect
Which of the following BEST indicates the efficiency of a process for granting access privileges?
Options:
Average time to grant access privileges
Number of changes in access granted to users
Average number of access privilege exceptions
Number and type of locked obsolete accounts
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the average time to grant access privileges is the best indicator of the efficiency of a process for granting access privileges, because it measures how quickly and effectively the process can respond to the access requests and meet the business needs. The average time to grant access privileges can be calculated by dividing the total time spent on granting access privileges by the number of access requests processed. The other options are not the best indicators of the efficiency of the process, because they measure other aspects of the process, such as the quality, the security, or the maintenance. The number of changes in access granted to users measures the quality of the process, as it indicates how well the process can align the access rights with the user roles and functions. The average number of access privilege exceptions measures the security of the process, as it indicates how often the process deviates from the established policies and standards. The number and type of locked obsolete accounts measures the maintenance of the process, as it indicates how well the process can remove the unnecessary or outdated accounts. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.2, page 163
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?
Options:
An email from the user accepting the account
Notification from human resources that the account is active
User privileges matching the request form
Formal approval of the account by the user's manager
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, formal approval of the account by the user’s manager is the best evidence that a user account has been properly authorized, because it ensures that the user’s role and access rights are consistent with the business needs and the principle of least privilege. The user’s manager is responsible for verifying the user’s identity, job function, and access requirements, and for approving or rejecting the account request. The other options are not the best evidence of proper authorization, because they do not involve the user’s manager’s approval. An email from the user accepting the account is a confirmation of the account creation, but it does not indicate that the account was authorized by the user’s manager. Notification from human resources that the account is active is an administrative process that does not verify the user’s access rights and role. User privileges matching the request form is a verification of the account configuration, but it does not ensure that the request form was approved by the user’s manager. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.2, page 163.
Who should be PRIMARILY responsible for establishing an organization's IT risk culture?
Options:
Business process owner
Executive management
Risk management
IT management
Answer:
BExplanation:
Executive management should be primarily responsible for establishing an organization’s IT risk culture, as they have the authority and accountability to define and communicate the vision, mission, values, and objectives of the organization, and to set the tone and direction for the IT risk management and control processes. Executive management is the highest level of management in an organization, and it consists of the board of directors, the chief executive officer (CEO), and other senior executives. Executive management is responsible for the strategic planning and decision making of the organization, and for ensuring the alignment of the organizational strategy and objectives with the stakeholder expectations and requirements.
Executive management should be primarily responsible for establishing an organization’s IT risk culture by providing the following benefits:
It demonstrates the leadership and commitment of the executive management to the IT risk management and control processes, and to the achievement of the organizational strategy and objectives.
It influences and motivates the behavior and attitude of the staff and managers towards IT risk management and control, and fosters a culture of risk awareness, ownership, and accountability across the organization.
It defines and communicates the IT risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and guides and supports the development and implementation of the IT risk policies, standards, and procedures.
It allocates and monitors the resources and performance of the IT risk management and control processes, and ensures the effectiveness and efficiency of the IT risk governance and oversight.
The other options are not the primary choices for establishing an organization’s IT risk culture. Business process owner is the person who has the responsibility and authority over the design, execution, and performance of a specific business process, and they are accountable for the risks and controls associated with their process, but they do not have the overall or strategic responsibility for the IT risk culture. Risk management is the function or department that is responsible for managing and monitoring the IT risk management and control processes, and for providing advice and guidance to the executive management and the business units, but they do not have the ultimate or final responsibility for the IT risk culture. IT management is the function or department that is responsible for managing and maintaining the IT operations and security, and for supporting the IT risk management and control processes, but they do not have the highest or broadest responsibility for the IT risk culture. References = Risk Culture - Open Risk Manual, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, The 6 key elements to creating and maintaining a good risk culture
An IT risk practitioner has been asked to regularly report on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. Which of the following is MOST useful for this purpose?
Options:
Balanced scorecard
Capability maturity level
Internal audit plan
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Answer:
AExplanation:
A balanced scorecard is a strategic management tool that helps to measure and communicate the performance of an organization or a program against its goals and objectives. A balanced scorecard typically consists of four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. Each perspective has a set of key performance indicators (KPIs) that reflect the critical success factors and desired outcomes of the organization or the program1.
A balanced scorecard is most useful for reporting on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program, because it can provide a comprehensive and balanced view of the program’s performance across multiple dimensions. A balanced scorecard can help to align the IT risk management program with the business strategy and vision, and to demonstrate the value and impact of the program to the stakeholders. A balanced scorecard can also help to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the IT risk management program, and to monitor and improve the program’s processes and outcomes2.
The other options are not as useful as a balanced scorecard for reporting on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. A capability maturity level is a measure of the maturity and quality of a process or a practice, based on a predefined set of criteria and standards. A capability maturity level can help to assess and benchmark the IT risk management program’s processes and practices, but it does not provide a holistic view of the program’s performance and results3. An internal audit plan is a document that outlines the scope, objectives, and methodology of an internal audit activity. An internal audit plan can help to evaluate and verify the IT risk management program’s controls and compliance, but it does not provide a strategic view of the program’s goals and outcomes4. A control self-assessment (CSA) is a technique that involves the participation of the process owners and the staff in assessing the effectiveness and efficiency of their own controls. A CSA can help to enhance the awareness and ownership of the IT risk management program’s controls, but it does not provide an objective and independent view of the program’s performance and impact. References =
Balanced Scorecard Basics - Balanced Scorecard Institute
Using the Balanced Scorecard to Measure and Manage IT Risk
Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) Overview
Internal Audit Planning: The Basics - The IIA
[Control Self-Assessment - ISACA]
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?
Options:
Lack of alignment to best practices
Lack of risk assessment
Lack of risk and control procedures
Lack of management approval
Answer:
BExplanation:
Risk assessment is a key process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the risks associated with the implementation of an emerging technology. It helps to determine the potential impact and likelihood of the risks, as well as the appropriate risk responses and controls. Lack of risk assessment can lead to poor decision making, inadequate risk mitigation, and unexpected consequences. Therefore, it should be of greatest concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, p. 226-227
An organizations chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack. In this situation, the risk practitioner's BEST course of action is to:
Options:
identify key risk indicators (KRls) for ongoing monitoring
validate the CTO's decision with the business process owner
update the risk register with the selected risk response
recommend that the CTO revisit the risk acceptance decision.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A denial-of-service (DoS) attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to disrupt or disable the normal functioning of a system or network by overwhelming it with excessive traffic or requests.
The chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a DoS attack. This means that the CTO has determined that the cost or effort of implementing or maintaining controls to prevent or reduce the impact of a DoS attack is not justified by the expected benefits or savings, and that the organization is willing to bear the consequences of a DoS attack if it occurs.
The best course of action for the risk practitioner in this situation is to identify key risk indicators (KRIs) for ongoing monitoring. This means that the risk practitioner should define and measure the metrics that provide information about the level of exposure to the DoS attack risk, such as the frequency, duration, or severity of the attacks, the availability, performance, or security of the systems or networks, the customer satisfaction, reputation, or revenue of the organization, etc.
Identifying KRIs for ongoing monitoring helps to track and evaluate the actual results and outcomes of the risk acceptance decision, compare them with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, identify any deviations or breaches that may require attention or action, and report them to the appropriate parties for decision making or improvement actions.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 15
Information Technology & Security, page 9
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 7
An organization has detected unauthorized logins to its client database servers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?
Options:
Potential increase in regulatory scrutiny
Potential system downtime
Potential theft of personal information
Potential legal risk
Answer:
CExplanation:
Potential theft of personal information should be of greatest concern for an organization that has detected unauthorized logins to its client database servers, as it poses a serious threat to the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the client data and the reputation and trust of the organization. Potential theft of personal information is a scenario that involves the unauthorized access, disclosure, or use of the client data by malicious actors, such as hackers, competitors, or insiders. Potential theft of personal information can have significant impacts and consequences for the organization and its clients, such as:
It can compromise the privacy and security of the client data, and expose the clients to identity theft, fraud, or blackmail.
It can violate the legal and regulatory obligations and requirements of the organization, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), or the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), and result in fines, penalties, or lawsuits.
It can damage the reputation and credibility of the organization, and erode the confidence and loyalty of the clients, and lead to loss of business or market share.
The other options are not the greatest concerns for an organization that has detected unauthorized logins to its client database servers. Potential increase in regulatory scrutiny is a possible consequence of the unauthorized logins, as it may trigger audits, investigations, or sanctions by the relevant authorities, but it is not the most critical or immediate concern. Potential system downtime is a possible consequence of the unauthorized logins, as it may disrupt or degrade the performance or availability of the database servers or the applications that depend on them, but it is not the most severe or lasting concern. Potential legal risk is a possible consequence of the unauthorized logins, as it may expose the organization to litigation or liability claims by the affected clients or parties, but it is not the most direct or urgent concern. References = Data Breach Response: A Guide for Business - Federal Trade Commission, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, How to Prevent Unauthorized Access to Your Database - ScaleGrid
When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?
Options:
Mapping threats to organizational objectives
Reviewing past audits
Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)
Identifying potential sources of risk
Answer:
DExplanation:
Identifying potential sources of risk is the first step in the risk identification process, which is essential for developing a thorough understanding of risk scenarios. Sources of risk can be internal or external, and can include factors such as people, processes, technology, environment, regulations, and events. Identifying potential sources of risk can help to generate a comprehensive list of risk scenarios that can affect the organization’s objectives and operations. Identifying potential sources of risk can also help to raise risk awareness among the employees and to foster a risk culture within the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, p. 66-67
Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?
Options:
Least privilege access
Inability to edit
Ability to overwrite
Encryption
Answer:
BExplanation:
A security log is a record of security-related events or activities that occur in an IT system, network, or application, such as user authentication, access control, firewall activity, or intrusion detection1. Security logs can help to monitor and audit the security posture and performance of the IT environment, and to detect and investigate any security incidents, breaches, or anomalies2.
The integrity of a security log refers to the accuracy and completeness of the log data, and the assurance that the log data has not been modified, deleted, or tampered with by unauthorized or malicious parties3. The integrity of a security log is essential for ensuring the reliability and validity of the log analysis and reporting, and for providing evidence and accountability for security incidents and compliance4.
Among the four options given, the most important factor to the integrity of a security log is the inability to edit. This means that the security log data should be protected from any unauthorized or accidental changes or alterations, such as adding, deleting, or modifying log entries, or changing the log format or timestamps5. The inability to edit can be achieved by implementing various controls and measures, such as:
Applying digital signatures or hashes to the log data to verify its authenticity and integrity
Encrypting the log data to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure
Implementing least privilege access to the log data to restrict who can view, modify, or delete the log data
Using write-once media or devices to store the log data, such as CD-ROMs or WORM drives
Sending the log data to a secure and centralized log server or repository, and using syslog or other protocols to ensure secure and reliable log transmission
Performing regular backups and archiving of the log data to prevent data loss or corruption
References = Security Log: Best Practices for Logging and Management, Security Audit Logging Guideline, Confidentiality, Integrity, & Availability: Basics of Information Security, Steps for preserving the integrity of log data, Guide to Computer Security Log Management
Winch of the following can be concluded by analyzing the latest vulnerability report for the it infrastructure?
Options:
Likelihood of a threat
Impact of technology risk
Impact of operational risk
Control weakness
Answer:
DExplanation:
A vulnerability report for the IT infrastructure is a document that identifies and evaluates the weaknesses or gaps in the IT systems, networks, or devices that could be exploited by threats or cause incidents. By analyzing the latest vulnerability report, one can conclude the existence and extent of control weaknesses in the IT infrastructure, because control weaknesses are the deficiencies or failures of the controls that are supposed to prevent, detect, or correct the vulnerabilities. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not directly concluded by analyzing the latest vulnerability report. The likelihood of a threat, the impact of technology risk, and the impact of operational risk are examples of risk factors or consequences that depend on the vulnerability and the threat, but they are not determined by the vulnerability report alone. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following describes the relationship between Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIS)?
Options:
KCIs are independent from KRIs KRIs.
KCIs and KRIs help in determining risk appetite.
KCIs are defined using data from KRIs.
KCIs provide input for KRIs
Answer:
DExplanation:
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given risk. Key control indicators (KCIs) are metrics that measure the performance or effectiveness of a control in mitigating a risk. KCIs provide input for KRIs, because they help to assess the residual risk after applying the control. For example, if the KRI is the number of security incidents, and the KCI is the percentage of incidents detected by the intrusion prevention system (IPS), then the KCI provides input for the KRI by showing how well the IPS is reducing the risk of security breaches. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
An organization's risk register contains a large volume of risk scenarios that senior management considers overwhelming. Which of the following would BEST help to improve the risk register?
Options:
Analyzing the residual risk components
Performing risk prioritization
Validating the risk appetite level
Conducting a risk assessment
Answer:
BExplanation:
Performing risk prioritization would best help to improve the risk register, which is a document that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses1. Risk prioritization is the process of ranking the risks according to their significance and urgency, based on their probability and impact2. By performing risk prioritization, the organization can:
Reduce the complexity and volume of the risk register, and focus on the most important and relevant risks that require immediate attention and action3.
Enhance the communication and understanding of the risks among the senior management and other stakeholders, and facilitate the decision-making and resource allocation for the risk responses4.
Improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the risk management process, and ensure that the risk register is aligned with the organization’s risk strategy, objectives, and appetite5.
The other options are not the best ways to improve the risk register, because:
Analyzing the residual risk components is not the best way, as it may not address the issue of the large volume of risk scenarios. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses6. Analyzing the residual risk components can help to measure the exposure or uncertainty of the assets, and to determine the need and extent of the risk responses. However, it may not reduce the complexity or volume of the risk register, as it may add more information or data to the risk register.
Validating the risk appetite level is not the best way, as it may not address the issue of the overwhelming risk scenarios. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives7. Validating the risk appetite level can help to ensure that the risk register is consistent and proportional to the risk level, and that the risk responses are suitable and feasible. However, it may not reduce the complexity or volume of the risk register, as it may require more information or data to validate the risk appetite level.
Conducting a risk assessment is not the best way, as it may not address the issue of the existing risk scenarios. Risk assessment is the process of estimating the probability and impact of the risks, and prioritizing the risks based on their significance and urgency. Conducting a risk assessment can help to identify and analyze new or emerging risks, and to update or revise the risk register accordingly. However, it may not reduce the complexity or volume of the risk register, as it may introduce more information or data to the risk register.
References =
Risk Register - CIO Wiki
Risk Prioritization - CIO Wiki
Risk Prioritization: A Guide for Project Managers - ProjectManager.com
Risk Prioritization: How to Prioritize Risks in Project Management - Clarizen
Risk Prioritization: A Key Step in Risk Management - ISACA
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
[Risk Assessment - CIO Wiki]
The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:
Options:
help an organization identify emerging threats.
benchmark the organization's risk profile.
identify trends in the organization's vulnerabilities.
enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given risk. They enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk by alerting the organization when the risk level exceeds the predefined threshold or tolerance. By using KRIs, the organization can track the changes in the risk environment and take timely and appropriate actions to mitigate or avoid the risk.
Helping an organization identify emerging threats, benchmarking the organization’s risk profile, and identifying trends in the organization’s vulnerabilities are all possible uses of KRIs, but they are not the primary benefit. The primary benefit is to enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk, which encompasses all these aspects and more. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, page 27-281
Which of the following is MOST important to include in a risk assessment of an emerging technology?
Options:
Risk response plans
Risk and control ownership
Key controls
Impact and likelihood ratings
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most important thing to include in a risk assessment of an emerging technology is the impact and likelihood ratings of the risks associated with the technology. Impact and likelihood ratings are the measures of the potential consequences and probabilities of the risk events that could affect the achievement of the enterprise’s objectives. Impact and likelihood ratings can help to evaluate the level and nature of the risk exposure, and to prioritize the risks for further analysis and response. Impact and likelihood ratings can also help to communicate the risk profile and appetite of the enterprise, and to support the risk-based decision making. Risk response plans, risk and control ownership, and key controls are not as important as impact and likelihood ratings, as they are the outputs or outcomes of the risk assessment process, and not the inputs or components of the risk assessment process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
Which of the following BEST indicates the condition of a risk management program?
Options:
Number of risk register entries
Number of controls
Level of financial support
Amount of residual risk
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best indicator of the condition of a risk management program is the amount of residual risk. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses. Residual risk reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management program in reducing the risk exposure to an acceptable level, and in aligning the risk profile with the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. A low amount of residual risk indicates that the risk management program is performing well, and that the controls are adequate and appropriate. A high amount of residual risk indicates that the risk management program is not functioning properly, and that the controls are insufficient or ineffective. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2, page 191
To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?
Options:
Compliance objectives
Risk appetite of the organization
Organizational objectives
Inherent and residual risk
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite is a key factor in communicating the risk associated with IT in business terms, because it helps to align the IT risk management with the business strategy and goals. Risk appetite also helps to define the risk tolerance and thresholds, which are the acceptable levels of variation around the objectives. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not essential for communicating the risk associated with IT in business terms. Compliance objectives are the objectives that an organization must achieve to comply with the applicable laws, regulations, standards, and contracts. Organizational objectives are the objectives that an organization sets to achieve its mission, vision, and values. Inherent and residual risk are the risk levels before and after applying the risk responses, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, page 66.
An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:
Options:
data aggregation
data privacy
data quality
data validation
Answer:
BExplanation:
The primary concern for an organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider is data privacy. Data privacy is the protection of personal information from unauthorized or unlawful access, use, disclosure, or transfer. Data privacy is governed by various laws, regulations, and standards that vary across different jurisdictions and sectors. An organization that transfers and stores its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should ensure that the data privacy rights and obligations of the customers, the organization, and the cloud service provider are clearly defined and agreed upon, and that the data is protected according to the applicable data privacy requirements. An organization should also conduct due diligence and risk assessment on the offshore cloud service provider, and monitor and audit its performance and compliance on a regular basis. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 127123
Which of the following practices BEST mitigates risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization?
Options:
Customized regional training on local laws and regulations
Policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions
Ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture
Zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best practice to mitigate risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization is to provide ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture. A common risk culture is a set of shared values, beliefs, and behaviors that influence how the organization identifies, analyzes, responds to, and monitors risks. Ongoing awareness training can help to promote a common risk culture by educating the employees about the enterprise’s risk management objectives, policies, procedures, roles, and responsibilities, as well as the ethical standards and expectations that apply to their work. Ongoing awareness training can also help to reinforce the benefits of ethical decision making and the consequences of unethical behavior. Customized regional training on local laws and regulations, policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions, and zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers are also useful practices, but they are not as effective as ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 37.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for monitoring activities performed in a production database environment?
Options:
Ensuring that database changes are correctly applied
Enforcing that changes are authorized
Deterring illicit actions of database administrators
Preventing system developers from accessing production data
Answer:
AExplanation:
Ensuring that database changes are correctly applied is the primary reason for monitoring activities performed in a production database environment, as it helps to maintain the integrity, availability, and performance of the database and the applications that depend on it. Database changes are any modifications made to the database structure, configuration, data, or code, such as adding or deleting tables, columns, indexes, or triggers, updating or inserting data, or altering stored procedures or functions. Database changes can have significant impacts on the database functionality and behavior, and may introduce errors, inconsistencies, or vulnerabilities if not applied correctly. Therefore, monitoring database changes is essential to verify that the changes are implemented as intended, comply with the design specifications and standards, and do not cause any adverse effects or conflicts with the existing database or application components.
The other options are not the primary reasons for monitoring activities performed in a production database environment. Enforcing that changes are authorized is an important aspect of database change management, but it is not the main purpose of database monitoring. Database change management is the process of planning, reviewing, approving, and implementing database changes in a controlled and consistent manner. Database change management helps to ensure that the changes are authorized by the appropriate stakeholders, aligned with the business requirements and objectives, and documented and communicated to the relevant parties. Database monitoring can support database change management by providing information and feedback on the change implementation and performance, but it does not enforce the change authorization. Deterring illicit actions of database administrators is a possible benefit of database monitoring, but it is not the primary reason for it. Database administrators are the users who have the highest level of access and privilege to the database, and they are responsible for managing and maintaining the database operations and security. Database monitoring can help to deter illicit actions of database administrators by tracking and auditing their activities and actions on the database, and alerting or escalating any suspicious or malicious behavior. However, database monitoring is not the only or the most effective way to prevent or detect illicit actions of database administrators. Other measures, such as implementing the principle of least privilege, segregating duties, enforcing password policies, and encrypting data, are also necessary to protect the database from unauthorized or improper access or manipulation by database administrators or other users. Preventing system developers from accessing production data is a possible benefit of database monitoring, but it is not the primary reason for it. System developers are the users who design, develop, and test the applications that interact with the database. System developers should not have access to the production data, as it may contain sensitive or confidential information that could be compromised or misused by the developers. System developers should only use test or dummy data for their development and testing purposes. Database monitoring can help to prevent system developers from accessing production data by controlling and restricting their access and privilege to the database, and logging and reporting any unauthorized or inappropriate access attempts. However, database monitoring is not the only or the most effective way to prevent system developers from accessing production data. Other measures, such as implementing access control policies, masking or anonymizing data, and isolating development and production environments, are also necessary to safeguard the production data from system developers or other users. References = Database Monitoring: Basics & Introduction | Splunk, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Best Practices for Database Performance Monitoring
The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organization's IT risk management process should be to:
Options:
assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.
confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.
verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.
ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary objective for requiring an independent review of an organization’s IT risk management process should be to assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus, as this helps to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the current process, and to provide recommendations for improvement and alignment with the enterprise’s objectives and environment. An independent review is an objective and unbiased evaluation of the IT risk management process by a qualified and competent party that is not involved in the process. An independent review can help to ensure the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of the IT risk management process, as well as to enhance the credibility and confidence of the process. Confirming that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact, verifying implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization, and ensuring IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk are not the primary objectives for requiring an independent review of an organization’s IT risk management process, but rather the expected outcomes or benefits of the independent review. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question219; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 219.
Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?
Options:
Testing control design
Accepting residual risk
Establishing business information criteria
Establishing the risk register
Answer:
BExplanation:
Accepting residual risk is the most important responsibility of a risk owner, as it implies that the risk owner is accountable for the risk and its impact on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls, and it should be aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. The risk owner is responsible for implementing the risk response strategies and monitoring the risk status and outcomes, as well as for reporting and escalating the risk issues and incidents. Testing control design, establishing business information criteria, and establishing the risk register are not the most important responsibilities of a risk owner, but rather the tasks or activities that the risk owner may perform or delegate as part of the risk management process. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question218; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 218.
Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?
Options:
Organizational reporting process
Incident reporting procedures
Regularly scheduled audits
Incident management policy
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most important factor to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting is an organizational reporting process. An organizational reporting process is a set of procedures that defines the roles, responsibilities, frequency, format, and distribution of the risk and security metrics reports. An organizational reporting process helps to ensure that the risk and security metrics are relevant, accurate, consistent, and timely, and that they provide useful information for decision making and performance improvement. An organizational reporting process also helps to align the risk and security metrics reporting with the enterprise’s objectives, strategies, and policies, and to communicate the risk and security status and issues to the appropriate stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 2421
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?
Options:
Percentage of business users completing risk training
Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed
Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined
Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise's response
Answer:
DExplanation:
IT risk management is the process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks related to the use of information technology (IT) in the organization. IT risk management aims to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and information, and to support the IT governance and strategy of the organization1.
The best indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes is the time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise’s response. This indicator can help to measure how quickly and efficiently the organization can detect and respond to the IT risks, and how well the organization can prevent or minimize the negative impacts of the IT risks. The time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise’s response can include:
The time taken to identify and report the IT risk scenarios, using various methods and sources, such as risk assessments, audits, monitoring, alerts, or incidents
The time taken to analyze and evaluate the IT risk scenarios, using various tools and techniques, such as risk matrices, risk registers, risk indicators, or risk models
The time taken to select and implement the IT risk responses, using various strategies and controls, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance
The time taken to review and improve the IT risk management processes, using various feedback and learning mechanisms, such as lessons learned, best practices, or benchmarks23
The other options are not the best indicators of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes, but rather some of the inputs or outputs of IT risk management processes. Percentage of business users completing risk training is an indicator of the awareness and competence of the IT users and providers, which can affect the IT risk management performance, but it does not measure the IT risk management processes directly. Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed is an indicator of the completeness and coverage of the IT risk management activities, which can affect the IT risk management outcomes, but it does not measure the IT risk management processes directly. Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined is an indicator of the scope and complexity of the IT risk management objectives, which can affect the IT risk management resources and capabilities, but it does not measure the IT risk management processes directly. References =
IT Risk Management - ISACA
Risk Management Process - ISACA
Risk Response - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key risk indicator (KRI) for backup media that is recycled monthly?
Options:
Time required for backup restoration testing
Change in size of data backed up
Successful completion of backup operations
Percentage of failed restore tests
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most appropriate key risk indicator (KRI) for backup media that is recycled monthly is the percentage of failed restore tests. A KRI is a metric that measures the likelihood or impact of a risk, and provides an early warning signal of a potential risk event. The percentage of failed restore tests is a KRI that reflects the quality and reliability of the backup media, and indicates the possibility of data loss or corruption. A high percentage of failed restore tests would suggest that the backup media is not functioning properly, and that the risk of data unavailability is increasing. Therefore, this KRI would help the risk practitioner to monitor the risk and take corrective actions as needed. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2, page 235.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?
Options:
Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process
Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives
Number of current test plans and procedures
Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes is the percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives. Recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable time period within which a business process or an IT service must be restored after a disruption. Recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time before the disruption. The percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO indicates how well the disaster recovery test meets the business continuity and recovery requirements and expectations, and how effectively the disaster recovery plan and procedures are executed. The percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO can also help to identify the gaps, weaknesses, and opportunities for improvement in the disaster recovery capabilities. Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process, number of current test plans and procedures, and number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test are not as good as the percentage of processes recovered within the RTO and RPO, as they do not directly measure the achievement of the recovery objectives, and may not reflect the actual impact and performance of the disaster recovery test. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 130.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?
Options:
Monitoring risk responses
Applying risk treatments
Providing assurance of control effectiveness
Implementing internal controls
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary risk management responsibility of the second line of defense is to monitor the risk responses. The second line of defense is the function that oversees and supports the risk management activities of the first line of defense, which is the function that owns and manages the risks. The second line of defense includes the risk management, compliance, and quality assurance functions, among others. The second line of defense is responsible for monitoring the risk responses, which are the actions taken to address the risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risks. The second line of defense monitors the risk responses to ensure that they are implemented effectively and efficiently, that they achieve the desired outcomes, and that they are aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The second line of defense also provides guidance, advice, and feedback to the first line of defense on the risk responses, and reports the results and issues to the senior management and the board. Applying risk treatments, providing assurance of control effectiveness, and implementing internal controls are not the primary risk management responsibilities of the second line of defense, as they are either the responsibilities of the first line of defense or the third line of defense, which is the function that provides independent assurance of the risk management activities, such as the internal audit function. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 36.
Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?
Options:
Enabling risk-aware decisions
Promoting a risk-aware culture
Improving security governance
Reducing residual risk
Answer:
AExplanation:
A risk management program is a systematic and structured approach to identify, analyze, evaluate, treat, monitor, and communicate the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and performance.
The greatest advantage of implementing a risk management program is enabling risk-aware decisions. This means that the organization incorporates the risk information and analysis into its decision making process, such as strategic planning, resource allocation, project management, etc.
Enabling risk-aware decisions helps to optimize the outcomes and benefits of the decisions, balance the opportunities and threats of the decisions, and align the decisions with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.
The other options are not the greatest advantages of implementing a risk management program. They are either secondary or not essential for risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 25
Information Technology & Security, page 19
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 17
During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:
Options:
reset the alert threshold based on peak traffic
analyze the traffic to minimize the false negatives
analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives
sniff the traffic using a network analyzer
Answer:
CExplanation:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a network security tool that monitors network traffic and devices for known malicious activity, suspicious activity or security policy violations1. An IDS can generate alerts when it detects any potential threats, but not all alerts are accurate or relevant. There are two types of errors that can affect the performance and reliability of an IDS: false positives and false negatives2.
A false positive is when an IDS incorrectly flags a benign or normal activity as malicious or suspicious. For example, an IDS may alert on a legitimate network scan or a harmless software update. False positives can reduce the credibility and efficiency of an IDS, as they can overwhelm the security team with unnecessary alerts, distract them from the real threats, and cause them to ignore or disable the IDS3.
A false negative is when an IDS fails to flag a malicious or suspicious activity as such. For example, an IDS may miss a stealthy or novel attack that does not match any known signatures or patterns. False negatives can compromise the security and integrity of the network, as they can allow attackers to bypass the IDS and cause damage or steal data without being detected4.
The risk practitioner should recommend to analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives, because this is the best way to improve the accuracy and usefulness of the IDS. By analyzing the alerts, the risk practitioner can:
Identify the sources and causes of the false positives, such as misconfigured or outdated IDS rules, network anomalies, or legitimate traffic that resembles malicious traffic5.
Adjust or fine-tune the IDS settings, such as the alert threshold, the sensitivity level, the detection method, or the rule base, to reduce the number of false positives without increasing the risk of false negatives.
Validate or verify the alerts with other sources of information, such as logs, network traffic analysis, or threat intelligence, to confirm or dismiss the alerts as true or false positives.
Prioritize or classify the alerts based on their severity, impact, or likelihood, to focus on the most critical or relevant alerts and avoid alert fatigue.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Resetting the alert threshold based on peak traffic is not a reliable or effective way to minimize the false positives, as it may also increase the risk of false negatives. The alert threshold is the level of activity or deviation that triggers an alert from the IDS. If the threshold is set too high, the IDS may miss some malicious or suspicious activity that occurs below the threshold. If the threshold is set too low, the IDS may generate too many alerts for normal or benign activity that exceeds the threshold. The optimal threshold depends on various factors, such as the network size, topology, traffic volume, and baseline. Peak traffic is not a good indicator of the optimal threshold, as it may vary depending on the time, day, or season, and it may not reflect the normal or expected network behavior.
Analyzing the traffic to minimize the false negatives is not the main issue or goal in this scenario, as the problem is the high number of alerts, not the low number of alerts. Analyzing the traffic can help to identify the malicious or suspicious activity that the IDS may have missed, but it does not address the root cause of the false positives or improve the IDS performance. Moreover, analyzing the traffic can be time-consuming and resource-intensive, especially for large or complex networks, and it may require specialized tools or skills that the risk practitioner may not have.
Sniffing the traffic using a network analyzer is not a suitable or feasible option in this scenario, as it may violate the privacy or security policies of the network or the organization. Sniffing the traffic means capturing and inspecting the network packets that are transmitted or received by the devices on the network. A network analyzer is a tool that can perform this function and display the packet data in a readable format. However, sniffing the traffic can also expose sensitive or confidential information, such as passwords, usernames, or credit card numbers, that may be contained in the packets. Therefore, sniffing the traffic may require authorization or consent from the network owners or users, and it may be restricted or prohibited by law or regulation.
References =
What is an intrusion detection system (IDS)? - IBM
Intrusion detection system - Wikipedia
What Are Intrusion Detection Systems? - MUO
12 Best Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Software 2024 - Comparitech
What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)? - Fortinet
[False Positive and False Negative in Intrusion Detection System]
[False Positives and False Negatives in Intrusion Detection Systems]
[How to Reduce False Positives for Your IDS/IPS]
[How to Set the Right Alert Thresholds for Your IDS/IPS]
[Network Traffic Analysis: What It Is and How It Works]
[What is a Network Analyzer? - Definition from Techopedia]
A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment. The BEST way to engage stakeholder attention is to:
Options:
include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks,
include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs,
include a roadmap to achieve operational excellence,
publish the report on-demand for stakeholders.
Answer:
BExplanation:
A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment, such as new or emerging risks, changes in risk levels, risk responses, or control effectiveness. The best way to engage stakeholder attention is to include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs, meaning that the report should highlight the key points and findings that are relevant and important for the stakeholder’s role, responsibility, and interest. The summary should also explain how the information affects the stakeholder’s objectives, expectations, and decisions. The summary should be concise, clear, and compelling, and should capture the stakeholder’s attention and interest. The report can also include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks, a roadmap to achieve operational excellence, or an option to publish the report on-demand for stakeholders, but these are not the best ways to engage stakeholder attention, as they may not be directly related to the stakeholder’s needs or may overwhelm the stakeholder with too much information. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, p. 124-125
An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?
Options:
Audit reports
Industry benchmarks
Financial forecasts
Annual threat reports
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best input for conducting a review of emerging risk is the annual threat reports. Emerging risk is the risk that arises from new or evolving sources, or from existing sources that have not been previously considered or recognized. Emerging risk may have significant impact on the organization’s objectives, strategies, operations, or reputation, and may require new or different risk responses. Annual threat reports are the reports that provide information and analysis on the current and future trends, developments, and challenges in the threat landscape, such as cyberattacks, natural disasters, geopolitical conflicts, or pandemics. Annual threat reports can help to identify and assess the emerging risk, as they can provide insights into the sources, drivers, indicators, and scenarios of the emerging risk, as well as the potential impact and likelihood of the emerging risk. Annual threat reports can also help to benchmark and compare the organization’s risk exposure and preparedness with the industry and the peers, and to prioritize and respond to the emerging risk. Audit reports, industry benchmarks, and financial forecasts are not as useful as annual threat reports, as they do not focus on the emerging risk, and may not capture the latest or future changes in the threat landscape. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
What is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Options:
To determine the likelihood and impact of threats to business operations
To identify important business processes in the organization
To estimate resource requirements for related business processes
To evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption
Answer:
DExplanation:
The primary purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA) is to evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption. A BIA is a process that identifies and analyzes the potential effects of various types of disruptions on the enterprise’s critical business functions and processes. A BIA helps to determine the recovery objectives, such as the recovery time objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO), for each business operation, based on the impact of disruption on the enterprise’s objectives, reputation, compliance, and stakeholders. A BIA also helps to identify the dependencies, resources, and interdependencies of the business operations, and to rank them according to their importance and urgency. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 671
A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Options:
Escalate the concern to senior management.
Document the reasons for the exception.
Include the application in IT risk assessments.
Propose that the application be transferred to IT.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best course of action when a risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT is to include the application in IT risk assessments. IT risk assessments are the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the IT-related risks that could affect the achievement of the enterprise’s objectives. By including the application in IT risk assessments, the risk practitioner can identify the potential threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts associated with the application, and recommend the appropriate controls and mitigation strategies to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. Escalating the concern to senior management, documenting the reasons for the exception, and proposing that the application be transferred to IT are not the best courses of action, as they do not address the risk exposure and impact of the application, and may not be feasible or desirable for the business. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 47.
Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?
Options:
A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.
Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.
Redundant compensating controls are in place.
Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The issue of greatest concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment is the presence of successive assessments with the same recurring vulnerabilities. This indicates that the controls are ineffective or inadequate in addressing the identified risks, and that the risk management process is not functioning properly. Recurring vulnerabilities expose the enterprise to potential losses, breaches, or incidents that could harm its objectives, reputation, or compliance. Therefore, it is essential to identify the root causes of the recurring vulnerabilities, implement corrective actions, and monitor the effectiveness of the controls on a regular basis. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2, page 183.
The PRIMARY objective of a risk identification process is to:
Options:
evaluate how risk conditions are managed.
determine threats and vulnerabilities.
estimate anticipated financial impact of risk conditions.
establish risk response options.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The primary objective of a risk identification process is to determine threats and vulnerabilities, which are the sources and causes of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. Threats are any events or circumstances that have the potential to harm or exploit the organization’s assets, such as people, information, systems, processes, or infrastructure1. Vulnerabilities are any weaknesses or gaps in the organization’s capabilities, controls, or defenses that may increase the likelihood or impact of the threats2. By determining threats and vulnerabilities, the organization can:
Identify and document all possible risks, regardless of whether they are internal or external, current or emerging, or positive or negative3.
Understand the nature and characteristics of the risks, such as their sources, causes, consequences, and interrelationships4.
Provide the basis for further risk analysis and evaluation, such as assessing the probability and severity of the risks, and prioritizing the risks according to their significance and urgency5.
References =
Threat - CIO Wiki
Vulnerability - CIO Wiki
Risk Identification - CIO Wiki
Risk Identification and Analysis - The National Academies Press
Risk Analysis - CIO Wiki
Which of the following controls are BEST strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics?
Options:
Detective controls
Administrative controls
Technical controls
Preventive controls
Answer:
BExplanation:
Administrative controls are the best controls to be strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics, because they are the policies, procedures, standards, and guidelines that define the expected behavior and conduct of the employees and management. A code of ethics is an example of an administrative control that sets the ethical principles and values of the organization and helps to prevent or deter unethical or illegal actions. The other options are not the best controls to be strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics, because they are not directly related to the ethical culture or governance of the organization. Detective controls are the controls that monitor and report the occurrence of unwanted events or incidents. Technical controls are the controls that use hardware, software, or network devices to protect the information systems and data. Preventive controls are the controls that prevent or avoid the occurrence of unwanted events or incidents. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers