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Isaca CRISC Dumps

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Total 1427 questions

Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is the BEST Key control indicator KCO to monitor the effectiveness of patch management?

Options:

A.

Percentage of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of severs receiving automata patches

C.

Number of unpremeditated vulnerabilities

D.

Number of intrusion attempts

Question 2

An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?

Options:

A.

Number of training sessions completed

B.

Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score

C.

Percentage of attendees versus total staff

D.

Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback

Question 3

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

Question 4

Which of the following is the MOST important technology control to reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally?

Options:

A.

Automated access revocation

B.

Daily transaction reconciliation

C.

Rule-based data analytics

D.

Role-based user access model

Question 5

A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.

B.

Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.

C.

Outsource the process for updating the risk register.

D.

Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.

Question 6

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the misclassification of data?

Options:

A.

inadequate resource allocation

B.

Data disruption

C.

Unauthorized access

D.

Inadequate retention schedules

Question 7

Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Best practices

D.

Desired risk level

Question 8

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Collaborating with IT audit

C.

Conducting vulnerability assessments

D.

Obtaining input from key stakeholders

Question 9

When developing a new risk register, a risk practitioner should focus on which of the following risk management activities?

Options:

A.

Risk management strategy planning

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Risk identification

D.

Risk response planning

Question 10

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

Question 11

An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?

Options:

A.

The balanced scorecard

B.

A cost-benefit analysis

C.

The risk management framework

D, A roadmap of IT strategic planning

Question 12

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?

Options:

A.

Occurrences of specific events

B.

A performance measurement

C.

The risk tolerance level

D.

Risk scenarios

Question 13

Upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

Options:

A.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions

B.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal

C.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance

D.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency

Question 14

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

Options:

A.

updating the risk register

B.

documenting the risk scenarios.

C.

validating the risk scenarios

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

Question 15

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

Options:

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

Question 16

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

Options:

A.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

B.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

C.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

D.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

Question 17

Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk associated with malicious activities performed by database administrators (DBAs)?

Options:

A.

Activity logging and monitoring

B.

Periodic access review

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Awareness training and background checks

Question 18

A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Audit trail review

C.

Multi-factor authentication

D.

Data encryption at rest

Question 19

The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:

Options:

A.

assess effectiveness of different projects.

B.

define the risk assessment methodology.

C.

ensure assets have low residual risk.

D.

account for identified key risk factors.

Question 20

Which of the following represents a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

An identity thief seeking to acquire personal financial data from an organization

B.

Media recognition of an organization's market leadership in its industry

C.

A standard procedure for applying software patches two weeks after release

D.

An employee recently fired for insubordination

Question 21

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

Options:

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

Question 22

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

Question 23

In an organization dependent on data analytics to drive decision-making, which of the following would BEST help to minimize the risk associated with inaccurate data?

Options:

A.

Establishing an intellectual property agreement

B.

Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities

C.

Periodically reviewing big data strategies

D.

Benchmarking to industry best practice

Question 24

Which of the following will BEST support management reporting on risk?

Options:

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Risk policy requirements

C.

A risk register

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 25

Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.

B.

Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

Redundant compensating controls are in place.

D.

Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.

Question 26

When updating the risk register after a risk assessment, which of the following is MOST important to include?

Options:

A.

Historical losses due to past risk events

B.

Cost to reduce the impact and likelihood

C.

Likelihood and impact of the risk scenario

D.

Actor and threat type of the risk scenario

Question 27

A risk manager has determined there is excessive risk with a particular technology. Who is the BEST person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology?

Options:

A.

IT system owner

B.

Chief financial officer

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

Business process owner

Question 28

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

Options:

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

Question 29

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

Question 30

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

Question 31

An organization learns of a new ransomware attack affecting organizations worldwide. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the likelihood of infection from the attack?

Options:

A.

Identify systems that are vulnerable to being exploited by the attack.

B.

Confirm with the antivirus solution vendor whether the next update will detect the attack.

C.

Verify the data backup process and confirm which backups are the most recent ones available.

D.

Obtain approval for funding to purchase a cyber insurance plan.

Question 32

Which of the following BEST enforces access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies?

Options:

A.

Senior management support of cloud adoption strategies

B.

Creation of a cloud access risk management policy

C.

Adoption of a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution

D.

Expansion of security information and event management (SIEM) to cloud services

Question 33

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:

Options:

A.

inconsistencies between security policies and procedures

B.

possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure

C.

leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

unknown threats to undermine existing access controls

Question 34

Which of the following methods is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Not providing capability for employees to work remotely

B.

Outsourcing the IT activities and infrastructure

C.

Enforcing change and configuration management processes

D.

Taking out insurance coverage for IT-related incidents

Question 35

Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Activation of control audits

D.

Acceptable use policies

Question 36

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of a data custodian in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Performing periodic data reviews according to policy

B.

Reporting and escalating data breaches to senior management

C.

Being accountable for control design

D.

Ensuring data is protected according to the classification

Question 37

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

Options:

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department's roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization's information security risk profile

Question 38

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an IT risk awareness program?

Options:

A.

Ensure compliance with the organization's internal policies

B.

Cultivate long-term behavioral change.

C.

Communicate IT risk policy to the participants.

D.

Demonstrate regulatory compliance.

Question 39

When of the following provides the MOST tenable evidence that a business process control is effective?

Options:

A.

Demonstration that the control is operating as designed

B.

A successful walk-through of the associated risk assessment

C.

Management attestation that the control is operating effectively

D.

Automated data indicating that risk has been reduced

Question 40

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

The third party's IT operations manager

B.

The organization's process owner

C.

The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization's risk practitioner

Question 41

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?

Options:

A.

An email from the user accepting the account

B.

Notification from human resources that the account is active

C.

User privileges matching the request form

D.

Formal approval of the account by the user's manager

Question 42

Which of the following BEST indicates that additional or improved controls ate needed m the environment?

Options:

A.

Management, has decreased organisational risk appetite

B.

The risk register and portfolio do not include all risk scenarios

C.

merging risk scenarios have been identified

D.

Risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance

Question 43

An IT department originally planned to outsource the hosting of its data center at an overseas location to reduce operational expenses. After a risk assessment, the department has decided to keep the data center in-house. How should the risk treatment response be reflected in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

Question 44

Which of the following should be done FIRST when information is no longer required to support business objectives?

Options:

A.

Archive the information to a backup database.

B.

Protect the information according to the classification policy.

C.

Assess the information against the retention policy.

D.

Securely and permanently erase the information

Question 45

The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:

Options:

A.

detected incidents.

B.

residual risk.

C.

vulnerabilities.

D.

inherent risk.

Question 46

Which of The following is the MOST comprehensive input to the risk assessment process specific to the effects of system downtime?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP) testing results

B.

Recovery lime objective (RTO)

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

results Recovery point objective (RPO)

Question 47

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Relevance

B.

Annual review

C.

Automation

D.

Management approval

Question 48

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit when enterprise risk management (ERM) provides oversight of IT risk management?

Options:

A.

Aligning IT with short-term and long-term goals of the organization

B.

Ensuring the IT budget and resources focus on risk management

C.

Ensuring senior management's primary focus is on the impact of identified risk

D.

Prioritizing internal departments that provide service to customers

Question 49

A maturity model is MOST useful to an organization when it:

Options:

A.

benchmarks against other organizations

B.

defines a qualitative measure of risk

C.

provides a reference for progress

D.

provides risk metrics.

Question 50

Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?

Options:

A.

A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance

B.

A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies

C.

A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels

D.

A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance

Question 51

Legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by:

Options:

A.

the jurisdiction in which an organization has its principal headquarters

B.

international law and a uniform set of regulations.

C.

the laws and regulations of each individual country

D.

international standard-setting bodies.

Question 52

The PRIMARY reason to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register is to ensure:

Options:

A.

risk is treated appropriately

B.

mitigating actions are prioritized

C.

risk entries are regularly updated

D.

risk exposure is minimized.

Question 53

Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?

Options:

A.

Risk monitoring

B.

Risk mitigation

C.

Risk aggregation

D.

Risk assessment

Question 54

The MOST important reason for implementing change control procedures is to ensure:

Options:

A.

only approved changes are implemented

B.

timely evaluation of change events

C.

an audit trail exists.

D.

that emergency changes are logged.

Question 55

Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control would MOST likely be justified when:

Options:

A.

automation cannot be applied to the control

B.

business benefits exceed the loss exposure.

C.

the end-user license agreement has expired.

D.

the control is difficult to enforce in practice.

Question 56

A business unit is implementing a data analytics platform to enhance its customer relationship management (CRM) system primarily to process data that has been provided by its customers. Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to the organization's reputation?

Options:

A.

Third-party software is used for data analytics.

B.

Data usage exceeds individual consent.

C.

Revenue generated is not disclosed to customers.

D.

Use of a data analytics system is not disclosed to customers.

Question 57

Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of unpatched IT assets

B.

Percentage of IT assets without ownership

C.

The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year

D.

The number of IT assets procured during the previous month

Question 58

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a ewe Business process. which of the following should be done FRST10 ensure continuity of operations?

Options:

A.

a identity conditions that may cause disruptions

B.

Review incident response procedures

C.

Evaluate the probability of risk events

D.

Define metrics for restoring availability

Question 59

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

Options:

A.

Informed consent

B.

Cross border controls

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Data breach protection

Question 60

Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to change the likelihood rating in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Control cost

C.

Control effectiveness

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 61

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

Question 62

An application runs a scheduled job that compiles financial data from multiple business systems and updates the financial reporting system. If this job runs too long, it can delay financial reporting. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Implement database activity and capacity monitoring.

B.

Ensure the business is aware of the risk.

C.

Ensure the enterprise has a process to detect such situations.

D.

Consider providing additional system resources to this job.

Question 63

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Key audit findings

B.

Treatment plan status

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Risk scenario results

Question 64

Winch of the following is the BEST evidence of an effective risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

The inherent risk is below the asset residual risk.

B.

Remediation cost is below the asset business value

C.

The risk tolerance threshold s above the asset residual

D.

Remediation is completed within the asset recovery time objective (RTO)

Question 65

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for risk related to IT infrastructure failure?

Options:

A.

Number of times the recovery plan is reviewed

B.

Number of successful recovery plan tests

C.

Percentage of systems with outdated virus protection

D.

Percentage of employees who can work remotely

Question 66

Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?

Options:

A.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B.

IT system criticality classification

C.

Incident management service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

Question 67

Of the following, who is accountable for ensuing the effectiveness of a control to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk manager

C.

Control operator

D.

Risk treatment owner

Question 68

From a risk management perspective, the PRIMARY objective of using maturity models is to enable:

Options:

A.

solution delivery.

B.

resource utilization.

C.

strategic alignment.

D.

performance evaluation.

Question 69

Which type of indicators should be developed to measure the effectiveness of an organization's firewall rule set?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key management indicators (KMIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

Question 70

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to senior management when the results of a risk and control assessment indicate a risk scenario can only be partially mitigated?

Options:

A.

Implement controls to bring the risk to a level within appetite and accept the residual risk.

B.

Implement a key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the existing control performance.

C.

Accept the residual risk in its entirety and obtain executive management approval.

D.

Separate the risk into multiple components and avoid the risk components that cannot be mitigated.

Question 71

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system?

Options:

A.

Conduct an abbreviated version of the assessment.

B.

Report the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation.

C.

Perform the assessment as it would normally be done.

D.

Recommend an internal auditor perform the review.

Question 72

Winch of the following key control indicators (KCIs) BEST indicates whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project He cycle?

Options:

A.

Number of projects going live without a security review

B.

Number of employees completing project-specific security training

C.

Number of security projects started in core departments

D.

Number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers

Question 73

An organizations chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack. In this situation, the risk practitioner's BEST course of action is to:

Options:

A.

identify key risk indicators (KRls) for ongoing monitoring

B.

validate the CTO's decision with the business process owner

C.

update the risk register with the selected risk response

D.

recommend that the CTO revisit the risk acceptance decision.

Question 74

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with redundant data in an organization's inventory system?

Options:

A.

Poor access control

B.

Unnecessary data storage usage

C.

Data inconsistency

D.

Unnecessary costs of program changes

Question 75

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?

Options:

A.

Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios

B.

Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution

C.

Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans

D.

Prioritization for implementing the action plans

Question 76

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.

B.

Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.

C.

Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.

D.

Implement controls to prevent future risk events.

Question 77

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

Options:

A.

Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B.

Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C.

Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D.

Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

Question 78

Participants in a risk workshop have become focused on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this type of issue in the long term?

Options:

A.

Perform a return on investment analysis.

B.

Review the risk register and risk scenarios.

C.

Calculate annualized loss expectancy of risk scenarios.

D.

Raise the maturity of organizational risk management.

Question 79

Who should be PRIMARILY responsible for establishing an organization's IT risk culture?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Executive management

C.

Risk management

D.

IT management

Question 80

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner'$ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

Options:

A.

Manage cyber risk according to the organization's risk management framework.

B.

Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

C.

Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

D.

Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

Question 81

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization's user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:

Options:

A.

accounts without documented approval

B.

user accounts with default passwords

C.

active accounts belonging to former personnel

D.

accounts with dormant activity.

Question 82

Who should have the authority to approve an exception to a control?

Options:

A.

information security manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Risk owner

D.

Risk manager

Question 83

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to integrate risk and compliance management?

Options:

A.

Embedding risk management into compliance decision-making

B.

Designing corrective actions to improve risk response capabilities

C.

Embedding risk management into processes that are aligned with business drivers

D.

Conducting regular self-assessments to verify compliance

Question 84

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?

Options:

A.

Service level agreements (SLA)

B.

Vendor references

C.

Benchmarking data

D.

Accountability matrix

Question 85

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an antivirus program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

B.

Number of false positives defected over a period of time

C.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

D.

Frequency of anti-vinjs software updates

Question 86

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when ensuring that mitigated risk remains within acceptable limits?

Options:

A.

Building an organizational risk profile after updating the risk register

B.

Ensuring risk owners participate in a periodic control testing process

C.

Designing a process for risk owners to periodically review identified risk

D.

Implementing a process for ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness

Question 87

Which of the following BEST indicates whether security awareness training is effective?

Options:

A.

User self-assessment

B.

User behavior after training

C.

Course evaluation

D.

Quality of training materials

Question 88

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?

Options:

A.

Ongoing availability of data

B.

Ability to aggregate data

C.

Ability to predict trends

D.

Availability of automated reporting systems

Question 89

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?

Options:

A.

To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization

B.

To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations

C.

To optimize risk management resources across the organization

D.

To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization

Question 90

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

Question 91

Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:

Options:

A.

take necessary precautions for claims and losses.

B.

achieve acceptable residual risk levels.

C.

avoid risk for business and IT assets.

D.

achieve compliance with legal requirements.

Question 92

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?

Options:

A.

Benchmark of industry standards

B.

Internal and external risk reports

C.

Recommendations from IT risk experts

D.

Outcome of control self-assessments

Question 93

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?

Options:

A.

User provisioning

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Security log monitoring

D.

Entitlement reviews

Question 94

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

Question 95

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?

Options:

A.

impact due to failure of control

B.

Frequency of failure of control

C.

Contingency plan for residual risk

D.

Cost-benefit analysis of automation

Question 96

Calculation of the recovery time objective (RTO) is necessary to determine the:

Options:

A.

time required to restore files.

B.

point of synchronization

C.

priority of restoration.

D.

annual loss expectancy (ALE).

Question 97

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

Question 98

From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

Options:

A.

The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

B.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.

C.

All business-critical systems are successfully tested.

D.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).

Question 99

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

Options:

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

Question 100

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

B.

Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

C.

Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D.

Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

Question 101

Which of the following would BEST ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the implementation of the risk response

B.

Creating a separate risk register for key business units

C.

Performing real-time monitoring of threats

D.

Performing regular risk control self-assessments

Question 102

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

Question 103

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to reduce risk impact?

Options:

A.

Create an IT security policy.

B.

Implement corrective measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Leverage existing technology

Question 104

During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?

Options:

A.

Data validation

B.

Identification

C.

Authentication

D.

Data integrity

Question 105

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization's risk taxonomy?

Options:

A.

Leading industry frameworks

B.

Business context

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

IT strategy

Question 106

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

Options:

A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

Question 107

An application owner has specified the acceptable downtime in the event of an incident to be much lower than the actual time required for the response team to recover the application. Which of the following should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Invoke the disaster recovery plan during an incident.

B.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available

C.

Implement redundant infrastructure for the application.

D.

Reduce the recovery time by strengthening the response team.

Question 108

An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement

B.

Customer service reviews

C.

Scope of services provided

D.

Right to audit the provider

Question 109

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

Options:

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

Question 110

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

Question 111

Which of the following is the BEST method to identify unnecessary controls?

Options:

A.

Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls

B.

Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements

C.

Reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes

D.

Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 112

When using a third party to perform penetration testing, which of the following is the MOST important control to minimize operational impact?

Options:

A.

Perform a background check on the vendor.

B.

Require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Require the vendor to have liability insurance.

D.

Clearly define the project scope

Question 113

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

Question 114

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective way to test a business continuity plan?

Options:

A.

Conduct interviews with key stakeholders.

B.

Conduct a tabletop exercise.

C.

Conduct a disaster recovery exercise.

D.

Conduct a full functional exercise.

Question 115

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?

Options:

A.

Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance

B.

Prioritization of risk action plans across departments

C.

Early detection of emerging threats

D.

Accurate measurement of loss impact

Question 116

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

Options:

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

Question 117

A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

The network security policy

B.

Potential business impact

C.

The WiFi access point configuration

D.

Planned remediation actions

Question 118

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

Question 119

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

Options:

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

Question 120

A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk impact

Question 121

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

Question 122

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

Question 123

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

Options:

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

Question 124

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

Options:

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

Question 125

Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Directive

C.

Detective

D.

Compensating

Question 126

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

Options:

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

Question 127

Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?

Options:

A.

Perform an m-depth code review with an expert

B.

Validate functionality by running in a test environment

C.

Implement a service level agreement.

D.

Utilize the change management process.

Question 128

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

Options:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

Question 129

A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i< the MOST important topic to cover in this training?

Options:

A.

Applying risk appetite

B.

Applying risk factors

C.

Referencing risk event data

D.

Understanding risk culture

Question 130

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

Options:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

Question 131

Which of the following BEST describes the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions?

Options:

A.

It compares performance levels of IT assets to value delivered.

B.

It facilitates the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives.

C.

It provides input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects.

D.

It helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure

Question 132

Malware has recently affected an organization. The MOST effective way to resolve this situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform:

Options:

A.

a gap analysis

B.

a root cause analysis.

C.

an impact assessment.

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

Question 133

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

Options:

A.

Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

B.

Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

C.

Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

D.

Testing the DLP rule change control process

Question 134

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?

Options:

A.

The number of security incidents escalated to senior management

B.

The number of resolved security incidents

C.

The number of newly identified security incidents

D.

The number of recurring security incidents

Question 135

Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?

Options:

A.

Risk self-assessment

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk map

Question 136

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

Options:

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

Question 137

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Risk appetite

Question 138

Which of the following would BEST help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats?

Options:

A.

Enforcing employees’ sanctions

B.

Conducting phishing exercises

C.

Enforcing segregation of dunes

D.

Reviewing the organization's risk appetite

Question 139

Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security management function

C.

IT management

D.

Enterprise risk function

Question 140

During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?

Options:

A.

Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk.

B.

Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk.

C.

Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes.

D.

Educate business executives on IT risk concepts.

Question 141

The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact

B.

the magnitude of an impact

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat

Question 142

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

Question 143

A global organization is considering the acquisition of a competitor. Senior management has requested a review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization. Which of the following components of this review would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite statement

B.

Enterprise risk management framework

C.

Risk management policies

D.

Risk register

Question 144

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Identify the potential risk.

B.

Monitor employee usage.

C.

Assess the potential risk.

D.

Develop risk awareness training.

Question 145

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

Options:

A.

The team that performed the risk assessment

B.

An assigned risk manager to provide oversight

C.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

D.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

Question 146

Which of the following will BEST mitigate the risk associated with IT and business misalignment?

Options:

A.

Establishing business key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Introducing an established framework for IT architecture

C.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Involving the business process owner in IT strategy

Question 147

Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk likelihood and impact

D.

Risk velocity

Question 148

A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.

B.

identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.

C.

modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.

D.

collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.

Question 149

Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

Cost of offsite backup premises

B.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

C.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan

D.

Response time of the emergency action plan

Question 150

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization's secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

Options:

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

Question 151

Risk mitigation procedures should include:

Options:

A.

buying an insurance policy.

B.

acceptance of exposures

C.

deployment of counter measures.

D.

enterprise architecture implementation.

Question 152

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register?

Options:

A.

Aligning risk ownership and control ownership

B.

Developing risk escalation and reporting procedures

C.

Maintaining up-to-date risk treatment plans

D.

Using a consistent method for risk assessment

Question 153

A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?

Options:

A.

Business continuity manager (BCM)

B.

Human resources manager (HRM)

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

Question 154

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk response plans are documented

B.

Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.

C.

Key risk indicators are defined.

D.

Risk ownership is assigned

Question 155

The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:

Options:

A.

gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization

B.

gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization

C.

adjust the controls prior to an external audit

D.

reduce the dependency on external audits

Question 156

A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

invoke the established incident response plan.

B.

Inform internal audit.

C.

Perform a root cause analysis

D.

Conduct an immediate risk assessment

Question 157

Which of the following will BEST quantify the risk associated with malicious users in an organization?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Threat risk assessment

D.

Vulnerability assessment

Question 158

Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:

Options:

A.

requirements of management.

B.

specific risk analysis framework being used.

C.

organizational risk tolerance

D.

results of the risk assessment.

Question 159

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.

B.

New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.

C.

The risk environment is subject to change.

D.

The information security budget must be justified.

Question 160

Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.

B.

Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.

C.

Gather scenarios from senior management.

D.

Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.

Question 161

The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Perform a root cause analysis

B.

Perform a code review

C.

Implement version control software.

D.

Implement training on coding best practices

Question 162

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure is MOST likely an example of:

Options:

A.

low risk tolerance.

B.

corporate culture misalignment.

C.

corporate culture alignment.

D.

high risk tolerance

Question 163

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

Question 164

Which of the following helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions?

Options:

A.

Digital signatures

B.

Encrypted passwords

C.

One-time passwords

D.

Digital certificates

Question 165

Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:

Options:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

residual risk.

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk tolerance

Question 166

Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?

Options:

A.

Encrypted storage of data

B.

Links to source data

C.

Audit trails for updates and deletions

D.

Check totals on data records and data fields

Question 167

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

Options:

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

Question 168

Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability and threat analysis

B.

Control remediation planning

C.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

Question 169

In an organization with a mature risk management program, which of the following would provide the BEST evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date?

Options:

A.

Risk questionnaire

B.

Risk register

C.

Management assertion

D.

Compliance manual

Question 170

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

Options:

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

Question 171

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization's risk appetite.

Question 172

Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

A control self-assessment

B.

A third-party security assessment report

C.

Internal audit reports from the vendor

D.

Service level agreement monitoring

Question 173

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

Options:

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 174

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

Options:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

Question 175

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department's recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

Question 176

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?

Options:

A.

Complexity of the IT infrastructure

B.

Value of information assets

C.

Management culture

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

Question 177

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

Options:

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

Question 178

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

Options:

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

Question 179

Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Human resources (HR)

C.

Risk management committee

D.

Audit committee

Question 180

A risk assessment has revealed that the probability of a successful cybersecurity attack is increasing. The potential loss could exceed the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following ould be the MOST effective course of action?

Options:

A.

Re-evaluate the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Outsource the cybersecurity function.

C.

Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

D.

Review cybersecurity incident response procedures.

Question 181

When outsourcing a business process to a cloud service provider, it is MOST important to understand that:

Options:

A.

insurance could be acquired for the risk associated with the outsourced process.

B.

service accountability remains with the cloud service provider.

C.

a risk owner must be designated within the cloud service provider.

D.

accountability for the risk will remain with the organization.

Question 182

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when reviewing an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk ownership is recorded.

B.

Vulnerabilities have separate entries.

C.

Control ownership is recorded.

D.

Residual risk is less than inherent risk.

Question 183

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions

B.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

C.

A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

Question 184

Which of the following is the BEST method to track asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Periodic asset review by management

B.

Asset registration form

C.

Automated asset management software

D.

IT resource budgeting process

Question 185

Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization's cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization's systems from cyberattacks.

B.

The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.

C.

The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.

D.

The policy has not been approved by the organization's board.

Question 186

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

B.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment

Question 187

A migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing. Which part of the risk register should be updated FIRST?

Options:

A.

Payroll system risk factors

B.

Payroll system risk mitigation plans

C.

Payroll process owner

D.

Payroll administrative controls

Question 188

Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result of the decrease in risk appetite due to a new privacy regulation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Risk trends

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk objectives

Question 189

Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?

Options:

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Control implementer

Question 190

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder preferences

B.

Contractual requirements

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Management assertions

Question 191

The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:

Options:

A.

the risk register change log.

B.

evidence of risk acceptance.

C.

control effectiveness test results.

D.

control design documentation.

Question 192

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason an organization would engage an independent reviewer to assess its IT risk management program?

Options:

A.

To ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating emerging risk

B.

To confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed in quantitative terms

C.

To evaluate threats to the organization's operations and strategy

D.

To identify gaps in the alignment of IT risk management processes and strategy

Question 193

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?

Options:

A.

Proportion of end users having more than one account

B.

Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts

D.

Percentage of accounts that have not been activated

Question 194

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST to support the implementation of governance around organizational assets within an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed risk profile.

B.

Hire experienced and knowledgeable resources.

C.

Schedule internal audits across the business.

D.

Conduct risk assessments across the business.

Question 195

Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?

Options:

A.

Regional competitors' policies and standards

B.

Ability to monitor and enforce compliance

C.

Industry-standard templates

D.

Differences in regulatory requirements

Question 196

The percentage of unpatched systems is a:

Options:

A.

threat vector.

B.

critical success factor (CSF).

C.

key performance indicator (KPI).

D.

key risk indicator (KRI).

Question 197

If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

Question 198

During the creation of an organization's IT risk management program, the BEST time to identify key risk indicators (KRIs) is while:

Options:

A.

interviewing data owners.

B.

reviewing risk response plans with internal audit.

C.

developing a risk monitoring process.

D.

reviewing an external risk assessment.

Question 199

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for prioritizing risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Cost of risk mitigation

B.

Asset criticality

C.

Acceptable risk level

D.

Business impact assessment

Question 200

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

It maintains evidence of compliance with risk policy.

B.

It facilitates timely risk-based decisions.

C.

It validates the organization's risk appetite.

D.

It helps to mitigate internal and external risk factors.

Question 201

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise's current appetite for risk?

Options:

A.

Comparative analysis of peer companies

B.

Reviews of brokerage firm assessments

C.

Interviews with senior management

D.

Trend analysis using prior annual reports

Question 202

Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.

B.

Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.

C.

Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.

D.

Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.

Question 203

A business impact analysis (BIA) enables an organization to determine appropriate IT risk mitigation actions by:

Options:

A.

validating whether critical IT risk has been addressed.

B.

assigning accountability for IT risk to business functions.

C.

identifying IT assets that support key business processes.

D.

defining the requirements for an IT risk-aware culture

Question 204

Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

Options:

A.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

B.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

C.

Updating remote desktop software

D.

Implementing multi-factor authentication

Question 205

Which of the following BEST indicates the effective implementation of a risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level.

B.

Residual risk is managed within appetite and tolerance.

C.

Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers.

D.

Key controls are identified and documented.

Question 206

An organization's stakeholders are unable to agree on appropriate risk responses. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Identify a risk transfer option.

C.

Reassess risk scenarios.

D.

Benchmark with similar industries.

Question 207

After conducting a risk assessment for regulatory compliance, an organization has identified only one possible mitigating control. The cost of the control has been determined to be higher than the penalty of noncompliance. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk with management sign-off.

B.

Ignore the risk until the regulatory body conducts a compliance check.

C.

Mitigate the risk with the identified control.

D.

Transfer the risk by buying insurance.

Question 208

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control?

Options:

A.

Scope of the control coverage

B.

The number of exceptions granted

C.

Number of steps necessary to operate process

D.

Number of control deviations detected

Question 209

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?

Options:

A.

It contains vulnerabilities and threats.

B.

The risk methodology is intellectual property.

C.

Contents may be used as auditable findings.

D.

Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.

Question 210

Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Reviewing password change history

B.

Performing periodic access recertification

C.

Conducting social engineering exercises

D.

Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys

Question 211

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

C.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

D.

inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.

Question 212

When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Materiality

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Maturity

D.

Transparency

Question 213

Which of the following activities is a responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Challenging risk decision making

B.

Developing controls to manage risk scenarios

C.

Implementing risk response plans

D.

Establishing organizational risk appetite

Question 214

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE goal of conducting a privacy impact analysis (PIA)?

Options:

A.

To identify gaps in data protection controls

B.

To develop a customer notification plan

C.

To identify personally identifiable information (Pll)

D.

To determine gaps in data identification processes

Question 215

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Transfer the risk.

C.

Implement monitoring controls.

D.

Recalculate the risk.

Question 216

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Threat event

B.

Vulnerability event

C.

Technical event

D.

Loss event

Question 217

A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization's use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a gap analysis.

B.

Terminate the outsourcing agreement.

C.

Identify compensating controls.

D.

Transfer risk to the third party.

Question 218

Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?

Options:

A.

Avoidance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Acceptance

Question 219

During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Report the infraction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Conduct risk awareness training.

D.

Discontinue the process.

Question 220

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk associated with inadvertent data leakage by users who work remotely?

Options:

A.

Conducting training on the protection of organizational assets

B.

Configuring devices to use virtual IP addresses

C.

Ensuring patching for end-user devices

D.

Providing encrypted access to organizational assets

Question 221

A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Redesign the process.

D.

Re-evaluate the existing control design.

Question 222

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input to determine risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Organizational objectives

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk management costs

Question 223

An organization has established workflows in its service desk to support employee reports of security-related concerns. Which of the following is the MOST efficient approach to analyze these concerns?

Options:

A.

Map concerns to organizational assets.

B.

Sort concerns by likelihood.

C.

Align concerns to key vendors.

D.

Prioritize concerns based on frequency of reports.

Question 224

An organization recently implemented a cybersecurity awareness program that includes phishing simulation exercises for all employees. What type of control is being utilized?

Options:

Question 225

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Limit access to senior management only.

B.

Encrypt the risk register.

C.

Implement role-based access.

D.

Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.

Question 226

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk treatment plan cannot be completed on time?

Options:

A.

Replace the action owner with a more experienced individual.

B.

Implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed.

C.

Change the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance.

D.

Develop additional key risk indicators (KRIs) until the preferred action can be completed.

Question 227

Within the three lines of defense model, the PRIMARY responsibility for ensuring risk mitigation controls are properly configured belongs with:

Options:

A.

line management.

B.

the IT risk function.

C.

enterprise compliance.

D.

internal audit.

Question 228

Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in

to implement additional IT controls?

Options:

A.

List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.

B.

Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.

C.

Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.

D.

Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.

Question 229

Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?

Options:

A.

Transaction log monitoring

B.

Whistleblower program

C.

Access control attestation

D.

Periodic job rotation

Question 230

A risk assessment has been completed on an application and reported to the application owner. The report includes validated vulnerability findings that require mitigation. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Report the findings to executive management to enable treatment decisions.

B.

Reassess each vulnerability to evaluate the risk profile of the application.

C.

Conduct a penetration test to determine how to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

D.

Prepare a risk response that is aligned to the organization's risk tolerance.

Question 231

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program?

Options:

A.

To define effective enterprise IT risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives

C.

To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures

D.

To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts

Question 232

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

Options:

A.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

B.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

C.

Date and status of the last project milestone

D.

The individuals assigned ownership of controls

Question 233

An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

Question 234

Which of the following should be the starting point when performing a risk analysis for an asset?

Options:

A.

Assess risk scenarios.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Evaluate threats.

D.

Assess controls.

Question 235

A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reassess the risk profile.

B.

Modify the risk taxonomy.

C.

Increase the risk tolerance.

D.

Review the risk culture.

Question 236

Which of the following is a PRIMARY reason for considering existing controls during initial risk assessment?

Options:

A.

To determine the inherent risk level

B.

To determine the acceptable risk level

C.

To determine the current risk level

D.

To determine the desired risk level

Question 237

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

Question 238

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

Options:

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

Question 239

An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?

Options:

A.

Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.

D.

Review the incident response plan.

Question 240

An organization has built up its cash reserves and has now become financially able to support additional risk while meeting its objectives. What is this change MOST likely to impact?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk capacity

C.

Risk indicators

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 241

Which of the following is MOST important to determine as a result of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Process ownership

B.

Risk appetite statement

C.

Risk tolerance levels

D.

Risk response options

Question 242

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to engage business unit managers in risk management processes'?

Options:

A.

Improved alignment will technical risk

B.

Better-informed business decisions

C.

Enhanced understanding of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Improved business operations efficiency

Question 243

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?

Options:

A.

Making data available to a larger audience of customers

B.

Data not being disposed according to the retention policy

C.

Personal data not being de-identified properly

D.

Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into

Question 244

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation when a key risk indicator (KRI) is generating an excessive volume of events?

Options:

A.

Reevaluate the design of the KRIs.

B.

Develop a corresponding key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Monitor KRIs within a specific timeframe.

D.

Activate the incident response plan.

Question 245

Senior management has requested more information regarding the risk associated with introducing a new application into the environment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform an audit.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Develop risk scenarios.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

Question 246

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Remove the associated risk from the register.

B.

Validate control effectiveness and update the risk register.

C.

Review the contract and service level agreements (SLAs).

D.

Obtain an assurance report from the third-party provider.

Question 247

Which of the following situations would BEST justify escalation to senior management?

Options:

A.

Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits.

B.

Residual risk is inadequately recorded.

C.

Residual risk remains after controls have been applied.

D.

Residual risk equals current risk.

Question 248

When classifying and prioritizing risk responses, the areas to address FIRST are those with:

Options:

A.

low cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

B.

high cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

C.

high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

D.

low cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

Question 249

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to continuously monitor a critical security transformation program?

Options:

A.

To validate the quality of defined deliverables for the program

B.

To detect increases in program costs

C.

To ensure program risk events are mitigated in a timely manner

D.

To provide timely reporting to the governance steering committee

Question 250

An organization uses a web application hosted by a cloud service that is populated by data sent to the vendor via email on a monthly basis. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when analyzing the risk associated with the application?

Options:

A.

Whether the service provider's data center is located in the same country

B.

Whether the data sent by email has been encrypted

C.

Whether the data has been appropriately classified

D.

Whether the service provider contract allows right of onsite audit

Question 251

Which of the following provides the MOST useful input to the development of realistic risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk map

D.

Risk events

Question 252

Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?

Options:

A.

Solutions for eradicating emerging threats

B.

Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats

C.

Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)

D.

Source and identity of attackers

Question 253

An organization allows programmers to change production systems in emergency situations. Which of the following is the BEST control?

Options:

A.

Implementing an emergency change authorization process

B.

Periodically reviewing operator logs

C.

Limiting the number of super users

D.

Reviewing the programmers' emergency change reports

Question 254

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern upon learning of failures in a data migration activity?

Options:

A.

Availability of test data

B.

Integrity of data

C.

Cost overruns

D.

System performance

Question 255

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses?

Options:

A.

Incident reports

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Control objectives

Question 256

A large organization recently restructured the IT department and has decided to outsource certain functions. What action should the control owners in the IT department take?

Options:

A.

Conduct risk classification for associated IT controls.

B.

Determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk.

C.

Perform vulnerability and threat assessments.

D.

Analyze and update IT control assessments.

Question 257

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

Options:

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

Question 258

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Scheduling periodic audits

B.

Assigning a data custodian

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

Question 259

Which of the following risk impacts should be the PRIMARY consideration for determining recovery priorities in a disaster recovery situation?

Options:

A.

Data security

B.

Recovery costs

C.

Business disruption

D.

Recovery resource availability

Question 260

Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?

Options:

A.

Industry trends in Al

B.

Expected algorithm outputs

C.

Data feeds

D.

Alert functionality

Question 261

During a risk assessment, a risk practitioner learns that an IT risk factor is adequately mitigated by compensating controls in an associated business process. Which of the following would enable the MOST effective management of the residual risk?

Options:

A.

Schedule periodic reviews of the compensating controls' effectiveness.

B.

Report the use of compensating controls to senior management.

C.

Recommend additional IT controls to further reduce residual risk.

D.

Request that ownership of the compensating controls is reassigned to IT

Question 262

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform based on the value added by the platform and the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct third-party resilience tests.

B.

Review risk related to standards and regulations.

C.

Update the risk register with the process changes.

D.

Conduct a risk assessment with stakeholders.

Question 263

An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor

adherence to the 15-day threshold?

Options:

A.

Operation level agreement (OLA)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

Question 264

Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?

Options:

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Log analysis

C.

Security control reviews

D.

Random sampling checks

Question 265

Which of the following proposed benefits is MOST likely to influence senior management approval to reallocate budget for a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Reduction in the number of incidents

B.

Reduction in inherent risk

C.

Reduction in residual risk

D.

Reduction in the number of known vulnerabilities

Question 266

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to track the development team's deliverables.

B.

Review the software development life cycle.

C.

Involve the development team in planning.

D.

Assign more developers to the project team.

Question 267

Which of the following activities should only be performed by the third line of defense?

Options:

A.

Operating controls for risk mitigation

B.

Testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls

C.

Providing assurance on risk management processes

D.

Recommending risk treatment options

Question 268

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?

Options:

A.

Perform a business case analysis

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)

D.

Build a provision for risk

Question 269

Business management is seeking assurance from the CIO that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues that could impact the delivery of a new application Which of the following is the BEST way to increase the chances of a successful delivery'?

Options:

A.

Implement a release and deployment plan

B.

Conduct comprehensive regression testing.

C.

Develop enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRls)

D.

Include business management on a weekly risk and issues report

Question 270

An organization has completed a risk assessment of one of its service providers. Who should be accountable for ensuring that risk responses are implemented?

Options:

A.

IT risk practitioner

B.

Third -partf3ecurity team

C.

The relationship owner

D.

Legal representation of the business

Question 271

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

Question 272

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?

Options:

A.

Ongoing training

B.

Timely notification

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Cost minimization

Question 273

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of centralizing IT systems?

Options:

A.

Risk reporting

B.

Risk classification

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification

Question 274

Who should be responsible (of evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been

Options:

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Risk practitioner

Question 275

Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?

Options:

A.

Prioritize risk response options

B.

Reduce likelihood.

C.

Address more than one risk response

D.

Reduce impact

Question 276

Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

Some critical business applications are not included in the plan

B.

Several recovery activities will be outsourced

C.

The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework

D.

The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan

Question 277

Which of the following is MOST important for mitigating ethical risk when establishing accountability for control ownership?

Options:

A.

Ensuring processes are documented to enable effective control execution

B.

Ensuring regular risk messaging is Included in business communications from leadership

C.

Ensuring schedules and deadlines for control-related deliverables are strictly monitored

D.

Ensuring performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite

Question 278

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

Options:

A.

Use production data in a non-production environment

B.

Use masked data in a non-production environment

C.

Use test data in a production environment

D.

Use anonymized data in a non-production environment

Question 279

Which key performance efficiency IKPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Number of service level agreement (SLA) violations

B.

Percentage of recovery issues identified during the exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within tie recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within tie recovery time objective (RTO)

Question 280

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

A risk and control self-assessment

B.

Senior management's attestation

C.

A system-generated testing report

D.

detailed process walk-through

Question 281

Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Apply data classification policy

B.

Utilize encryption with logical access controls

C.

Require logical separation of company data

D.

Obtain the right to audit

Question 282

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization

D.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

Question 283

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

Options:

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

Question 284

A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….

event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

Options:

A.

The difference In the management practices between each company

B.

The cloud computing environment is shared with another company

C.

The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract

D.

The organizational culture differences between each country

Question 285

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when updating the likelihood rating in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk control assessment

B.

Audit reports with risk ratings

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 286

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

Question 287

During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company's risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?

Options:

A.

Risk management framework adopted by each company

B.

Risk registers of both companies

C.

IT balanced scorecard of each company

D.

Most recent internal audit findings from both companies

Question 288

To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Operational strategies

B.

Risk governance

C.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk appetite

Question 289

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRis) is that (hey

Options:

A.

identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds

B.

assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds

C.

identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite

D.

help with internal control assessments concerning risk appellate

Question 290

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

Options:

A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization's risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

Question 291

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

Question 292

Which of the following is the MOST important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization?

Options:

A.

Obtain necessary resources to address regulatory requirements

B.

Develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements

C.

Perform a gap analysis against regulatory requirements.

D.

Employ IT solutions that meet regulatory requirements.

Question 293

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

Question 294

Which of the following BEST reduces the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information?

Options:

A.

Cable lock

B.

Data encryption

C.

Periodic backup

D.

Biometrics access control

Question 295

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?

Options:

A.

Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

A mapping of resources to business processes

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 296

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

Options:

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

Question 297

An organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register. Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries?

Options:

A.

The volume of risk scenarios is too large

B.

Risk aggregation has not been completed

C.

Risk scenarios are not applicable

D.

The risk analysts for each scenario is incomplete

Question 298

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register?

Options:

A.

An IT owner is assigned for each risk scenario.

B.

The register is updated frequently.

C.

The register is shared with executive management.

D.

Compensating controls are identified.

Question 299

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

Question 300

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?

Options:

A.

The cost associated with incident response activities

The composition and number of records in the information asset

B.

The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines

C.

The length of time between identification and containment of the incident

Question 301

Which of the following is MOST important to update when an organization's risk appetite changes?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk reporting methodology

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk taxonomy

Question 302

If preventive controls cannot be Implemented due to technology limitations, which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce risk7

Options:

A.

Evaluate alternative controls.

B.

Redefine the business process to reduce the risk.

C.

Develop a plan to upgrade technology.

D.

Define a process for monitoring risk.

Question 303

Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Collecting data for IT risk assessment

B.

Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile

C.

Utilizing a balanced scorecard

D.

Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis

Question 304

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

Options:

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

Question 305

An organization wants to grant remote access to a system containing sensitive data to an overseas third party. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to management?

Options:

A.

Transborder data transfer restrictions

B.

Differences in regional standards

C.

Lack of monitoring over vendor activities

D.

Lack of after-hours incident management support

Question 306

Which of the following management action will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

Options:

A.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

B.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

C.

Implementing multi-factor authentication

D.

Updating remote desktop software

Question 307

When is the BEST to identify risk associated with major project to determine a mitigation plan?

Options:

A.

Project execution phase

B.

Project initiation phase

C.

Project closing phase

D.

Project planning phase

Question 308

Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:

Options:

A.

helping personnel make better-informed decisions

B.

assisting the development of a risk register.

C.

improving the effectiveness of IT controls.

D.

increasing participation in the risk assessment process.

Question 309

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

Options:

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

Question 310

When reviewing the business continuity plan (BCP) of an online sales order system, a risk practitioner notices that the recovery time objective (RTO) has a shorter lime than what is defined in the disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Adopt the RTO defined in the BCR

B.

Update the risk register to reflect the discrepancy.

C.

Adopt the RTO defined in the DRP.

D.

Communicate the discrepancy to the DR manager for follow-up.

Question 311

Which organization is implementing a project to automate the purchasing process, including the modification of approval controls. Which of the following tasks is lie responsibility of the risk practitioner*?

Options:

A.

Verify that existing controls continue to properly mitigate defined risk

B.

Test approval process controls once the project is completed

C.

Update the existing controls for changes in approval processes from this project

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the impacted control processes

Question 312

An organization has experienced a cyber-attack that exposed customer personally identifiable information (Pll) and caused extended outages of network services. Which of the following stakeholders are MOST important to include in the cyber response team to determine response actions?

Options:

A.

Security control owners based on control failures

B.

Cyber risk remediation plan owners

C.

Risk owners based on risk impact

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) team

Question 313

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Reject the risk acceptance and require mitigating controls.

B.

Monitor the residual risk level of the accepted risk.

C.

Escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review.

D.

Document the risk decision in the project risk register.

Question 314

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

Options:

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

Question 315

An organization has recently hired a large number of part-time employees. During the annual audit, it was discovered that many user IDs and passwords were documented in procedure manuals for use by the part-time employees. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Policy violation

Question 316

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Verifying that project objectives are met

B.

Identifying project cost overruns

C.

Leveraging an independent review team

D.

Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix

Question 317

Which of the following, who should be PRIMARILY responsible for performing user entitlement reviews?

Options:

A.

IT security manager

B.

IT personnel

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

Question 318

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Resource skills matrix

D.

Data quality assurance plan

Question 319

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

Options:

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

Question 320

An organization has an approved bring your own device (BYOD) policy. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the security risk associated with the inappropriate use of enterprise applications on the devices?

Options:

A.

Periodically review application on BYOD devices

B.

Include BYOD in organizational awareness programs

C.

Implement BYOD mobile device management (MDM) controls.

D.

Enable a remote wee capability for BYOD devices

Question 321

An IT risk threat analysis is BEST used to establish

Options:

A.

risk scenarios

B.

risk maps

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk ownership.

Question 322

Which stakeholder is MOST important to include when defining a risk profile during me selection process for a new third party application'?

Options:

A.

The third-party risk manager

B.

The application vendor

C.

The business process owner

D.

The information security manager

Question 323

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 324

An organization is adopting block chain for a new financial system. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner evaluating the system's production readiness?

Options:

A.

Limited organizational knowledge of the underlying technology

B.

Lack of commercial software support

C.

Varying costs related to implementation and maintenance

D.

Slow adoption of the technology across the financial industry

Question 325

An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.

B.

Resources may be inefficiently allocated.

C.

The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.

D.

Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

Question 326

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization's IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

Question 327

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

Options:

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

Question 328

An information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control Who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly?

Options:

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The risk owner

C.

The control owner

D.

The audit manager

Question 329

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

Options:

A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

Question 330

Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization's key IT applications in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the results of independent audits

B.

Performing a site visit to the cloud provider's data center

C.

Performing a due diligence review

D.

Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders

Question 331

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gam insight into its overall risk profile''

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Threat landscape

D.

Risk metrics

Question 332

Which of the following is MOST helpful to understand the consequences of an IT risk event?

Options:

A.

Fault tree analysis

B.

Historical trend analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 333

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Understanding and prioritization of critical processes

B.

Completion of the business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Identification of regulatory consequences

D.

Reduction of security and business continuity threats

Question 334

Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Regular testing of risk controls

B.

Communication of audit findings

C.

Procedures for security monitoring

D.

Open communication of risk reporting

Question 335

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Implementing a data toss prevention (DLP) solution

B.

Assigning a data owner

C.

Scheduling periodic audits

D.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

Question 336

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

Options:

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

Question 337

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?

Options:

A.

Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions

B.

Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options

C.

Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options

D.

Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.

Question 338

The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is

Options:

A.

maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets

B.

determine their sensitivity and critical

C.

establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

categorize data into groups

Question 339

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

Options:

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

Question 340

Using key risk indicators (KRIs) to illustrate changes in the risk profile PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

communicate risk trends to stakeholders.

B.

assign ownership of emerging risk scenarios.

C.

highlight noncompliance with the risk policy

D.

identify threats to emerging technologies.

Question 341

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

Options:

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

Question 342

Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The program has not decreased threat counts.

B.

The program has not considered business impact.

C.

The program has been significantly revised

D.

The program uses non-customized training modules.

Question 343

Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?

Options:

A.

An alert being reported by the security operations center.

B.

Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response

C.

Completion of a project for implementing a new control

D.

Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan

Question 344

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

Options:

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

Question 345

When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is MOST important to ensure the report includes

Options:

A.

risk exposure in business terms

B.

a detailed view of individual risk exposures

C.

a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization.

D.

recommendations by an independent risk assessor.

Question 346

Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Conducting awareness training

B.

Executing a risk response plan

C.

Establishing an organization's risk tolerance

D.

Performing periodic audits

Question 347

An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?

Options:

A.

Business benefits of shadow IT

B.

Application-related expresses

C.

Classification of the data

D.

Volume of data

Question 348

Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite

. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls

B.

Considering risk that can be shared with a third party

C.

Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios

Question 349

Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis

B.

Control analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Threat analysis

Question 350

An organization has made a decision to purchase a new IT system. During when phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) will identified risk MOST likely lead to architecture and design trade-offs?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Implementation

C.

Initiation

D.

Operation and maintenance

Question 351

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

Question 352

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, which of the following should be done FIRST to ensure continuity of operations?

Options:

A.

Define metrics for restoring availability.

B.

Identify conditions that may cause disruptions.

C.

Review incident response procedures.

D.

Evaluate the probability of risk events.

Question 353

Of the following, who is BEST suited to assist a risk practitioner in developing a relevant set of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Internal auditor

B.

Asset owner

C.

Finance manager

D.

Control owner

Question 354

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?

Options:

A.

Inability to allocate resources efficiently

B.

Inability to identify the risk owner

C.

Inability to complete the risk register

D.

Inability to identify process experts

Question 355

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

Question 356

What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?

Options:

A.

Segment the system on its own network.

B.

Ensure regular backups take place.

C.

Virtualize the system in the cloud.

D.

Install antivirus software on the system.

Question 357

Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?

Options:

A.

Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.

B.

Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.

C.

Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.

D.

Obtain vendor references from third parties.

Question 358

Which of the following is MOST important to review when determining whether a potential IT service provider’s control environment is effective?

Options:

A.

Independent audit report

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

MOST important to update when an

D.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

Question 359

Which of the following can be interpreted from a single data point on a risk heat map?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk magnitude

C.

Risk response

D.

Risk appetite

Question 360

An organization's internal audit department is considering the implementation of robotics process automation (RPA) to automate certain continuous auditing tasks. Who would own the risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots?

Options:

A.

Lead auditor

B.

Project manager

C.

Chief audit executive (CAE)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

Question 361

Who is PRIMARILY accountable for risk treatment decisions?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Business manager

C.

Data owner

D.

Risk manager

Question 362

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to create risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

To assist with risk identification

B.

To determine risk tolerance

C.

To determine risk appetite

D.

To assist in the development of risk responses

Question 363

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization uses a managed security service provider as a firewall administrator?

Options:

A.

Exposure of log data

B.

Lack of governance

C.

Increased number of firewall rules

D.

Lack of agreed-upon standards

Question 364

Prior to selecting key performance indicators (KPIs), itis MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

trending data is available.

B.

process flowcharts are current.

C.

measurement objectives are defined.

D.

data collection technology is available.

Question 365

The risk appetite for an organization could be derived from which of the following?

Options:

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

Question 366

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Assign ownership of the risk response plan

B.

Provide awareness in early detection of risk.

C.

Perform periodic audits on identified risk.

D.

areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

Question 367

An organization has granted a vendor access to its data in order to analyze customer behavior. Which of the following would be the MOST effective control to mitigate the risk of customer data leakage?

Options:

A.

Enforce criminal background checks.

B.

Mask customer data fields.

C.

Require vendor to sign a confidentiality agreement.

D.

Restrict access to customer data on a "need to know'' basis.

Question 368

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Results of the latest risk assessment

B.

Results of a risk forecasting analysis

C.

A review of compliance regulations

D.

Findings of the most recent audit

Question 369

An internally developed payroll application leverages Platform as a Service (PaaS) infrastructure from the cloud. Who owns the related data confidentiality risk?

Options:

A.

IT infrastructure head

B.

Human resources head

C.

Supplier management head

D.

Application development head

Question 370

A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?

Options:

A.

Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives

B.

Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner

C.

Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners

D.

Assessing noncompliance with control best practices

Question 371

During an IT department reorganization, the manager of a risk mitigation action plan was replaced. The new manager has begun implementing a new control after identifying a more effective option. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Communicate the decision to the risk owner for approval

B.

Seek approval from the previous action plan manager.

C.

Identify an owner for the new control.

D.

Modify the action plan in the risk register.

Question 372

A payroll manager discovers that fields in certain payroll reports have been modified without authorization. Which of the following control weaknesses could have contributed MOST to this problem?

Options:

A.

The user requirements were not documented.

B.

Payroll files were not under the control of a librarian.

C.

The programmer had access to the production programs.

D.

The programmer did not involve the user in testing.

Question 373

An IT operations team implements disaster recovery controls based on decisions from application owners regarding the level of resiliency needed. Who is the risk owner in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Business resilience manager

B.

Disaster recovery team lead

C.

Application owner

D.

IT operations manager

Question 374

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern related to data privacy when implementing an Internet of Things (loT) solution that collects personally identifiable information (Pll)?

Options:

A.

A privacy impact assessment has not been completed.

B.

Data encryption methods apply to a subset of Pll obtained.

C.

The data privacy officer was not consulted.

D.

Insufficient access controls are used on the loT devices.

Question 375

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

Options:

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

Question 376

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when continuously monitoring the performance of a client-facing application?

Options:

A.

Objectives are confirmed with the business owner.

B.

Control owners approve control changes.

C.

End-user acceptance testing has been conducted.

D.

Performance information in the log is encrypted.

Question 377

The effectiveness of a control has decreased. What is the MOST likely effect on the associated risk?

Options:

A.

The risk impact changes.

B.

The risk classification changes.

C.

The inherent risk changes.

D.

The residual risk changes.

Question 378

Which of the following is MOST helpful to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

A heat map

C.

A business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

A vulnerability report

Question 379

Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:

Options:

A.

organizational risk appetite.

B.

business sector best practices.

C.

business process requirements.

D.

availability of automated solutions

Question 380

Which of the following is the MOST important component of effective security incident response?

Options:

A.

Network time protocol synchronization

B.

Identification of attack sources

C.

Early detection of breaches

D.

A documented communications plan

Question 381

An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?

Options:

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon release to production

C.

During backlog scheduling

D.

When reviewing functional requirements

Question 382

The maturity of an IT risk management program is MOST influenced by:

Options:

A.

the organization's risk culture

B.

benchmarking results against similar organizations

C.

industry-specific regulatory requirements

D.

expertise available within the IT department

Question 383

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program is the percentage of:

Options:

A.

vendors providing risk assessments on time.

B.

vendor contracts reviewed in the past year.

C.

vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time.

D.

vendors that have reported control-related incidents.

Question 384

Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.

B.

Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.

C.

Identify the risk appetite of the organization.

D.

Assess the goals and culture of the organization.

Question 385

Read" rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:

Options:

A.

business process owner.

B.

database administrator.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

systems administrator.

Question 386

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

The KRIs' source data lacks integrity.

B.

The KRIs are not automated.

C.

The KRIs are not quantitative.

D.

The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis.

Question 387

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

Options:

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

Question 388

Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?

Options:

A.

Chief information officer (CIO)

B.

Executive management team

C.

Audit committee

D.

Business process owner

Question 389

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for analyzing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Identifying additional risk scenarios

B.

Updating the heat map

C.

Assessing loss expectancy

D.

Establishing a risk appetite

Question 390

Which of the following methods would BEST contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming sessions

B.

Control self-assessments

C.

Vulnerability analysis

D.

Monte Carlo analysis

Question 391

An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?

Options:

A.

Classification of the data

B.

Type of device

C.

Remote management capabilities

D.

Volume of data

Question 392

When reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management's PRIMARY focus should be placed on the:

Options:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

investment portfolio.

C.

key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

alignment with risk appetite.

Question 393

Whose risk tolerance matters MOST when making a risk decision?

Options:

A.

Customers who would be affected by a breach

B.

Auditors, regulators and standards organizations

C.

The business process owner of the exposed assets

D.

The information security manager

Question 394

Which of the following will BEST support management repotting on risk?

Options:

A.

Risk policy requirements

B.

A risk register

C.

Control self-assessment

D.

Key performance Indicators

Question 395

The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:

Options:

A.

establish overall impact to the organization

B.

efficiently manage the scope of the assignment

C.

identify critical information systems

D.

facilitate communication to senior management

Question 396

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level

B.

Number of vulnerabilities identified during the period

C.

Number of vulnerabilities re-opened during the period

D.

Percentage of vulnerabilities escalated to senior management

Question 397

Before implementing instant messaging within an organization using a public solution, which of the following should be in place to mitigate data leakage risk?

Options:

A.

A data extraction tool

B.

An access control list

C.

An intrusion detection system (IDS)

D.

An acceptable usage policy

Question 398

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst? The reviewers are:

Options:

A.

accountable for the affected processes.

B.

members of senior management.

C.

authorized to select risk mitigation options.

D.

independent from the business operations.

Question 399

Which of the following indicates an organization follows IT risk management best practice?

Options:

A.

The risk register template uses an industry standard.

B.

The risk register is regularly updated.

C.

All fields in the risk register have been completed.

D.

Controls are listed against risk entries in the register.

Question 400

Which of the following provides The BEST information when determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical system to be implemented?

Options:

A.

Single loss expectancy (SLE)

B.

Cost of the information system

C.

Availability of additional compensating controls

D.

Potential business impacts are within acceptable levels

Question 401

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Improving risk awareness

B.

Obtaining buy-in from risk owners

C.

Leveraging existing metrics

D.

Optimizing risk treatment decisions

Question 402

A maturity model will BEST indicate:

Options:

A.

confidentiality and integrity.

B.

effectiveness and efficiency.

C.

availability and reliability.

D.

certification and accreditation.

Question 403

As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:

Options:

A.

align IT processes with business objectives.

B.

communicate the enterprise risk management policy.

C.

stay current with existing control status.

D.

understand the organizational risk profile.

Question 404

An organization has just implemented changes to close an identified vulnerability that impacted a critical business process. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Redesign the heat map.

B.

Review the risk tolerance.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Update the risk register.

Question 405

When establishing leading indicators for the information security incident response process it is MOST important to consider the percentage of reported incidents:

Options:

A.

that results in a full root cause analysis.

B.

used for verification within the SLA.

C.

that are verified as actual incidents.

D.

resolved within the SLA.

Question 406

Which of the following would provide the MOST objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization's security controls?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

Security operations center review

C.

Internal penetration testing

D.

A third-party audit

Question 407

The PRIMARY benefit of classifying information assets is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

communicate risk to senior management

B.

assign risk ownership

C.

facilitate internal audit

D.

determine the appropriate level of control

Question 408

An organization with a large number of applications wants to establish a security risk assessment program. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Feedback from end users

B.

Results of a benchmark analysis

C.

Recommendations from internal audit

D.

Prioritization from business owners

Question 409

The implementation of a risk treatment plan will exceed the resources originally allocated for the risk response. Which of the following should be the risk owner's NEXT action?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Accept the risk of not implementing.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Update the implementation plan.

Question 410

Which of the following will BEST help an organization select a recovery strategy for critical systems?

Options:

A.

Review the business impact analysis.

B.

Create a business continuity plan.

C.

Analyze previous disaster recovery reports.

D.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

Question 411

Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?

Options:

A.

Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management

B.

Review of internal audit and third-party reports

C.

Management review and sign-off on system documentation

D.

First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation

Question 412

Which of the following would be MOST beneficial as a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

Current capital allocation reserves

B.

Negative security return on investment (ROI)

C.

Project cost variances

D.

Annualized loss projections

Question 413

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge when assigning accountability for control ownership?

Options:

A.

Weak governance structures

B.

Senior management scrutiny

C.

Complex regulatory environment

D.

Unclear reporting relationships

Question 414

A large organization is replacing its enterprise resource planning (ERP) system and has decided not to deploy the payroll module of the new system. Instead, the current payroll system will continue to be

used. Of the following, who should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected?

Options:

A.

The business owner

B.

The ERP administrator

C.

The project steering committee

D.

The IT project manager

Question 415

An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the risk identification process.

B.

Inform the risk scenario owners.

C.

Create a risk awareness communication plan.

D.

Update the risk register.

Question 416

An organization has engaged a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. This is an example of risk:

Options:

A.

mitigation.

B.

avoidance.

C.

transfer.

D.

acceptance.

Question 417

A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?

Options:

A.

Reviewing access control lists

B.

Authorizing user access requests

C.

Performing user access recertification

D.

Terminating inactive user access

Question 418

An organization is considering adopting artificial intelligence (AI). Which of the

following is the risk practitioner's MOST important course of action?

Options:

A.

Develop key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Ensure sufficient pre-implementation testing.

C.

Identify applicable risk scenarios.

D.

Identify the organization's critical data.

Question 419

An IT organization is replacing the customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should own the risk associated with customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new system?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer

B.

Business process owner

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

IT controls manager

Question 420

It is MOST important to the effectiveness of an IT risk management function that the associated processes are:

Options:

A.

aligned to an industry-accepted framework.

B.

reviewed and approved by senior management.

C.

periodically assessed against regulatory requirements.

D.

updated and monitored on a continuous basis.

Question 421

The MAIN purpose of having a documented risk profile is to:

Options:

A.

comply with external and internal requirements.

B.

enable well-informed decision making.

C.

prioritize investment projects.

D.

keep the risk register up-to-date.

Question 422

An organization has implemented a system capable of comprehensive employee monitoring. Which of the following should direct how the system is used?

Options:

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Employee code of conduct

C.

Industry best practices

D.

Organizational policy

Question 423

Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?

Options:

A.

Management's expectations

B.

Corporate risk profile

C.

Recent security incidents

D.

The current risk management capability

Question 424

An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do

FIRST?

Options:

A.

Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party

B.

Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

C.

Notify information security management.

D.

Request IT to remove the system from the network.

Question 425

A large organization needs to report risk at all levels for a new centralized visualization project to reduce cost and improve performance. Which of the following would MOST effectively represent the overall risk of the project to senior management?

Options:

A.

Aggregated key performance indicators (KPls)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Centralized risk register

D.

Risk heat map

Question 426

The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:

Options:

A.

determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.

B.

identify critical business functions and resources.

C.

define roles and responsibilities for implementation.

D.

identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.

Question 427

Which of the following criteria is MOST important when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data?

Options:

A.

The recovery time objective (RTO)

B.

The likelihood of a recurring attack

C.

The organization's risk tolerance

D.

The business significance of the information

Question 428

Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Continuous monitoring and alerting

C.

Configuration management

D.

Access controls and active logging

Question 429

Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Management intervention

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Board commentary

D.

Escalation triggers

Question 430

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Obtaining funding support

B.

Defining the risk assessment scope

C.

Selecting the risk assessment framework

D.

Establishing inherent risk

Question 431

To minimize risk in a software development project, when is the BEST time to conduct a risk analysis?

Options:

A.

During the business requirement definitions phase

B.

Before periodic steering committee meetings

C.

At each stage of the development life cycle

D.

During the business case development

Question 432

The MAIN purpose of a risk register is to:

Options:

A.

document the risk universe of the organization.

B.

promote an understanding of risk across the organization.

C.

enable well-informed risk management decisions.

D.

identify stakeholders associated with risk scenarios.

Question 433

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

Options:

A.

assessing impact to the strategic plan.

B.

aligning with industry best practices.

C.

soliciting input from risk management experts.

D.

evaluating the cost of risk response.

Question 434

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?

Options:

A.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

B.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

C.

There is a lack of technology recovery options.

D.

The applications are not captured in the risk profile.

Question 435

Of the following, who should be responsible for determining the inherent risk rating of an application?

Options:

A.

Application owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Business process owner

Question 436

Which of the following is the MOST relevant information to include in a risk management strategy?

Options:

A.

Quantified risk triggers

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational goals

Question 437

Which of the following should be initiated when a high number of noncompliant conditions are observed during review of a control procedure?

Options:

A.

Disciplinary action

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

A review of the awareness program

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 438

Which of the following would BEST enable mitigation of newly identified risk factors related to internet of Things (loT)?

Options:

A.

Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle

B.

Implementing loT device software monitoring

C.

Performing periodic risk assessments of loT

D.

Performing secure code reviews

Question 439

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the transition of a sensitive data backup solution from on-premise to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

More complex test restores

B.

Inadequate service level agreement (SLA) with the provider

C.

More complex incident response procedures

D.

Inadequate data encryption

Question 440

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?

Options:

A.

An annual contract review

B.

A service level agreement (SLA)

C.

A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework

D.

A requirement to provide an independent audit report

Question 441

Within the three lines of defense model, the accountability for the system of internal control resides with:

Options:

A.

the chief information officer (CIO).

B.

the board of directors

C.

enterprise risk management

D.

the risk practitioner

Question 442

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

Options:

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

Question 443

The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is BEST owned by:

Options:

A.

the third-party website manager

B.

the business process owner

C.

IT security

D.

the compliance manager

Question 444

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?

Options:

A.

Audit engagement letter

B.

Risk profile

C.

IT risk register

D.

Change control documentation

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