Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Questions and Answers
What is the BEST approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance?
Options:
Audit logs
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
Two-factor authentication
Application of least privilege
Answer:
DExplanation:
Applying the principle of least privilege is the best approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance. The principle of least privilege is a security concept that states that every user or process should have the minimum amount of access rights and permissions that are necessary to perform their tasks or functions, and nothing more. The principle of least privilege can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the security and confidentiality of the information by limiting the access and exposure of the sensitive data to the authorized users and purposes
- Reducing the risk and impact of unauthorized access or disclosure of the information by minimizing the attack surface and the potential damage
- Increasing the accountability and auditability of the information by tracking and logging the access and usage of the sensitive data
- Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the system by reducing the complexity and overhead of the access control mechanisms
Applying the principle of least privilege is the best approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance, because it can ensure that the employees can only access the information that is relevant and necessary for their tasks or functions, and that they cannot access or manipulate the information that is beyond their scope or authority. For example, if the highly sensitive information is related to a specific project or department, then only the employees who are involved in that project or department should have access to that information, and not the employees who have the same level of security clearance but are not involved in that project or department.
The other options are not the best approaches for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance, but rather approaches that have other purposes or effects. Audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur within a system or a network, such as the access and usage of the sensitive data. Audit logs can provide a reactive and detective layer of security by enabling the monitoring and analysis of the system or network behavior, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents. However, audit logs cannot prevent or reduce the access or disclosure of the sensitive information, but rather provide evidence or clues after the fact. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is a method that enforces the access rights and permissions of the users based on their roles or functions within the organization, rather than their identities or attributes. RBAC can provide a granular and dynamic layer of security by defining and assigning the roles and permissions according to the organizational structure and policies. However, RBAC cannot control the access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance and the same role or function within the organization, but rather rely on other criteria or mechanisms. Two-factor authentication is a technique that verifies the identity of the users by requiring them to provide two pieces of evidence or factors, such as something they know (e.g., password, PIN), something they have (e.g., token, smart card), or something they are (e.g., fingerprint, face). Two-factor authentication can provide a strong and preventive layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to the system or network by the users who do not have both factors. However, two-factor authentication cannot control the access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance and the same two factors, but rather rely on other criteria or mechanisms.
A manufacturing organization wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the manufacturing organization?
Options:
Trusted third-party certification
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Security Assertion Markup language (SAML)
Cross-certification
Answer:
CExplanation:
Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is the best solution for the manufacturing organization that wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. FIM is a process that allows the sharing and recognition of identities across different organizations that have a trust relationship. FIM enables the users of one organization to access the resources or services of another organization without having to create or maintain multiple accounts or credentials. FIM can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the user experience and convenience by reducing the need for multiple logins and passwords
- Enhancing the security and privacy by minimizing the exposure and duplication of sensitive information
- Increasing the efficiency and productivity by streamlining the authentication and authorization processes
- Reducing the cost and complexity by simplifying the identity management and administration
SAML is a standard protocol that supports FIM by allowing the exchange of authentication and authorization information between different parties. SAML uses XML-based messages, called assertions, to convey the identity, attributes, and entitlements of a user to a service provider. SAML defines three roles for the parties involved in FIM:
- Identity provider (IdP): the party that authenticates the user and issues the SAML assertion
- Service provider (SP): the party that provides the resource or service that the user wants to access
- User or principal: the party that requests access to the resource or service
SAML works as follows:
- The user requests access to a resource or service from the SP
- The SP redirects the user to the IdP for authentication
- The IdP authenticates the user and generates a SAML assertion that contains the user’s identity, attributes, and entitlements
- The IdP sends the SAML assertion to the SP
- The SP validates the SAML assertion and grants or denies access to the user based on the information in the assertion
SAML is the best solution for the manufacturing organization that wants to establish a FIM system with its 20 different supplier companies, because it can enable the seamless and secure access to the resources or services across the different organizations, without requiring the users to create or maintain multiple accounts or credentials. SAML can also provide interoperability and compatibility between different platforms and technologies, as it is based on a standard and open protocol.
The other options are not the best solutions for the manufacturing organization that wants to establish a FIM system with its 20 different supplier companies, but rather solutions that have other limitations or drawbacks. Trusted third-party certification is a process that involves a third party, such as a certificate authority (CA), that issues and verifies digital certificates that contain the public key and identity information of a user or an entity. Trusted third-party certification can provide authentication and encryption for the communication between different parties, but it does not provide authorization or entitlement information for the access to the resources or services. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a protocol that allows the access and management of directory services, such as Active Directory, that store the identity and attribute information of users and entities. LDAP can provide a centralized and standardized way to store and retrieve identity and attribute information, but it does not provide a mechanism to exchange or federate the information across different organizations. Cross-certification is a process that involves two or more CAs that establish a trust relationship and recognize each other’s certificates. Cross-certification can extend the trust and validity of the certificates across different domains or organizations, but it does not provide a mechanism to exchange or federate the identity, attribute, or entitlement information.
Users require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. Which control would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary?
Options:
Limit access to predefined queries
Segregate the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level
Implement Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
Reduce the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes
Answer:
AExplanation:
Limiting access to predefined queries is the control that would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they only require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. A query is a request for information from a database, which can be expressed in a structured query language (SQL) or a graphical user interface (GUI). A query can specify the criteria, conditions, and operations for selecting, filtering, sorting, grouping, and aggregating the data from the database. A predefined query is a query that has been created and stored in advance by the database administrator or the data owner, and that can be executed by the authorized users without any modification. A predefined query can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the performance and efficiency of the database by reducing the processing time and resources required for executing the queries
- Enhancing the security and confidentiality of the database by restricting the access and exposure of the sensitive data to the authorized users and purposes
- Increasing the accuracy and reliability of the database by preventing the errors or inconsistencies that might occur due to the user input or modification of the queries
- Reducing the cost and complexity of the database by simplifying the query design and management
Limiting access to predefined queries is the control that would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they only require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees, because it can ensure that the users can only access the data that is relevant and necessary for their tasks, and that they cannot access or manipulate the data that is beyond their scope or authority. For example, a predefined query can be created and stored that calculates and displays the average salary of groups of employees based on certain criteria, such as department, position, or experience. The users who need to view this information can execute this predefined query, but they cannot modify it or create their own queries that might reveal the individual employee’s salary or other sensitive data.
The other options are not the controls that would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they only require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees, but rather controls that have other purposes or effects. Segregating the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level is a control that would improve the performance and security of the database by dividing it into smaller and manageable segments that can be accessed and processed independently and concurrently. However, this control would not prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they have access to the partition that contains the salary data, and if they can create or modify their own queries. Implementing Role Based Access Control (RBAC) is a control that would enforce the access rights and permissions of the users based on their roles or functions within the organization, rather than their identities or attributes. However, this control would not prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if their roles or functions require them to access the salary data, and if they can create or modify their own queries. Reducing the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes is a control that would reduce the risk and impact of unauthorized access or disclosure of the sensitive data by minimizing the exposure and distribution of the data. However, this control would not prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they are among the people who have access to the system, and if they can create or modify their own queries.
Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices?
Options:
Derived credential
Temporary security credential
Mobile device credentialing service
Digest authentication
Answer:
AExplanation:
Derived credential is the best description of an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices. A smart card is a device that contains a microchip that stores a private key and a digital certificate that are used for authentication and encryption. A smart card is typically inserted into a reader that is attached to a computer or a terminal, and the user enters a personal identification number (PIN) to unlock the smart card and access the private key and the certificate. A smart card can provide a high level of security and convenience for the user, as it implements a two-factor authentication method that combines something the user has (the smart card) and something the user knows (the PIN).
However, a smart card may not be compatible or convenient for mobile devices, such as smartphones or tablets, that do not have a smart card reader or a USB port. To address this issue, a derived credential is a solution that allows the user to use a mobile device as an alternative to a smart card for authentication and encryption. A derived credential is a cryptographic key and a certificate that are derived from the smart card private key and certificate, and that are stored on the mobile device. A derived credential works as follows:
- The user inserts the smart card into a reader that is connected to a computer or a terminal, and enters the PIN to unlock the smart card
- The user connects the mobile device to the computer or the terminal via a cable, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi
- The user initiates a request to generate a derived credential on the mobile device
- The computer or the terminal verifies the smart card certificate with a trusted CA, and generates a derived credential that contains a cryptographic key and a certificate that are derived from the smart card private key and certificate
- The computer or the terminal transfers the derived credential to the mobile device, and stores it in a secure element or a trusted platform module on the device
- The user disconnects the mobile device from the computer or the terminal, and removes the smart card from the reader
- The user can use the derived credential on the mobile device to authenticate and encrypt the communication with other parties, without requiring the smart card or the PIN
A derived credential can provide a secure and convenient way to use a mobile device as an alternative to a smart card for authentication and encryption, as it implements a two-factor authentication method that combines something the user has (the mobile device) and something the user is (the biometric feature). A derived credential can also comply with the standards and policies for the use of smart cards, such as the Personal Identity Verification (PIV) or the Common Access Card (CAC) programs.
The other options are not the best descriptions of an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices, but rather descriptions of other methods or concepts. Temporary security credential is a method that involves issuing a short-lived credential, such as a token or a password, that can be used for a limited time or a specific purpose. Temporary security credential can provide a flexible and dynamic way to grant access to the users or entities, but it does not involve deriving a cryptographic key from a smart card private key. Mobile device credentialing service is a concept that involves providing a service that can issue, manage, or revoke credentials for mobile devices, such as certificates, tokens, or passwords. Mobile device credentialing service can provide a centralized and standardized way to control the access of mobile devices, but it does not involve deriving a cryptographic key from a smart card private key. Digest authentication is a method that involves using a hash function, such as MD5, to generate a digest or a fingerprint of the user’s credentials, such as the username and password, and sending it to the server for verification. Digest authentication can provide a more secure way to authenticate the user than the basic authentication, which sends the credentials in plain text, but it does not involve deriving a cryptographic key from a smart card private key.
Which security service is served by the process of encryption plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting cipher text with the sender’s public key?
Options:
Confidentiality
Integrity
Identification
Availability
Answer:
CExplanation:
The security service that is served by the process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key is identification. Identification is the process of verifying the identity of a person or entity that claims to be who or what it is. Identification can be achieved by using public key cryptography and digital signatures, which are based on the process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key. This process works as follows:
- The sender has a pair of public and private keys, and the public key is shared with the receiver in advance.
- The sender encrypts the plaintext message with its private key, which produces a ciphertext that is also a digital signature of the message.
- The sender sends the ciphertext to the receiver, along with the plaintext message or a hash of the message.
- The receiver decrypts the ciphertext with the sender’s public key, which produces the same plaintext message or hash of the message.
- The receiver compares the decrypted message or hash with the original message or hash, and verifies the identity of the sender if they match.
The process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key serves identification because it ensures that only the sender can produce a valid ciphertext that can be decrypted by the receiver, and that the receiver can verify the sender’s identity by using the sender’s public key. This process also provides non-repudiation, which means that the sender cannot deny sending the message or the receiver cannot deny receiving the message, as the ciphertext serves as a proof of origin and delivery.
The other options are not the security services that are served by the process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key. Confidentiality is the process of ensuring that the message is only readable by the intended parties, and it is achieved by encrypting plaintext with the receiver’s public key and decrypting ciphertext with the receiver’s private key. Integrity is the process of ensuring that the message is not modified or corrupted during transmission, and it is achieved by using hash functions and message authentication codes. Availability is the process of ensuring that the message is accessible and usable by the authorized parties, and it is achieved by using redundancy, backup, and recovery mechanisms.
Which of the following mobile code security models relies only on trust?
Options:
Code signing
Class authentication
Sandboxing
Type safety
Answer:
AExplanation:
Code signing is the mobile code security model that relies only on trust. Mobile code is a type of software that can be transferred from one system to another and executed without installation or compilation. Mobile code can be used for various purposes, such as web applications, applets, scripts, macros, etc. Mobile code can also pose various security risks, such as malicious code, unauthorized access, data leakage, etc. Mobile code security models are the techniques that are used to protect the systems and users from the threats of mobile code. Code signing is a mobile code security model that relies only on trust, which means that the security of the mobile code depends on the reputation and credibility of the code provider. Code signing works as follows:
- The code provider has a pair of public and private keys, and obtains a digital certificate from a trusted third party, such as a certificate authority (CA), that binds the public key to the identity of the code provider.
- The code provider signs the mobile code with its private key and attaches the digital certificate to the mobile code.
- The code consumer receives the mobile code and verifies the signature and the certificate with the public key of the code provider and the CA, respectively.
- The code consumer decides whether to trust and execute the mobile code based on the identity and reputation of the code provider.
Code signing relies only on trust because it does not enforce any security restrictions or controls on the mobile code, but rather leaves the decision to the code consumer. Code signing also does not guarantee the quality or functionality of the mobile code, but rather the authenticity and integrity of the code provider. Code signing can be effective if the code consumer knows and trusts the code provider, and if the code provider follows the security standards and best practices. However, code signing can also be ineffective if the code consumer is unaware or careless of the code provider, or if the code provider is compromised or malicious.
The other options are not mobile code security models that rely only on trust, but rather on other techniques that limit or isolate the mobile code. Class authentication is a mobile code security model that verifies the permissions and capabilities of the mobile code based on its class or type, and allows or denies the execution of the mobile code accordingly. Sandboxing is a mobile code security model that executes the mobile code in a separate and restricted environment, and prevents the mobile code from accessing or affecting the system resources or data. Type safety is a mobile code security model that checks the validity and consistency of the mobile code, and prevents the mobile code from performing illegal or unsafe operations.
Which component of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified automated vulnerability assessments?
Options:
Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)
Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)
Asset Reporting Format (ARF)
Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL)
Answer:
BExplanation:
The component of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification that contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified by automated vulnerability assessments is the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS). CVSS is a framework that provides a standardized and objective way to measure and communicate the characteristics and impacts of vulnerabilities. CVSS consists of three metric groups: base, temporal, and environmental. The base metric group captures the intrinsic and fundamental properties of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The temporal metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that change over time, such as the availability and effectiveness of exploits, patches, and workarounds. The environmental metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that are relevant and unique to a user’s environment, such as the configuration and importance of the affected system. Each metric group has a set of metrics that are assigned values based on the vulnerability’s attributes. The values are then combined using a formula to produce a numerical score that ranges from 0 to 10, where 0 means no impact and 10 means critical impact. The score can also be translated into a qualitative rating that ranges from none to low, medium, high, and critical. CVSS provides a consistent and comprehensive way to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities and prioritize their remediation.
The other options are not components of the SCAP specification that contain the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified by automated vulnerability assessments, but rather components that serve other purposes. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a component that provides a standardized and unique identifier and description for each publicly known vulnerability. CVE facilitates the sharing and comparison of vulnerability information across different sources and tools. Asset Reporting Format (ARF) is a component that provides a standardized and extensible format for expressing the information about the assets and their characteristics, such as configuration, vulnerabilities, and compliance. ARF enables the aggregation and correlation of asset information from different sources and tools. Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL) is a component that provides a standardized and expressive language for defining and testing the state of a system for the presence of vulnerabilities, configuration issues, patches, and other aspects. OVAL enables the automation and interoperability of vulnerability assessment and management.
Who in the organization is accountable for classification of data information assets?
Options:
Data owner
Data architect
Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Answer:
AExplanation:
The person in the organization who is accountable for the classification of data information assets is the data owner. The data owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of a set of data. The data owner is also responsible for defining the purpose, value, and classification of the data, as well as the security requirements and controls for the data. The data owner should be able to determine the impact of the data on the mission of the organization, which means assessing the potential consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing the data. The impact of the data on the mission of the organization is one of the main criteria for data classification, which helps to establish the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data. The data owner should also ensure that the data is properly labeled, stored, accessed, shared, and destroyed according to the data classification policy and procedures.
The other options are not the persons in the organization who are accountable for the classification of data information assets, but rather persons who have other roles or functions related to data management. The data architect is the person or entity that designs and models the structure, format, and relationships of the data, as well as the data standards, specifications, and lifecycle. The data architect supports the data owner by providing technical guidance and expertise on the data architecture and quality. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is the person or entity that oversees the security strategy, policies, and programs of the organization, as well as the security performance and incidents. The CISO supports the data owner by providing security leadership and governance, as well as ensuring the compliance and alignment of the data security with the organizational objectives and regulations. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is the person or entity that manages the information technology (IT) resources and services of the organization, as well as the IT strategy and innovation. The CIO supports the data owner by providing IT management and direction, as well as ensuring the availability, reliability, and scalability of the IT infrastructure and applications.
The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following?
Options:
Diffie-Hellman algorithm
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Message Digest 5 (MD5)
Answer:
BExplanation:
The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). SSL is a protocol that provides secure communication over the Internet by using public key cryptography and digital certificates. SSL works as follows:
- The client initiates a connection to the server and requests its digital certificate, which contains its public key and identity information.
- The server sends its digital certificate to the client, and optionally requests the client’s digital certificate as well.
- The client verifies the server’s digital certificate with a trusted third party, such as a certificate authority (CA), and optionally sends its own digital certificate to the server.
- The server verifies the client’s digital certificate with a trusted third party, if applicable.
- The client and the server use the Diffie-Hellman algorithm to generate a shared secret key, which is used to encrypt and decrypt the data exchanged between them.
- The client and the server use the shared secret key and a symmetric encryption algorithm, such as Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), to establish a secure session and communicate confidentially and reliably.
The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of SSL because it enables the authentication of the parties, the establishment of the shared secret key, and the protection of the data from eavesdropping, tampering, and replay attacks.
The other options are not protocols or algorithms that use private and public encryption keys in their implementation. Diffie-Hellman algorithm is a method for generating a shared secret key between two parties, but it does not use private and public encryption keys, but rather public and private parameters. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses the same key for encryption and decryption, but it does not use private and public encryption keys, but rather a single secret key. Message Digest 5 (MD5) is a hash function that produces a fixed-length output from a variable-length input, but it does not use private and public encryption keys, but rather a one-way mathematical function.
Which technique can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack?
Options:
Hashing the data before encryption
Hashing the data after encryption
Compressing the data after encryption
Compressing the data before encryption
Answer:
DExplanation:
Compressing the data before encryption is a technique that can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack. A known plaintext attack is a type of cryptanalysis where the attacker has access to some pairs of plaintext and ciphertext encrypted with the same key, and tries to recover the key or decrypt other ciphertexts. A known plaintext attack can exploit the statistical properties or patterns of the plaintext or the ciphertext to reduce the search space or guess the key. Compressing the data before encryption can reduce the redundancy and increase the entropy of the plaintext, making it harder for the attacker to find any correlations or similarities between the plaintext and the ciphertext. Compressing the data before encryption can also reduce the size of the plaintext, making it more difficult for the attacker to obtain enough plaintext-ciphertext pairs for a successful attack.
The other options are not techniques that can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack, but rather techniques that can introduce other security issues or inefficiencies. Hashing the data before encryption is not a useful technique, as hashing is a one-way function that cannot be reversed, and the encrypted hash cannot be decrypted to recover the original data. Hashing the data after encryption is also not a useful technique, as hashing does not add any security to the encryption, and the hash can be easily computed by anyone who has access to the ciphertext. Compressing the data after encryption is not a recommended technique, as compression algorithms usually work better on uncompressed data, and compressing the ciphertext can introduce errors or vulnerabilities that can compromise the encryption.
What is the second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management?
Options:
Implementation Phase
Initialization Phase
Cancellation Phase
Issued Phase
Answer:
BExplanation:
The second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management is the initialization phase. PKI is a system that uses public key cryptography and digital certificates to provide authentication, confidentiality, integrity, and non-repudiation for electronic transactions. PKI key/certificate life-cycle management is the process of managing the creation, distribution, usage, storage, revocation, and expiration of keys and certificates in a PKI system. The key/certificate life-cycle management consists of six phases: pre-certification, initialization, certification, operational, suspension, and termination. The initialization phase is the second phase, where the key pair and the certificate request are generated by the end entity or the registration authority (RA). The initialization phase involves the following steps:
- The end entity or the RA generates a key pair, consisting of a public key and a private key, using a secure and random method.
- The end entity or the RA creates a certificate request, which contains the public key and other identity information of the end entity, such as the name, email, organization, etc.
- The end entity or the RA submits the certificate request to the certification authority (CA), which is the trusted entity that issues and signs the certificates in the PKI system.
- The end entity or the RA securely stores the private key and protects it from unauthorized access, loss, or compromise.
The other options are not the second phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather other phases. The implementation phase is not a phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather a phase of PKI system deployment, where the PKI components and policies are installed and configured. The cancellation phase is not a phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather a possible outcome of the termination phase, where the key pair and the certificate are permanently revoked and deleted. The issued phase is not a phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather a possible outcome of the certification phase, where the CA verifies and approves the certificate request and issues the certificate to the end entity or the RA.
Which of the following describes the concept of a Single Sign -On (SSO) system?
Options:
Users are authenticated to one system at a time.
Users are identified to multiple systems with several credentials.
Users are authenticated to multiple systems with one login.
Only one user is using the system at a time.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Single Sign-On (SSO) is a technology that allows users to securely access multiple applications and services using just one set of credentials, such as a username and a password56
With SSO, users do not have to remember and enter multiple passwords for different applications and services, which can improve their convenience and productivity. SSO also enhances security, as users can use stronger passwords, avoid reusing passwords, and comply with password policies more easily. Moreover, SSO reduces the risk of phishing, credential theft, and password fatigue56
SSO is based on the concept of federated identity, which means that the identity of a user is shared and trusted across different systems that have established a trust relationship. SSO uses various protocols and standards, such as SAML, OAuth, OIDC, and Kerberos, to enable the exchange of identity information and authentication tokens between the systems56
From a security perspective, which of the following is a best practice to configure a Domain Name Service (DNS) system?
Options:
Configure secondary servers to use the primary server as a zone forwarder.
Block all Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connections.
Disable all recursive queries on the name servers.
Limit zone transfers to authorized devices.
Answer:
DExplanation:
From a security perspective, the best practice to configure a DNS system is to limit zone transfers to authorized devices. Zone transfers are the processes of replicating the DNS data from one server to another, usually from a primary server to a secondary server. Zone transfers can expose sensitive information about the network topology, hosts, and services to attackers, who can use this information to launch further attacks. Therefore, zone transfers should be restricted to only the devices that need them, and authenticated and encrypted to prevent unauthorized access or modification. The other options are not as good as limiting zone transfers, as they either do not provide sufficient security for the DNS system (A and B), or do not address the zone transfer issue ©. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, page 156; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, page 166.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.
Which of the following methods is the MOST effective way of removing the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) program from the computer?
Options:
Run software uninstall
Re-image the computer
Find and remove all installation files
Delete all cookies stored in the web browser cache
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most effective way of removing the P2P program from the computer is to re-image the computer. Re-imaging the computer means to restore the computer to its original or desired state, by erasing or overwriting the existing data or software on the computer, and by installing a new or a backup image of the operating system and the applications on the computer. Re-imaging the computer can ensure that the P2P program and any other unwanted or harmful programs or files are completely removed from the computer, and that the computer is clean and secure. Run software uninstall, find and remove all installation files, and delete all cookies stored in the web browser cache are not the most effective ways of removing the P2P program from the computer, as they may not remove all the traces or components of the P2P program from the computer, or they may not address the other potential issues or risks that the P2P program may have caused on the computer. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 906. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 922.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
During the investigation of a security incident, it is determined that an unauthorized individual accessed a system which hosts a database containing financial information.
If the intrusion causes the system processes to hang, which of the following has been affected?
Options:
System integrity
System availability
System confidentiality
System auditability
Answer:
BExplanation:
If the intrusion causes the system processes to hang, the system availability has been affected. The system availability is the property or the characteristic of the system that ensures that the system is accessible and functional when needed by the authorized users or entities, and that the system is protected from the unauthorized or the malicious denial or disruption of service. The system availability can be affected when the system processes hang, as it can prevent or delay the system from responding to the requests or performing the tasks, and it can cause the system to crash or freeze. The system availability can also be affected by other factors, such as the network congestion, the hardware failure, the power outage, or the malicious attacks, such as the distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack. System integrity, system confidentiality, and system auditability are not the properties or the characteristics of the system that have been affected, if the intrusion causes the system processes to hang, as they are related to the accuracy, the secrecy, or the accountability of the system, not the accessibility or the functionality of the system. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 3, Security Architecture and Engineering, page 263. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 3, Security Architecture and Engineering, page 279.
A system is developed so that its business users can perform business functions but not user administration functions. Application administrators can perform administration functions but not user business functions. These capabilities are BEST described as
Options:
least privilege.
rule based access controls.
Mandatory Access Control (MAC).
separation of duties.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The capabilities of the system that allow its business users to perform business functions but not user administration functions, and its application administrators to perform administration functions but not user business functions, are best described as separation of duties. Separation of duties is a security principle that divides the roles and responsibilities of different tasks or functions among different individuals or groups, so that no one person or group has complete control or authority over a critical process or asset. Separation of duties can help to prevent fraud, collusion, abuse, or errors, and to ensure accountability, oversight, and checks and balances. Least privilege, rule based access controls, and Mandatory Access Control (MAC) are not the best descriptions of the capabilities of the system, as they do not reflect the division of roles and responsibilities among different users or groups. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 32. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 45.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider’s facility. This provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer-based applications used by the organization.
What additional considerations are there if the third party is located in a different country?
Options:
The organizational structure of the third party and how it may impact timelines within the organization
The ability of the third party to respond to the organization in a timely manner and with accurate information
The effects of transborder data flows and customer expectations regarding the storage or processing of their data
The quantity of data that must be provided to the third party and how it is to be used
Answer:
CExplanation:
The additional considerations that are there if the third party is located in a different country are the effects of transborder data flows and customer expectations regarding the storage or processing of their data. Transborder data flows are the movements or the transfers of data across the national or the regional borders, such as the internet, the cloud, or the outsourcing. Transborder data flows can have various effects on the security, the privacy, the compliance, or the sovereignty of the data, depending on the laws, the regulations, the standards, or the cultures of the different countries or regions involved. Customer expectations are the beliefs or the assumptions of the customers about the quality, the performance, or the satisfaction of the products or the services that they use or purchase. Customer expectations can vary depending on the needs, the preferences, or the values of the customers, and they can influence the reputation, the loyalty, or the profitability of the organization. The organization should consider the effects of transborder data flows and customer expectations regarding the storage or processing of their data, as they can affect the security, the privacy, the compliance, or the sovereignty of the data, and they can impact the reputation, the loyalty, or the profitability of the organization. The organization should also consider the legal, the contractual, the ethical, or the cultural implications of the transborder data flows and customer expectations, and they should communicate, negotiate, or align with the third party and the customers accordingly. The organization should not consider the organizational structure of the third party and how it may impact timelines within the organization, the ability of the third party to respond to the organization in a timely manner and with accurate information, or the quantity of data that must be provided to the third party and how it is to be used, as they are related to the management, the communication, or the provision of the data, not the effects of transborder data flows and customer expectations regarding the storage or processing of their data. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 59. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 74.
Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?
Options:
Time of data validation after disaster
Time of data restoration from backup after disaster
Time of application resumption after disaster
Time of application verification after disaster
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best description of Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the time of application resumption after disaster. RTO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable time that an application or a system can be unavailable or offline after a disaster or a disruption. RTO is based on the business impact analysis and the recovery requirements of the organization, and it helps to determine the recovery strategies and the resources needed to restore the application or the system to its normal operation. Time of data validation after disaster, time of data restoration from backup after disaster, and time of application verification after disaster are not the best descriptions of RTO, as they are related to the quality, accuracy, or completeness of the data or the application, not the availability or the downtime of the application or the system. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 899. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 915.
When using third-party software developers, which of the following is the MOST effective method of providing software development Quality Assurance (QA)?
Options:
Retain intellectual property rights through contractual wording.
Perform overlapping code reviews by both parties.
Verify that the contractors attend development planning meetings.
Create a separate contractor development environment.
Answer:
BExplanation:
When using third-party software developers, the most effective method of providing software development Quality Assurance (QA) is to perform overlapping code reviews by both parties. Code reviews are the process of examining the source code of an application for quality, functionality, security, and compliance. Overlapping code reviews by both parties means that the code is reviewed by both the third-party developers and the contracting organization, and that the reviews cover the same or similar aspects of the code. This can ensure that the code meets the requirements and specifications, that the code is free of defects or vulnerabilities, and that the code is consistent and compatible with the existing system or environment. Retaining intellectual property rights through contractual wording, verifying that the contractors attend development planning meetings, and creating a separate contractor development environment are all possible methods of providing software development QA, but they are not the most effective method of doing so. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8, Software Development Security, page 1026. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 8, Software Development Security, page 1050.
Which of the following is the MOST crucial for a successful audit plan?
Options:
Defining the scope of the audit to be performed
Identifying the security controls to be implemented
Working with the system owner on new controls
Acquiring evidence of systems that are not compliant
Answer:
AExplanation:
An audit is an independent and objective examination of an organization’s activities, systems, processes, or controls to evaluate their adequacy, effectiveness, efficiency, and compliance with applicable standards, policies, laws, or regulations. An audit plan is a document that outlines the objectives, scope, methodology, criteria, schedule, and resources of an audit. The most crucial element of a successful audit plan is defining the scope of the audit to be performed, which is the extent and boundaries of the audit, such as the subject matter, the time period, the locations, the departments, the functions, the systems, or the processes to be audited. The scope of the audit determines what will be included or excluded from the audit, and it helps to ensure that the audit objectives are met and the audit resources are used efficiently and effectively. Identifying the security controls to be implemented, working with the system owner on new controls, and acquiring evidence of systems that are not compliant are all important tasks in an audit, but they are not the most crucial for a successful audit plan, as they depend on the scope of the audit to be defined first. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 54. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 69.
Which of the following is a detective access control mechanism?
Options:
Log review
Least privilege
Password complexity
Non-disclosure agreement
Answer:
AExplanation:
The access control mechanism that is detective is log review. Log review is a process of examining and analyzing the records or events of the system or network activity, such as user login, file access, or network traffic, that are stored in log files. Log review can help to detect and identify any unauthorized, abnormal, or malicious access or behavior, and to provide evidence or clues for further investigation or response. Log review is a detective access control mechanism, as it can discover or reveal the occurrence or the source of the security incidents or violations, after they have happened. Least privilege, password complexity, and non-disclosure agreement are not detective access control mechanisms, as they are related to the restriction, protection, or confidentiality of the access or information, not the detection or identification of the security incidents or violations. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 932. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 948.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
During the investigation of a security incident, it is determined that an unauthorized individual accessed a system which hosts a database containing financial information.
Aside from the potential records which may have been viewed, which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern regarding the database information?
Options:
Unauthorized database changes
Integrity of security logs
Availability of the database
Confidentiality of the incident
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary concern regarding the database information, aside from the potential records which may have been viewed, is the unauthorized database changes. The unauthorized database changes are the modifications or the alterations of the database information or structure, such as the data values, the data types, the data formats, the data relationships, or the data schemas, by an unauthorized individual or a malicious actor, such as the one who accessed the system hosting the database. The unauthorized database changes can compromise the integrity, the accuracy, the consistency, and the reliability of the database information, and can cause serious damage or harm to the organization’s operations, decisions, or reputation. The unauthorized database changes can also affect the availability, the performance, or the functionality of the database, and can create or exploit the vulnerabilities or the weaknesses of the database. Integrity of security logs, availability of the database, and confidentiality of the incident are not the primary concerns regarding the database information, aside from the potential records which may have been viewed, as they are related to the evidence, the accessibility, or the secrecy of the security incident, not the modification or the alteration of the database information. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 865. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 881.
A large university needs to enable student access to university resources from their homes. Which of the following provides the BEST option for low maintenance and ease of deployment?
Options:
Provide students with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) Virtual Private Network (VPN) client software.
Use Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) VPN technology.
Use Secure Shell (SSH) with public/private keys.
Require students to purchase home router capable of VPN.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best option for low maintenance and ease of deployment to enable student access to university resources from their homes is to use Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) VPN technology. SSL VPN is a type of virtual private network that uses the SSL protocol to provide secure and remote access to the network resources over the internet. SSL VPN does not require the installation or configuration of any special client software or hardware on the student’s device, as it can use the web browser as the client interface. SSL VPN can also support various types of devices, operating systems, and applications, and can provide granular access control and encryption for the network traffic. Providing students with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) VPN client software, using Secure Shell (SSH) with public/private keys, and requiring students to purchase home router capable of VPN are not the best options for low maintenance and ease of deployment, as they involve more complexity, cost, and compatibility issues for the students and the university. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 507. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 523.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider’s facility. This provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer-based applications used by the organization.
The organization should ensure that the third party's physical security controls are in place so that they
Options:
are more rigorous than the original controls.
are able to limit access to sensitive information.
allow access by the organization staff at any time.
cannot be accessed by subcontractors of the third party.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The organization should ensure that the third party’s physical security controls are in place so that they are able to limit access to sensitive information. Physical security controls are the measures or the mechanisms that protect the physical assets, such as the hardware, the software, the media, or the personnel, from the unauthorized or the malicious access, damage, or theft. Physical security controls can include locks, fences, guards, cameras, alarms, or biometrics. The organization should ensure that the third party’s physical security controls are able to limit access to sensitive information, as it can prevent or reduce the risk of the data breach, the data loss, or the data corruption, and it can ensure the confidentiality, the integrity, and the availability of the information. The organization should also ensure that the third party’s physical security controls are compliant with the organization’s policies, standards, and regulations, and that they are audited and monitored regularly. The organization should not ensure that the third party’s physical security controls are more rigorous than the original controls, allow access by the organization staff at any time, or cannot be accessed by subcontractors of the third party, as they are related to the level, the scope, or the restriction of the physical security controls, not the ability to limit access to sensitive information. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 849. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 865.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.
The security program can be considered effective when
Options:
vulnerabilities are proactively identified.
audits are regularly performed and reviewed.
backups are regularly performed and validated.
risk is lowered to an acceptable level.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The security program can be considered effective when the risk is lowered to an acceptable level. The risk is the possibility or the likelihood of a threat exploiting a vulnerability, and causing a negative impact or a consequence to the organization’s assets, operations, or objectives. The security program is a set of activities and initiatives that aim to protect the organization’s information systems and resources from the security threats and risks, and to support the organization’s business needs and requirements. The security program can be considered effective when it achieves its goals and objectives, and when it reduces the risk to a level that is acceptable or tolerable by the organization, based on its risk appetite or tolerance. Vulnerabilities are proactively identified, audits are regularly performed and reviewed, and backups are regularly performed and validated are not the criteria to measure the effectiveness of the security program, as they are related to the methods or the processes of the security program, not the outcomes or the results of the security program. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 24. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 39.
An organization decides to implement a partial Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) with only the servers having digital certificates. What is the security benefit of this implementation?
Options:
Clients can authenticate themselves to the servers.
Mutual authentication is available between the clients and servers.
Servers are able to issue digital certificates to the client.
Servers can authenticate themselves to the client.
Answer:
DExplanation:
A Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a system that provides the services and mechanisms for creating, managing, distributing, using, storing, and revoking digital certificates, which are electronic documents that bind a public key to an identity. A digital certificate can be used to authenticate the identity of an entity, such as a person, a device, or a server, that possesses the corresponding private key. An organization can implement a partial PKI with only the servers having digital certificates, which means that only the servers can prove their identity to the clients, but not vice versa. The security benefit of this implementation is that servers can authenticate themselves to the client, which can prevent impersonation, spoofing, or man-in-the-middle attacks by malicious servers. Clients can authenticate themselves to the servers, mutual authentication is available between the clients and servers, and servers are able to issue digital certificates to the client are not the security benefits of this implementation, as they require the clients to have digital certificates as well. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, Cryptography and Symmetric Key Algorithms, page 615. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, Cryptography and Symmetric Key Algorithms, page 631.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.
Which of the following solutions would have MOST likely detected the use of peer-to-peer programs when the computer was connected to the office network?
Options:
Anti-virus software
Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Anti-spyware software
Integrity checking software
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best solution to detect the use of P2P programs when the computer was connected to the office network is an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS). An IPS is a device or a software that monitors, analyzes, and blocks the network traffic based on the predefined rules or policies, and that can prevent or stop any unauthorized or malicious access or activity on the network, such as P2P programs. An IPS can detect the use of P2P programs by inspecting the network packets, identifying the P2P protocols or signatures, and blocking or dropping the P2P traffic. Anti-virus software, anti-spyware software, and integrity checking software are not the best solutions to detect the use of P2P programs when the computer was connected to the office network, as they are related to the protection, removal, or verification of the software or files on the computer, not the monitoring, analysis, or blocking of the network traffic. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 512. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 528.
What is the BEST first step for determining if the appropriate security controls are in place for protecting data at rest?
Options:
Identify regulatory requirements
Conduct a risk assessment
Determine business drivers
Review the security baseline configuration
Answer:
BExplanation:
A risk assessment is the best first step for determining if the appropriate security controls are in place for protecting data at rest. A risk assessment involves identifying the assets, threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts related to the data, as well as the likelihood and severity of potential breaches. Based on the risk assessment, the appropriate security controls can be selected and implemented to mitigate the risks to an acceptable level. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, p. 35; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 1: Security and Risk Management, p. 41.
What is the MAIN feature that onion routing networks offer?
Options:
Non-repudiation
Traceability
Anonymity
Resilience
Answer:
CExplanation:
The main feature that onion routing networks offer is anonymity. Anonymity is the state of being unknown or unidentifiable by hiding or masking the identity or the location of the sender or the receiver of a communication. Onion routing is a technique that enables anonymous communication over a network, such as the internet, by encrypting and routing the messages through multiple layers of intermediate nodes, called onion routers. Onion routing can protect the privacy and security of the users or the data, and can prevent censorship, surveillance, or tracking by third parties. Non-repudiation, traceability, and resilience are not the main features that onion routing networks offer, as they are related to the proof, tracking, or recovery of the communication, not the anonymity of the communication. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 467. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 483.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.
Which of the following documents explains the proper use of the organization's assets?
Options:
Human resources policy
Acceptable use policy
Code of ethics
Access control policy
Answer:
BExplanation:
The document that explains the proper use of the organization’s assets is the acceptable use policy. An acceptable use policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for the appropriate and responsible use of the organization’s information systems and resources, such as computers, networks, or devices. An acceptable use policy can help to prevent or reduce the misuse, abuse, or damage of the organization’s assets, and to protect the security, privacy, and reputation of the organization and its users. An acceptable use policy can also specify the consequences or penalties for violating the policy, such as disciplinary actions, termination, or legal actions. A human resources policy, a code of ethics, and an access control policy are not the documents that explain the proper use of the organization’s assets, as they are related to the management, values, or authorization of the organization’s employees or users, not the usage or responsibility of the organization’s information systems or resources. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 47. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 62.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns.
In the plan, what is the BEST approach to mitigate future internal client-based attacks?
Options:
Block all client side web exploits at the perimeter.
Remove all non-essential client-side web services from the network.
Screen for harmful exploits of client-side services before implementation.
Harden the client image before deployment.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best approach to mitigate future internal client-based attacks is to harden the client image before deployment. Hardening the client image means to apply the security configurations and measures to the client operating system and applications, such as disabling unnecessary services, installing patches and updates, enforcing strong passwords, and enabling encryption and firewall. Hardening the client image can help to reduce the attack surface and the vulnerabilities of the client, and to prevent or resist the client-based attacks, such as web exploits, malware, or phishing. Blocking all client side web exploits at the perimeter, removing all non-essential client-side web services from the network, and screening for harmful exploits of client-side services before implementation are not the best approaches to mitigate future internal client-based attacks, as they are related to the network or the server level, not the client level, and they may not address all the possible types or sources of the client-based attacks. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 3, Security Architecture and Engineering, page 295. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 3, Security Architecture and Engineering, page 311.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns.
What MUST the plan include in order to reduce client-side exploitation?
Options:
Approved web browsers
Network firewall procedures
Proxy configuration
Employee education
Answer:
DExplanation:
The plan must include employee education in order to reduce client-side exploitation. Employee education is a process of providing the employees with the necessary knowledge, skills, and awareness to follow the security policies and procedures, and to prevent or avoid the common security threats or risks, such as client-side exploitation. Client-side exploitation is a type of attack that targets the vulnerabilities or weaknesses of the client applications or systems, such as web browsers, email clients, or media players, and that can compromise the client data or functionality, or allow the attacker to gain access to the network or the server. Employee education can help to reduce client-side exploitation by teaching the employees how to recognize and avoid the malicious or suspicious links, attachments, or downloads, how to update and patch their client applications or systems, how to use the security tools or features, such as antivirus or firewall, and how to report or respond to any security incidents or breaches. Approved web browsers, network firewall procedures, and proxy configuration are not the plan components that must be included in order to reduce client-side exploitation, as they are related to the technical or administrative controls or measures, not the human or behavioral factors, that can affect the client-side security. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 47. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 62.
An organization's data policy MUST include a data retention period which is based on
Options:
application dismissal.
business procedures.
digital certificates expiration.
regulatory compliance.
Answer:
DExplanation:
An organization’s data policy must include a data retention period that is based on regulatory compliance. Regulatory compliance is the adherence to the laws, regulations, and standards that apply to the organization’s industry, sector, or jurisdiction. Regulatory compliance may dictate how long the organization must retain certain types of data, such as financial records, health records, or tax records, and how the data must be stored, protected, and disposed of. The organization must follow the regulatory compliance requirements for data retention to avoid legal liabilities, fines, or sanctions. The other options are not the basis for data retention period, as they either do not relate to the data policy (A and C), or do not have the same level of authority or obligation (B). References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 2, page 68; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 2, page 74.
What physical characteristic does a retinal scan biometric device measure?
Options:
The amount of light reflected by the retina
The size, curvature, and shape of the retina
The pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye
The pattern of light receptors at the back of the eye
Answer:
CExplanation:
A retinal scan is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person’s retina blood vessels to identify them. The retina is a thin layer of tissue at the back of the eye that contains millions of light-sensitive cells and blood vessels. The retina converts the light rays that enter the eye into electrical signals that are sent to the brain for visual processing78
The pattern of blood vessels in the retina is not genetically determined and varies from person to person, even among identical twins. The retina also remains unchanged from birth until death, unless affected by some diseases or injuries. Therefore, the retina is considered to be one of the most accurate and reliable biometrics, apart from DNA78
A retinal scan is performed by projecting a low-energy infrared beam of light into a person’s eye as they look through the scanner’s eyepiece. The beam traces a standardized path on the retina, and the amount of light reflected by the blood vessels is measured. The pattern of variations in the reflection is digitized and stored in a database for comparison
Which of the following problems is not addressed by using OAuth (Open Standard to Authorization) 2.0 to integrate a third-party identity provider for a service?
Options:
Resource Servers are required to use passwords to authenticate end users.
Revocation of access of some users of the third party instead of all the users from the third party.
Compromise of the third party means compromise of all the users in the service.
Guest users need to authenticate with the third party identity provider.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The problem that is not addressed by using OAuth 2.0 to integrate a third-party identity provider for a service is that resource servers are required to use passwords to authenticate end users. OAuth 2.0 is a framework that enables a third-party application to obtain limited access to a protected resource on behalf of a resource owner, without exposing the resource owner’s credentials to the third-party application. OAuth 2.0 relies on an authorization server that acts as an identity provider and issues access tokens to the third-party application, based on the resource owner’s consent and the scope of the access request. OAuth 2.0 does not address the authentication of the resource owner or the end user by the resource server, which is the server that hosts the protected resource. The resource server may still require the resource owner or the end user to use passwords or other methods to authenticate themselves, before granting access to the protected resource. Revocation of access of some users of the third party instead of all the users from the third party, compromise of the third party means compromise of all the users in the service, and guest users need to authenticate with the third party identity provider are problems that are addressed by using OAuth 2.0 to integrate a third-party identity provider for a service, as they are related to the delegation, revocation, or granularity of the access control or the identity management. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 692. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 708.
It is MOST important to perform which of the following to minimize potential impact when implementing a new vulnerability scanning tool in a production environment?
Options:
Negotiate schedule with the Information Technology (IT) operation’s team
Log vulnerability summary reports to a secured server
Enable scanning during off-peak hours
Establish access for Information Technology (IT) management
Answer:
AExplanation:
It is most important to perform a schedule negotiation with the IT operation’s team to minimize the potential impact when implementing a new vulnerability scanning tool in a production environment. This is because a vulnerability scan can cause network congestion, performance degradation, or system instability, which can affect the availability and functionality of the production systems. Therefore, it is essential to coordinate with the IT operation’s team to determine the best time and frequency for the scan, as well as the scope and intensity of the scan. Logging vulnerability summary reports, enabling scanning during off-peak hours, and establishing access for IT management are also good practices for vulnerability scanning, but they are not as important as negotiating the schedule with the IT operation’s team. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7: Security Assessment and Testing, page 858; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 6: Security Assessment and Testing, page 794.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of implementing a Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
system?
Options:
Integration using Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Form-based user registration process
Integration with the organizations Human Resources (HR) system
A considerably simpler provisioning process
Answer:
DExplanation:
The greatest benefit of implementing a Role Based Access Control (RBAC) system is a considerably simpler provisioning process. Provisioning is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting the user accounts and access rights on a system or a network. Provisioning can be a complex and tedious task, especially in large or dynamic organizations that have many users, systems, and resources. RBAC is a type of access control model that assigns permissions to users based on their roles or functions within the organization, rather than on their individual identities or attributes. RBAC can simplify the provisioning process by reducing the administrative overhead and ensuring the consistency and accuracy of the user accounts and access rights. RBAC can also provide some benefits for security, such as enforcing the principle of least privilege, facilitating the separation of duties, and supporting the audit and compliance activities. Integration using Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP), form-based user registration process, and integration with the organizations Human Resources (HR) system are not the greatest benefits of implementing a RBAC system, although they may be related or useful features. Integration using LDAP is a technique that uses a standard protocol to communicate and exchange information with a directory service, such as Active Directory or OpenLDAP. LDAP can provide some benefits for access control, such as centralizing and standardizing the user accounts and access rights, supporting the authentication and authorization mechanisms, and enabling the interoperability and scalability of the systems or the network. However, integration using LDAP is not a benefit of RBAC, as it is not a feature or a requirement of RBAC, and it can be used with other access control models, such as discretionary access control (DAC) or mandatory access control (MAC). Form-based user registration process is a technique that uses a web-based form to collect and validate the user information and preferences, such as name, email, password, or role. Form-based user registration process can provide some benefits for access control, such as simplifying and automating the user account creation, enhancing the user experience and satisfaction, and supporting the self-service and delegation capabilities. However, form-based user registration process is not a benefit of RBAC, as it is not a feature or a requirement of RBAC, and it can be used with other access control models, such as DAC or MAC. Integration with the organizations HR system is a technique that uses a software application or a service to synchronize and update the user accounts and access rights with the HR data, such as employee records, job titles, or organizational units. Integration with the organizations HR system can provide some benefits for access control, such as streamlining and automating the provisioning process, improving the accuracy and timeliness of the user accounts and access rights, and supporting the identity lifecycle management activities. However, integration with the organizations HR system is not a benefit of RBAC, as it is not a feature or a requirement of RBAC, and it can be used with other access control models, such as DAC or MAC.
When developing solutions for mobile devices, in which phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) should technical limitations related to devices be specified?
Options:
Implementation
Initiation
Review
Development
Answer:
BExplanation:
The technical limitations related to devices should be specified in the initiation phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) when developing solutions for mobile devices. The initiation phase is the first phase of the SDLC, where the project scope, objectives, requirements, and constraints are defined and documented. The technical limitations related to devices are part of the constraints that affect the design and development of the software solutions for mobile devices, such as the screen size, memory capacity, battery life, network connectivity, or security features. The technical limitations should be identified and addressed early in the SDLC, to avoid rework, delays, or failures in the later phases. The implementation, review, and development phases are not the phases where the technical limitations should be specified, but where they should be considered and tested. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8: Software Development Security, page 922; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7: Software Development Security, page 844.
Which of the following is the MOST effective method to mitigate Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks?
Options:
Use Software as a Service (SaaS)
Whitelist input validation
Require client certificates
Validate data output
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most effective method to mitigate Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks is to use whitelist input validation. XSS attacks occur when an attacker injects malicious code, usually in the form of a script, into a web application that is then executed by the browser of an unsuspecting user. XSS attacks can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the web application and the user’s data. Whitelist input validation is a technique that checks the user input against a predefined set of acceptable values or characters, and rejects any input that does not match the whitelist. Whitelist input validation can prevent XSS attacks by filtering out any malicious or unexpected input that may contain harmful scripts. Whitelist input validation should be applied at the point of entry of the user input, and should be combined with output encoding or sanitization to ensure that any input that is displayed back to the user is safe and harmless. Use Software as a Service (SaaS), require client certificates, and validate data output are not the most effective methods to mitigate XSS attacks, although they may be related or useful techniques. Use Software as a Service (SaaS) is a model that delivers software applications over the Internet, usually on a subscription or pay-per-use basis. SaaS can provide some benefits for web security, such as reducing the attack surface, outsourcing the maintenance and patching of the software, and leveraging the expertise and resources of the service provider. However, SaaS does not directly address the issue of XSS attacks, as the service provider may still have vulnerabilities or flaws in their web applications that can be exploited by XSS attackers. Require client certificates is a technique that uses digital certificates to authenticate the identity of the clients who access a web application. Client certificates are issued by a trusted certificate authority (CA), and contain the public key and other information of the client. Client certificates can provide some benefits for web security, such as enhancing the confidentiality and integrity of the communication, preventing unauthorized access, and enabling mutual authentication. However, client certificates do not directly address the issue of XSS attacks, as the client may still be vulnerable to XSS attacks if the web application does not properly validate and encode the user input. Validate data output is a technique that checks the data that is sent from the web application to the client browser, and ensures that it is correct, consistent, and safe. Validate data output can provide some benefits for web security, such as detecting and correcting any errors or anomalies in the data, preventing data leakage or corruption, and enhancing the quality and reliability of the web application. However, validate data output is not sufficient to prevent XSS attacks, as the data output may still contain malicious scripts that can be executed by the client browser. Validate data output should be complemented with output encoding or sanitization to ensure that any data output that is displayed to the user is safe and harmless.
An international medical organization with headquarters in the United States (US) and branches in France
wants to test a drug in both countries. What is the organization allowed to do with the test subject’s data?
Options:
Aggregate it into one database in the US
Process it in the US, but store the information in France
Share it with a third party
Anonymize it and process it in the US
Answer:
DExplanation:
Anonymizing the test subject’s data means removing or masking any personally identifiable information (PII) that could be used to identify or trace the individual. This can help to protect the privacy and confidentiality of the test subjects, as well as comply with the data protection laws and regulations of both countries. Processing the anonymized data in the US can also help to reduce the costs and risks of transferring the data across borders. Aggregating the data into one database in the US, processing it in the US but storing it in France, or sharing it with a third party could all pose potential privacy and security risks, as well as legal and ethical issues, for the organization and the test subjects. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 67; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 62.
Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to ensure that security objectives are aligned with organization goals?
Options:
Senior management
Information security department
Audit committee
All users
Answer:
AExplanation:
Senior management has the primary responsibility to ensure that security objectives are aligned with organizational goals. Senior management is the highest level of authority and decision-making in an organization, and it sets the vision, mission, strategy, and objectives for the organization. Senior management is also responsible for establishing the security governance framework, which defines the roles, responsibilities, policies, standards, and procedures for security management. Senior management should ensure that the security function supports and enables the organizational goals, and that the security objectives are consistent, measurable, and achievable. Senior management should also provide adequate resources, guidance, and oversight for the security function, and communicate the security expectations and requirements to all stakeholders. The information security department, the audit committee, and all users have some roles and responsibilities in ensuring that security objectives are aligned with organizational goals, but they are not the primary ones. The information security department is responsible for implementing, maintaining, and monitoring the security controls and processes, and reporting on the security performance and incidents. The audit committee is responsible for reviewing and verifying the effectiveness and compliance of the security controls and processes, and providing recommendations for improvement. All users are responsible for following the security policies and procedures, and reporting any security issues or violations.
In a change-controlled environment, which of the following is MOST likely to lead to unauthorized changes to
production programs?
Options:
Modifying source code without approval
Promoting programs to production without approval
Developers checking out source code without approval
Developers using Rapid Application Development (RAD) methodologies without approval
Answer:
BExplanation:
In a change-controlled environment, the activity that is most likely to lead to unauthorized changes to production programs is promoting programs to production without approval. A change-controlled environment is an environment that follows a specific process or a procedure for managing and tracking the changes to the hardware and software components of a system or a network, such as the configuration, the functionality, or the security of the system or the network. A change-controlled environment can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the performance and the functionality of the system or the network, preventing or mitigating some types of attacks or vulnerabilities, and supporting the audit and the compliance activities. A change-controlled environment can involve various steps and roles, such as:
- Change request, which is the initiation or the proposal of a change to the system or the network, by a user, a developer, a manager, or another stakeholder. A change request should include the details and the justification of the change, such as the scope, the purpose, the impact, the cost, or the risk of the change.
- Change review, which is the evaluation or the assessment of the change request, by a group of experts or advisors, such as the change manager, the change review board, or the change advisory board. A change review should include the decision and the feedback of the change request, such as the approval, the rejection, the modification, or the postponement of the change request.
- Change development, which is the implementation or the execution of the change request, by a group of developers or programmers, who are responsible for creating or modifying the code or the program of the system or the network, according to the specifications and the requirements of the change request.
- Change testing, which is the verification or the validation of the change request, by a group of testers or analysts, who are responsible for checking or confirming the functionality and the quality of the code or the program of the system or the network, according to the standards and the criteria of the change request.
- Change deployment, which is the installation or the integration of the change request, by a group of administrators or operators, who are responsible for moving or transferring the code or the program of the system or the network, from the development or the testing environment to the production or the operational environment, according to the schedule and the plan of the change request.
Promoting programs to production without approval is the activity that is most likely to lead to unauthorized changes to production programs, as it violates the change-controlled environment process and procedure, and it introduces potential risks or issues to the system or the network. Promoting programs to production without approval means that the code or the program of the system or the network is moved or transferred from the development or the testing environment to the production or the operational environment, without obtaining the necessary or the sufficient authorization or consent from the relevant or the responsible parties, such as the change manager, the change review board, or the change advisory board. Promoting programs to production without approval can lead to unauthorized changes to production programs, as it can result in the following consequences:
- The code or the program of the system or the network may not be fully or properly tested or verified, and it may contain errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities that may affect the functionality or the quality of the system or the network, or that may compromise the security or the integrity of the system or the network.
- The code or the program of the system or the network may not be compatible or interoperable with the existing or the expected components or features of the system or the network, and it may cause conflicts, disruptions, or failures to the system or the network, or to the users or the customers of the system or the network.
- The code or the program of the system or the network may not be documented or recorded, and it may not be traceable or accountable, and it may not be aligned or compliant with the policies or the standards of the system or the network, or of the organization or the industry.
Which of the following methods of suppressing a fire is environmentally friendly and the MOST appropriate for a data center?
Options:
Inert gas fire suppression system
Halon gas fire suppression system
Dry-pipe sprinklers
Wet-pipe sprinklers
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most environmentally friendly and appropriate method of suppressing a fire in a data center is to use an inert gas fire suppression system. An inert gas fire suppression system is a type of gaseous fire suppression system that uses an inert gas, such as nitrogen, argon, or carbon dioxide, to extinguish a fire. An inert gas fire suppression system works by displacing the oxygen in the area and reducing the oxygen concentration below the level that supports combustion. An inert gas fire suppression system is environmentally friendly, as it does not produce any harmful or toxic by-products, and it does not deplete the ozone layer. An inert gas fire suppression system is also appropriate for a data center, as it does not damage or affect the electronic equipment, and it does not pose any health risks to the personnel, as long as the oxygen level is maintained above the minimum requirement for human survival. Halon gas fire suppression system, dry-pipe sprinklers, and wet-pipe sprinklers are not the most environmentally friendly and appropriate methods of suppressing a fire in a data center, although they may be effective or common fire suppression techniques. Halon gas fire suppression system is a type of gaseous fire suppression system that uses halon, a chemical compound that contains bromine, to extinguish a fire. Halon gas fire suppression system works by interrupting the chemical reaction of the fire and inhibiting the combustion process. Halon gas fire suppression system is not environmentally friendly, as it produces harmful or toxic by-products, and it depletes the ozone layer. Halon gas fire suppression system is also not appropriate for a data center, as it poses health risks to the personnel, and it is banned or restricted in many countries. Dry-pipe sprinklers are a type of water-based fire suppression system that uses pressurized air or nitrogen to fill the pipes, and water to spray from the sprinkler heads when a fire is detected. Dry-pipe sprinklers are not environmentally friendly, as they use water, which is a scarce and valuable resource, and they may cause water pollution or contamination. Dry-pipe sprinklers are also not appropriate for a data center, as they may damage or affect the electronic equipment, and they may trigger false alarms or accidental discharges. Wet-pipe sprinklers are a type of water-based fire suppression system that uses pressurized water to fill the pipes and spray from the sprinkler heads when a fire is detected. Wet-pipe sprinklers are not environmentally friendly, as they use water, which is a scarce and valuable resource, and they may cause water pollution or contamination. Wet-pipe sprinklers are also not appropriate for a data center, as they may damage or affect the electronic equipment, and they may trigger false alarms or accidental discharges.
During examination of Internet history records, the following string occurs within a Unique Resource Locator (URL):
or 1=1
What type of attack does this indicate?
Options:
Directory traversal
Structured Query Language (SQL) injection
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Shellcode injection
Answer:
BExplanation:
Structured Query Language (SQL) injection is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application that does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to a database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL commands into the input field, such as a search box or a login form, and execute them on the database server. The injected SQL commands can be used to perform various actions, such as accessing, modifying, or deleting data, bypassing authentication, or executing commands on the server. The string in the question is an example of a SQL injection attack, where the attacker appends a logical expression “or 1=1” to the productid parameter, which will always evaluate to true and return all the records from the products table.
A control to protect from a Denial-of-Service (DoS) attach has been determined to stop 50% of attacks, and additionally reduces the impact of an attack by 50%. What is the residual risk?
Options:
25%
50%
75%
100%
Answer:
AExplanation:
The residual risk is 25% in this scenario. Residual risk is the portion of risk that remains after security measures have been applied to mitigate the risk. Residual risk can be calculated by subtracting the risk reduction from the total risk. In this scenario, the total risk is 100%, and the risk reduction is 75%. The risk reduction is 75% because the control stops 50% of attacks, and reduces the impact of an attack by 50%. Therefore, the residual risk is 100% - 75% = 25%. Alternatively, the residual risk can be calculated by multiplying the probability and the impact of the remaining risk. In this scenario, the probability of an attack is 50%, and the impact of an attack is 50%. Therefore, the residual risk is 50% x 50% = 25%. 50%, 75%, and 100% are not the correct answers to the question, as they do not reflect the correct calculation of the residual risk.
An organization plan on purchasing a custom software product developed by a small vendor to support its business model. Which unique consideration should be made part of the contractual agreement potential long-term risks associated with creating this dependency?
Options:
A source code escrow clause
Right to request an independent review of the software source code
Due diligence form requesting statements of compliance with security requirements
Access to the technical documentation
Answer:
AExplanation:
A source code escrow clause is a unique consideration that should be made part of the contractual agreement when purchasing a custom software product developed by a small vendor to support the business model. A source code escrow clause is a provision that requires the vendor to deposit the source code of the software product with a trusted third party, who will release it to the customer under certain conditions, such as the vendor’s bankruptcy, insolvency, or failure to provide maintenance or support. A source code escrow clause can help to mitigate the potential long-term risks associated with creating a dependency on a small vendor, such as losing access to the software product, being unable to fix bugs or vulnerabilities, or being unable to modify or update the software product. A right to request an independent review of the software source code, a due diligence form requesting statements of compliance with security requirements, and an access to the technical documentation are not unique considerations, but common ones that should be included in any software acquisition contract. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 65; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 57.
What capability would typically be included in a commercially available software package designed for access control?
Options:
Password encryption
File encryption
Source library control
File authentication
Answer:
AExplanation:
Password encryption is a capability that would typically be included in a commercially available software package designed for access control. Password encryption is a technique that transforms the plain text passwords into unreadable ciphertexts, using a cryptographic algorithm and a key. Password encryption can help to protect the passwords from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification, as well as to prevent password cracking or guessing attacks. File encryption, source library control, and file authentication are not capabilities related to access control, but to data protection, configuration management, and data integrity, respectively. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5: Security Engineering, page 605; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 3: Security Architecture and Engineering, page 386.
A security compliance manager of a large enterprise wants to reduce the time it takes to perform network,
system, and application security compliance audits while increasing quality and effectiveness of the results.
What should be implemented to BEST achieve the desired results?
Options:
Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
Source code repository
Configuration Management Plan (CMP)
System performance monitoring application
Answer:
AExplanation:
A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is a database that stores information about configuration items (CIs) for use in change, release, incident, service request, problem, and configuration management processes. A CI is any component or resource that is part of a system or a network, such as hardware, software, documentation, or personnel. A CMDB can provide some benefits for security compliance audits, such as:
- Reducing the time it takes to perform network, system, and application security compliance audits, by providing a centralized and updated source of information about the CIs, their attributes, their relationships, and their dependencies, which can help to identify and locate the CIs that are subject to the audit, and to avoid duplication or omission of the audit tasks.
- Increasing the quality and effectiveness of the results of network, system, and application security compliance audits, by providing a consistent and accurate view of the current and historical state of the CIs, their compliance status, and their changes, which can help to verify and validate the compliance of the CIs with the policies and standards, and to detect and report any deviations or violations.
A source code repository, a configuration management plan (CMP), and a system performance monitoring application are not the best options to achieve the desired results of reducing the time and increasing the quality and effectiveness of network, system, and application security compliance audits, although they may be related or useful tools or techniques. A source code repository is a database or a system that stores and manages the source code of a software or an application, and that supports version control, collaboration, and documentation of the code. A source code repository can provide some benefits for security compliance audits, such as:
- Reducing the time it takes to perform application security compliance audits, by providing a centralized and accessible source of information about the code, its versions, its changes, and its history, which can help to identify and locate the code that is subject to the audit, and to avoid duplication or omission of the audit tasks.
- Increasing the quality and effectiveness of the results of application security compliance audits, by providing a consistent and accurate view of the current and historical state of the code, its compliance status, and its changes, which can help to verify and validate the compliance of the code with the policies and standards, and to detect and report any deviations or violations.
However, a source code repository is not the best option to achieve the desired results of reducing the time and increasing the quality and effectiveness of network, system, and application security compliance audits, as it is only applicable to the application layer, and it does not provide information about the other CIs that are part of the system or the network, such as hardware, documentation, or personnel. A configuration management plan (CMP) is a document or a policy that defines and describes the objectives, scope, roles, responsibilities, processes, and procedures of configuration management, which is the process of identifying, controlling, tracking, and auditing the changes to the CIs. A CMP can provide some benefits for security compliance audits, such as:
- Reducing the time it takes to perform network, system, and application security compliance audits, by providing a clear and comprehensive guidance and direction for the configuration management activities, which can help to ensure the consistency and the efficiency of the configuration management process, and to avoid confusion or conflicts among the configuration management stakeholders.
- Increasing the quality and effectiveness of the results of network, system, and application security compliance audits, by providing a framework and a standard for the configuration management activities, which can help to ensure the alignment and the compliance of the configuration management process with the policies and standards, and to support the audit and the compliance activities.
However, a CMP is not the best option to achieve the desired results of reducing the time and increasing the quality and effectiveness of network, system, and application security compliance audits, as it is not a database or a system that stores and provides information about the CIs, but rather a document or a policy that defines and describes the configuration management process. A system performance monitoring application is a software or a tool that collects and analyzes data and metrics about the performance and the behavior of a system or a network, such as availability, reliability, throughput, response time, or resource utilization. A system performance monitoring application can provide some benefits for security compliance audits, such as:
- Reducing the time it takes to perform network and system security compliance audits, by providing a real-time and automated source of information about the performance and the behavior of the system or the network, which can help to identify and locate the issues or the problems that may affect the compliance of the system or the network, and to avoid manual or tedious audit tasks.
- Increasing the quality and effectiveness of the results of network and system security compliance audits, by providing a quantitative and objective view of the performance and the behavior of the system or the network, which can help to measure and evaluate the compliance of the system or the network with the policies and standards, and to detect and report any anomalies or deviations.
However, a system performance monitoring application is not the best option to achieve the desired results of reducing the time and increasing the quality and effectiveness of network, system, and application security compliance audits, as it is only applicable to the network and system layers, and it does not provide information about the other CIs that are part of the system or the network, such as software, documentation, or personnel.
Which of the following is the MOST important part of an awareness and training plan to prepare employees for emergency situations?
Options:
Having emergency contacts established for the general employee population to get information
Conducting business continuity and disaster recovery training for those who have a direct role in the recovery
Designing business continuity and disaster recovery training programs for different audiences
Publishing a corporate business continuity and disaster recovery plan on the corporate website
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most important part of an awareness and training plan to prepare employees for emergency situations is to design business continuity and disaster recovery training programs for different audiences. This means that the training content, format, frequency, and delivery methods should be tailored to the specific needs, roles, and responsibilities of the target audience, such as senior management, business unit managers, IT staff, recovery team members, or general employees. Different audiences may have different levels of awareness, knowledge, skills, and involvement in the business continuity and disaster recovery processes, and therefore require different types of training to ensure they are adequately prepared and informed. Designing business continuity and disaster recovery training programs for different audiences can help to increase the effectiveness, efficiency, and consistency of the training, as well as the engagement, motivation, and retention of the learners. Having emergency contacts established for the general employee population to get information, conducting business continuity and disaster recovery training for those who have a direct role in the recovery, and publishing a corporate business continuity and disaster recovery plan on the corporate website are all important parts of an awareness and training plan, but they are not as important as designing business continuity and disaster recovery training programs for different audiences. Having emergency contacts established for the general employee population to get information can help to provide timely and accurate communication and guidance during an emergency situation, but it does not necessarily prepare the employees for their roles and responsibilities before, during, and after the emergency. Conducting business continuity and disaster recovery training for those who have a direct role in the recovery can help to ensure that they are competent and confident to perform their tasks and duties in the event of a disruption, but it does not address the needs and expectations of other audiences who may also be affected by or involved in the business continuity and disaster recovery processes. Publishing a corporate business continuity and disaster recovery plan on the corporate website can help to make the plan accessible and transparent to the stakeholders, but it does not guarantee that the plan is understood, followed, or updated by the employees.
“Stateful” differs from “Static” packet filtering firewalls by being aware of which of the following?
Options:
Difference between a new and an established connection
Originating network location
Difference between a malicious and a benign packet payload
Originating application session
Answer:
AExplanation:
Stateful firewalls differ from static packet filtering firewalls by being aware of the difference between a new and an established connection. A stateful firewall is a firewall that keeps track of the state of network connections and transactions, and uses this information to make filtering decisions. A stateful firewall maintains a state table that records the source and destination IP addresses, port numbers, protocols, and sequence numbers of each connection. A stateful firewall can distinguish between a new connection, which requires a three-way handshake to be completed, and an established connection, which has already completed the handshake and is ready to exchange data. A stateful firewall can also detect when a connection is terminated or idle, and remove it from the state table. A stateful firewall can provide more security and efficiency than a static packet filtering firewall, which only examines the header of each packet and compares it to a set of predefined rules. A static packet filtering firewall does not keep track of the state of connections, and cannot differentiate between new and established connections. A static packet filtering firewall may allow or block packets based on the source and destination IP addresses, port numbers, and protocols, but it cannot inspect the payload or the sequence numbers of the packets. A static packet filtering firewall may also be vulnerable to spoofing or flooding attacks, as it cannot verify the authenticity or validity of the packets. The other options are not aspects that stateful firewalls are aware of, but static packet filtering firewalls are not. Both types of firewalls can check the originating network location of the packets, but they cannot check the difference between a malicious and a benign packet payload, or the originating application session of the packets. References: Stateless vs Stateful Packet Filtering Firewalls - GeeksforGeeks; Stateful vs Stateless Firewall: Differences and Examples - Fortinet; Stateful Inspection Firewalls Explained - Palo Alto Networks.
Attack trees are MOST useful for which of the following?
Options:
Determining system security scopes
Generating attack libraries
Enumerating threats
Evaluating Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Answer:
CExplanation:
Attack trees are most useful for enumerating threats. Attack trees are graphical models that represent the possible ways that an attacker can exploit a system or achieve a goal. Attack trees consist of nodes that represent the attacker’s actions or conditions, and branches that represent the logical relationships between the nodes. Attack trees can help to enumerate the threats that the system faces, as well as to analyze the likelihood, impact, and countermeasures of each threat. Attack trees are not useful for determining system security scopes, generating attack libraries, or evaluating DoS attacks, although they may be used as inputs or outputs for these tasks. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations, page 499; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, page 552.
Which of the following mechanisms will BEST prevent a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack?
Options:
parameterized database queries
whitelist input values
synchronized session tokens
use strong ciphers
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best mechanism to prevent a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack is to use synchronized session tokens. A CSRF attack is a type of web application vulnerability that exploits the trust that a site has in a user’s browser. A CSRF attack occurs when a malicious site, email, or link tricks a user’s browser into sending a forged request to a vulnerable site, where the user is already authenticated. The vulnerable site cannot distinguish between the legitimate and the forged requests, and may perform an unwanted action on behalf of the user, such as changing a password, transferring funds, or deleting data. Synchronized session tokens are a technique to prevent CSRF attacks by adding a random and unique value to each request that is generated by the server and verified by the server before processing the request. The token is usually stored in a hidden form field or a custom HTTP header, and is tied to the user’s session. The token ensures that the request originates from the same site that issued it, and not from a malicious site. Synchronized session tokens are also known as CSRF tokens, anti-CSRF tokens, or state tokens. Parameterized database queries, whitelist input values, and use strong ciphers are not mechanisms to prevent CSRF attacks, although they may be useful for other types of web application vulnerabilities. Parameterized database queries are a technique to prevent SQL injection attacks by using placeholders or parameters for user input, instead of concatenating or embedding user input directly into the SQL query. Parameterized database queries ensure that the user input is treated as data and not as part of the SQL command. Whitelist input values are a technique to prevent input validation attacks by allowing only a predefined set of values or characters for user input, instead of rejecting or filtering out unwanted or malicious values or characters. Whitelist input values ensure that the user input conforms to the expected format and type. Use strong ciphers are a technique to prevent encryption attacks by using cryptographic algorithms and keys that are resistant to brute force, cryptanalysis, or other attacks. Use strong ciphers ensure that the encrypted data is confidential, authentic, and integral.
The security accreditation task of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) process is completed at the end of which phase?
Options:
System acquisition and development
System operations and maintenance
System initiation
System implementation
Answer:
DExplanation:
The security accreditation task of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) process is completed at the end of the system implementation phase. The SDLC is a framework that describes the stages and activities involved in the development, deployment, and maintenance of a system. The SDLC typically consists of the following phases: system initiation, system acquisition and development, system implementation, system operations and maintenance, and system disposal. The security accreditation task is the process of formally authorizing a system to operate in a specific environment, based on the security requirements, controls, and risks. The security accreditation task is part of the security certification and accreditation (C&A) process, which also includes the security certification task, which is the process of technically evaluating and testing the security controls and functionality of a system. The security accreditation task is completed at the end of the system implementation phase, which is the phase where the system is installed, configured, integrated, and tested in the target environment. The security accreditation task involves reviewing the security certification results and documentation, such as the security plan, the security assessment report, and the plan of action and milestones, and making a risk-based decision to grant, deny, or conditionally grant the authorization to operate (ATO) the system. The security accreditation task is usually performed by a senior official, such as the authorizing official (AO) or the designated approving authority (DAA), who has the authority and responsibility to accept the security risks and approve the system operation. The security accreditation task is not completed at the end of the system acquisition and development, system operations and maintenance, or system initiation phases. The system acquisition and development phase is the phase where the system requirements, design, and development are defined and executed, and the security controls are selected and implemented. The system operations and maintenance phase is the phase where the system is used and supported in the operational environment, and the security controls are monitored and updated. The system initiation phase is the phase where the system concept, scope, and objectives are established, and the security categorization and planning are performed.
Which of the following is a common feature of an Identity as a Service (IDaaS) solution?
Options:
Single Sign-On (SSO) authentication support
Privileged user authentication support
Password reset service support
Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS) authentication support
Answer:
AExplanation:
Single Sign-On (SSO) is a feature that allows a user to authenticate once and access multiple applications or services without having to re-enter their credentials. SSO improves the user experience and reduces the password management burden for both users and administrators. SSO is a common feature of Identity as a Service (IDaaS) solutions, which are cloud-based services that provide identity and access management capabilities to organizations. IDaaS solutions typically support various SSO protocols and standards, such as Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML), OpenID Connect (OIDC), OAuth, and Kerberos, to enable seamless and secure integration with different applications and services, both on-premises and in the cloud.
Which of the following is BEST achieved through the use of eXtensible Access Markup Language (XACML)?
Options:
Minimize malicious attacks from third parties
Manage resource privileges
Share digital identities in hybrid cloud
Defined a standard protocol
Answer:
BExplanation:
XACML is an XML-based language for specifying access control policies. It defines a declarative, fine-grained, attribute-based access control policy language, an architecture, and a processing model describing how to evaluate access requests according to the rules defined in policies. XACML is best suited for managing resource privileges, as it allows for flexible and dynamic authorization decisions based on various attributes of the subject, resource, action, and environment. XACML is not designed to minimize malicious attacks, share digital identities, or define a standard protocol, although it can interoperate with other standards such as SAML and OAuth. References: XACML - Wikipedia; OASIS eXtensible Access Control Markup Language (XACML) TC; A beginner’s guide to XACML.
What is the PRIMARY goal of fault tolerance?
Options:
Elimination of single point of failure
Isolation using a sandbox
Single point of repair
Containment to prevent propagation
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary goal of fault tolerance is to eliminate single point of failure, which is any component or resource that is essential for the operation or the functionality of a system or a network, and that can cause the entire system or network to fail or malfunction if it fails or malfunctions itself. Fault tolerance is the ability of a system or a network to suffer a fault but continue to operate, by adding redundant or backup components or resources that can take over or replace the failed or malfunctioning component or resource, without affecting the performance or the quality of the system or network. Fault tolerance can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the availability and the reliability of the system or network, preventing or mitigating some types of attacks or vulnerabilities, and supporting the audit and the compliance activities. Fault tolerance can be implemented using various methods or techniques, such as:
- Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID), which is a method or a technique of storing data on multiple disks or drives, using different levels or schemes of data distribution or replication, such as mirroring, striping, or parity, to improve the performance or the fault tolerance of the disk storage system, and to protect the data from disk failure or corruption.
- Failover clustering, which is a method or a technique of grouping two or more servers or nodes, using a shared storage device and a network connection, to provide high availability or fault tolerance for a service or an application, by allowing one server or node to take over or replace another server or node that fails or malfunctions, without affecting the service or the application.
- Load balancing, which is a method or a technique of distributing the workload or the traffic among multiple servers or nodes, using a device or a software that acts as a mediator or a coordinator, to improve the performance or the fault tolerance of the system or network, by preventing or mitigating the overload or the congestion of any server or node, and by allowing the replacement or the addition of any server or node, without affecting the system or network.
Isolation using a sandbox, single point of repair, and containment to prevent propagation are not the primary goals of fault tolerance, although they may be related or possible outcomes or benefits of fault tolerance. Isolation using a sandbox is a security concept or technique that involves executing or testing a program or a code in a separate or a restricted environment, such as a virtual machine or a container, to protect the system or the network from any potential harm or damage that the program or the code may cause, such as malware, viruses, worms, or trojans. Isolation using a sandbox can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the confidentiality and the integrity of the system or the network, preventing or mitigating some types of attacks or vulnerabilities, and supporting the audit and the compliance activities. However, isolation using a sandbox is not the primary goal of fault tolerance, as it is not a method or a technique of adding redundant or backup components or resources to the system or the network, and it does not address the availability or the reliability of the system or the network. Single point of repair is a security concept or technique that involves identifying or locating the component or the resource that is responsible for the failure or the malfunction of the system or the network, and that can restore or recover the system or the network if it is repaired or replaced, such as a disk, a server, or a router. Single point of repair can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the availability and the reliability of the system or the network, preventing or mitigating some types of attacks or vulnerabilities, and supporting the audit and the compliance activities. However, single point of repair is not the primary goal of fault tolerance, as it is not a method or a technique of adding redundant or backup components or resources to the system or the network, and it does not prevent or eliminate the failure or the malfunction of the system or the network. Containment to prevent propagation is a security concept or technique that involves isolating or restricting the component or the resource that is affected or infected by a fault or an attack, such as a malware, a virus, a worm, or a trojan, to prevent or mitigate the spread or the transmission of the fault or the attack to other components or resources of the system or the network, such as by disconnecting, disabling, or quarantining the component or the resource. Containment to prevent propagation can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the confidentiality and the integrity of the system or the network, preventing or mitigating some types of attacks or vulnerabilities, and supporting the audit and the compliance activities. However, containment to prevent propagation is not the primary goal of fault tolerance, as it is not a method or a technique of adding redundant or backup components or resources to the system or the network, and it does not ensure or improve the performance or the quality of the system or the network.
An organization’s security policy delegates to the data owner the ability to assign which user roles have access
to a particular resource. What type of authorization mechanism is being used?
Options:
Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
Media Access Control (MAC)
Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Answer:
AExplanation:
Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is a type of authorization mechanism that grants or denies access to resources based on the identity of the user and the permissions assigned by the owner of the resource. The owner of the resource has the discretion to decide who can access the resource and what level of access they can have. For example, the owner of a file can assign read, write, or execute permissions to different users or groups. DAC is flexible and easy to implement, but it also poses security risks, such as unauthorized access, data leakage, or privilege escalation, if the owner is not careful or knowledgeable about the security implications of their decisions.
Which of the following would an attacker BEST be able to accomplish through the use of Remote Access Tools (RAT)?
Options:
Reduce the probability of identification
Detect further compromise of the target
Destabilize the operation of the host
Maintain and expand control
Answer:
DExplanation:
Remote Access Tools (RAT) are malicious software that allow an attacker to remotely access and control a compromised host, often without the user’s knowledge or consent. RATs can be used to perform various malicious activities, such as stealing data, installing backdoors, executing commands, spying on the user, or spreading to other hosts. One of the main objectives of RATs is to maintain and expand control over the target network, by evading detection, hiding their presence, and creating persistence mechanisms.
Access to which of the following is required to validate web session management?
Options:
Log timestamp
Live session traffic
Session state variables
Test scripts
Answer:
CExplanation:
Access to session state variables is required to validate web session management. Web session management is the process of maintaining the state and information of a user across multiple requests and interactions with a web application. Web session management relies on session state variables, which are data elements that store the user’s preferences, settings, authentication status, and other relevant information for the duration of the session. Session state variables can be stored on the client side (such as cookies or local storage) or on the server side (such as databases or files). To validate web session management, it is necessary to access the session state variables and verify that they are properly generated, maintained, and destroyed by the web application. This can help to ensure the security, functionality, and performance of the web application and the user experience. The other options are not required to validate web session management. Log timestamp is a data element that records the date and time of a user’s activity or event on the web application, but it does not store the user’s state or information. Live session traffic is the network data that is exchanged between the user and the web application during the session, but it does not reflect the session state variables that are stored on the client or the server side. Test scripts are code segments that are used to automate the testing of the web application’s features and functions, but they do not access the session state variables directly. References: Session Management - OWASP Cheat Sheet Series; Session Management: An Overview | SecureCoding.com; Session Management in HTTP - GeeksforGeeks.
Match the functional roles in an external audit to their responsibilities.
Drag each role on the left to its corresponding responsibility on the right.
Select and Place:
Options:
Answer:
Explanation:
The correct matching of the functional roles and their responsibilities in an external audit is:
- Executive management: Approve audit budget and resource allocation
- Audit committee: Provide audit oversight
- Compliance officer: Ensure the achievement and maintenance of organizational requirements with applicable certifications
- External auditor: Develop and maintain knowledge and subject-matter expertise relevant to the type of audit
Comprehensive Explanation: An external audit is an independent and objective examination of an organization’s financial statements, systems, processes, or performance by an external party. The functional roles and their responsibilities in an external audit are:
- Executive management: The highest-ranking executives in the organization, who have the authority and responsibility for the overall direction and performance of the organization. They approve the audit budget and resource allocation, as well as the scope and objectives of the audit.
- Audit committee: A subcommittee of the board of directors, who oversee the audit activities and ensure the quality and integrity of the audit process. They provide audit oversight, such as selecting and appointing the external auditor, reviewing and approving the audit plan and report, and monitoring the implementation of the audit recommendations.
- Compliance officer: A person who is responsible for ensuring that the organization complies with the applicable laws, regulations, standards, and policies. They ensure the achievement and maintenance of organizational requirements with applicable certifications, such as ISO, PCI, or HIPAA, and coordinate with the external auditor to provide the necessary evidence and documentation.
- External auditor: A person who is hired by the audit committee or the executive management to conduct the external audit. They develop and maintain knowledge and subject-matter expertise relevant to the type of audit, such as financial, operational, or security audit, and follow the professional standards and guidelines for conducting the audit.
References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide
Which of the following is MOST appropriate for protecting confidentially of data stored on a hard drive?
Options:
Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Message Digest 5 (MD5)
Secure Hash Algorithm 2(SHA-2)
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most appropriate method for protecting the confidentiality of data stored on a hard drive is to use the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES). AES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data. AES can provide strong and efficient encryption for data at rest, as it uses a block cipher that operates on fixed-size blocks of data, and it supports various key sizes, such as 128, 192, or 256 bits. AES can protect the confidentiality of data stored on a hard drive by transforming the data into an unreadable form that can only be accessed by authorized parties who possess the correct key. AES can also provide some degree of integrity and authentication, as it can detect any modification or tampering of the encrypted data. Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES), Message Digest 5 (MD5), and Secure Hash Algorithm 2 (SHA-2) are not the most appropriate methods for protecting the confidentiality of data stored on a hard drive, although they may be related or useful cryptographic techniques. 3DES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses three iterations of the Data Encryption Standard (DES) algorithm with two or three different keys to encrypt and decrypt data. 3DES can provide encryption for data at rest, but it is not as strong or efficient as AES, as it uses a smaller key size (56 bits per iteration), and it is slower and more complex than AES. MD5 is a hash function that produces a fixed-length output (128 bits) from a variable-length input. MD5 does not provide encryption for data at rest, as it does not use any key to transform the data, and it cannot be reversed to recover the original data. MD5 can provide some integrity for data at rest, as it can verify if the data has been changed or corrupted, but it is not secure or reliable, as it is vulnerable to collisions and pre-image attacks. SHA-2 is a hash function that produces a fixed-length output (224, 256, 384, or 512 bits) from a variable-length input. SHA-2 does not provide encryption for data at rest, as it does not use any key to transform the data, and it cannot be reversed to recover the original data. SHA-2 can provide integrity for data at rest, as it can verify if the data has been changed or corrupted, and it is more secure and reliable than MD5, as it is resistant to collisions and pre-image attacks.
Who is accountable for the information within an Information System (IS)?
Options:
Security manager
System owner
Data owner
Data processor
Answer:
CExplanation:
The data owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for the information within an Information System (IS). The data owner is accountable for the security, quality, and integrity of the data, as well as for defining the classification, sensitivity, retention, and disposal of the data. The data owner must also approve or deny the access requests and periodically review the access rights. The security manager, the system owner, and the data processor are not accountable for the information within an IS, but they may have roles and responsibilities related to the security and operation of the IS. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 48; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 40.
Unused space in a disk cluster is important in media analysis because it may contain which of the following?
Options:
Residual data that has not been overwritten
Hidden viruses and Trojan horses
Information about the File Allocation table (FAT)
Information about patches and upgrades to the system
Answer:
AExplanation:
Unused space in a disk cluster is important in media analysis because it may contain residual data that has not been overwritten. A disk cluster is a fixed-length block of disk space that is used to store files. A file may occupy one or more clusters, depending on its size. If a file is smaller than a cluster, the remaining space in the cluster is called slack space. If a file is deleted, the clusters that were allocated to the file are marked as free or unallocated, but the data in the clusters is not erased. Residual data is the data that remains in the slack space or the unallocated space after a file is created, modified, or deleted. Residual data is important in media analysis because it may contain valuable or sensitive information that can be recovered by using forensic tools or techniques. Residual data may include fragments of previous files, temporary files, cache files, swap files, metadata, passwords, encryption keys, or personal data. Residual data can pose a security risk if the media is reused, recycled, or disposed of without proper sanitization. Hidden viruses and Trojan horses, information about the File Allocation table (FAT), and information about patches and upgrades to the system are not the reasons why unused space in a disk cluster is important in media analysis, although they may be related or relevant concepts. Hidden viruses and Trojan horses are malicious programs that can infect or compromise a system or a network. Hidden viruses and Trojan horses may reside in the unused space in a disk cluster, but they are not the result of file creation, modification, or deletion, and they are not the target of media analysis. Information about the File Allocation table (FAT) is the information that describes how the disk clusters are allocated to the files. Information about the File Allocation table (FAT) is stored in a special area of the disk, not in the unused space in a disk cluster, and it is not the result of file creation, modification, or deletion, and it is not the target of media analysis. Information about patches and upgrades to the system is the information that describes the changes or improvements made to the system software or hardware. Information about patches and upgrades to the system may be stored in the unused space in a disk cluster, but it is not the result of file creation, modification, or deletion, and it is not the target of media analysis.
As part of an application penetration testing process, session hijacking can BEST be achieved by which of the following?
Options:
Known-plaintext attack
Denial of Service (DoS)
Cookie manipulation
Structured Query Language (SQL) injection
Answer:
CExplanation:
Cookie manipulation is a technique that allows an attacker to intercept, modify, or forge a cookie, which is a piece of data that is used to maintain the state of a web session. By manipulating the cookie, the attacker can hijack the session and gain unauthorized access to the web application. Known-plaintext attack, DoS, and SQL injection are not directly related to session hijacking, although they can be used for other purposes, such as breaking encryption, disrupting availability, or executing malicious commands. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 6: Communication and Network Security, page 729; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, page 522.
A security practitioner is tasked with securing the organization’s Wireless Access Points (WAP). Which of these is the MOST effective way of restricting this environment to authorized users?
Options:
Enable Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) encryption on the wireless access point
Disable the broadcast of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) name
Change the name of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) to a random value not associated with the organization
Create Access Control Lists (ACL) based on Media Access Control (MAC) addresses
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most effective way of restricting the wireless environment to authorized users is to enable Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) encryption on the wireless access point. WPA2 is a security protocol that provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for wireless networks. WPA2 uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) to encrypt the data transmitted over the wireless network, and prevents unauthorized users from intercepting or modifying the traffic. WPA2 also uses a pre-shared key (PSK) or an Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) to authenticate the users who want to join the wireless network, and prevents unauthorized users from accessing the network resources. WPA2 is the current standard for wireless security and is widely supported by most wireless devices. The other options are not as effective as WPA2 encryption for restricting the wireless environment to authorized users. Disabling the broadcast of the SSID name is a technique that hides the name of the wireless network from being displayed on the list of available networks, but it does not prevent unauthorized users from discovering the name by using a wireless sniffer or a brute force tool. Changing the name of the SSID to a random value not associated with the organization is a technique that reduces the likelihood of being targeted by an attacker who is looking for a specific network, but it does not prevent unauthorized users from joining the network if they know the name and the password. Creating ACLs based on MAC addresses is a technique that allows or denies access to the wireless network based on the physical address of the wireless device, but it does not prevent unauthorized users from spoofing a valid MAC address or bypassing the ACL by using a wireless bridge or a repeater. References: Secure Wireless Access Points - Fortinet; Configure Wireless Security Settings on a WAP - Cisco; Best WAP of 2024 | TechRadar.
Which of the following access management procedures would minimize the possibility of an organization's employees retaining access to secure werk areas after they change roles?
Options:
User access modification
user access recertification
User access termination
User access provisioning
Answer:
AExplanation:
The access management procedure that would minimize the possibility of an organization’s employees retaining access to secure work areas after they change roles is user access modification. User access modification is a process that involves changing or updating the access rights or permissions of a user account based on the user’s current role, responsibilities, or needs. User access modification can help to minimize the possibility of an organization’s employees retaining access to secure work areas after they change roles, as it can ensure that the employees only have the access that is necessary and appropriate for their new roles, and that any access that is no longer needed or authorized is revoked or removed. User access recertification, user access termination, and user access provisioning are not access management procedures that can minimize the possibility of an organization’s employees retaining access to secure work areas after they change roles, but they can help to verify, revoke, or grant the access of the user accounts, respectively. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 2: Asset Security, page 154; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 2: Asset Security, page 146.
What is the MOST significant benefit of an application upgrade that replaces randomly generated session keys with certificate based encryption for communications with backend servers?
Options:
Non-repudiation
Efficiency
Confidentially
Privacy
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most significant benefit of an application upgrade that replaces randomly generated session keys with certificate based encryption for communications with backend servers is non-repudiation. Non-repudiation is a security property that ensures that the parties involved in a communication or transaction cannot deny their participation or the validity of the data. Non-repudiation can provide some benefits for web security, such as enhancing the accountability and trustworthiness of the parties, preventing fraud or disputes, and enabling legal or forensic evidence. Certificate based encryption is a technique that uses digital certificates to encrypt and decrypt data. Digital certificates are issued by a trusted certificate authority (CA), and contain the public key and other information of the owner. Certificate based encryption can provide non-repudiation by using the public key and the private key of the parties to perform encryption and decryption, and by using digital signatures to verify the identity and the integrity of the data. Certificate based encryption can also provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for the communication. Session keys are temporary keys that are used to encrypt and decrypt data for a single session or communication. Session keys are usually randomly generated and exchanged between the parties using a key exchange protocol, such as Diffie-Hellman or RSA. Session keys can provide confidentiality and integrity for the communication, but they cannot provide non-repudiation, as the parties can deny their possession or usage of the session keys, or claim that the session keys were compromised or tampered with. Efficiency, confidentiality, and privacy are not the most significant benefits of an application upgrade that replaces randomly generated session keys with certificate based encryption for communications with backend servers, although they may be related or useful properties. Efficiency is a performance property that measures how well a system or a process uses the available resources, such as time, space, or energy. Efficiency can be affected by various factors, such as the design, the implementation, the optimization, or the maintenance of the system or the process. Efficiency may or may not be improved by an application upgrade that replaces randomly generated session keys with certificate based encryption for communications with backend servers, depending on the trade-offs between the security and the performance of the encryption techniques. Confidentiality is a security property that ensures that the data is only accessible or disclosed to the authorized parties. Confidentiality can be provided by both session keys and certificate based encryption, as they both use encryption to protect the data from unauthorized access or disclosure. However, confidentiality is not the most significant benefit of an application upgrade that replaces randomly generated session keys with certificate based encryption for communications with backend servers, as it is not a new or enhanced property that is introduced by the upgrade. Privacy is a security property that ensures that the personal or sensitive information of the parties is protected from unauthorized collection, processing, or sharing. Privacy can be affected by various factors, such as the policies, the regulations, the technologies, or the behaviors of the parties involved in the communication or transaction. Privacy may or may not be improved by an application upgrade that replaces randomly generated session keys with certificate based encryption for communications with backend servers, depending on the type and the amount of information that is encrypted and transmitted. However, privacy is not the most significant benefit of an application upgrade that replaces randomly generated session keys with certificate based encryption for communications with backend servers, as it is not a direct or specific property that is provided by the encryption techniques.
Which of the following management process allows ONLY those services required for users to accomplish
their tasks, change default user passwords, and set servers to retrieve antivirus updates?
Options:
Configuration
Identity
Compliance
Patch
Answer:
AExplanation:
The management process that allows only those services required for users to accomplish their tasks, change default user passwords, and set servers to retrieve antivirus updates is configuration. Configuration is the process of setting and adjusting the parameters and options of a system or a network, such as hardware, software, or services, to meet the requirements and objectives of the organization. Configuration can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the performance and the functionality of the system or the network, preventing or mitigating some types of attacks or vulnerabilities, and supporting the audit and compliance activities. Configuration can involve various techniques and tools, such as configuration management, configuration control, configuration auditing, or configuration baselines. Configuration can allow only those services required for users to accomplish their tasks, change default user passwords, and set servers to retrieve antivirus updates, by using the following methods:
- Enabling or disabling the services that are necessary or unnecessary for the system or the network, such as file sharing, remote access, or printing. This can help to reduce the attack surface and the exposure of the system or the network, as well as to optimize the resource utilization and the bandwidth consumption.
- Changing the default user passwords that are provided by the vendors or the manufacturers of the system or the network, such as routers, switches, or servers. This can help to prevent or mitigate some types of attacks or unauthorized access, such as brute force, dictionary, or credential stuffing, by using strong and unique passwords that are difficult to guess or crack.
- Setting the servers to retrieve antivirus updates automatically or periodically from the trusted sources, such as the antivirus vendors or the security providers. This can help to protect the system or the network from malware infections or exploits, by updating and applying the latest malware signatures, heuristics, or behavioral analysis to the system or the network.
At a MINIMUM, audits of permissions to individual or group accounts should be scheduled
Options:
annually
to correspond with staff promotions
to correspond with terminations
continually
Answer:
DExplanation:
The minimum frequency for audits of permissions to individual or group accounts is continually. Audits of permissions are the processes of reviewing and verifying the user accounts and access rights on a system or a network, and ensuring that they are appropriate, necessary, and compliant with the policies and standards. Audits of permissions can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the accuracy and the reliability of the user accounts and access rights, identifying and removing any excessive, obsolete, or unauthorized access rights, and supporting the audit and the compliance activities. Audits of permissions should be performed continually, which means that they should be conducted on a regular and consistent basis, without any interruption or delay. Continual audits of permissions can help to maintain the security and the integrity of the system or the network, by detecting and addressing any changes or issues that may affect the user accounts and access rights, such as role changes, transfers, promotions, or terminations. Continual audits of permissions can also help to ensure the effectiveness and the feasibility of the audit process, by reducing the workload and the complexity of the audit tasks, and by providing timely and relevant feedback and results. Annually, to correspond with staff promotions, and to correspond with terminations are not the minimum frequencies for audits of permissions to individual or group accounts, although they may be related or possible frequencies. Annually means that the audits of permissions are performed once a year, which may not be sufficient or adequate to maintain the security and the integrity of the system or the network, as the user accounts and access rights may change or become outdated more frequently than that, due to various factors, such as role changes, transfers, promotions, or terminations. Annually audits of permissions may also increase the workload and the complexity of the audit process, as they may involve a large number of user accounts and access rights to review and verify, and they may not provide timely and relevant feedback and results. To correspond with staff promotions means that the audits of permissions are performed whenever a staff member is promoted to a higher or a different position within the organization, which may affect their user accounts and access rights. To correspond with staff promotions audits of permissions can help to ensure that the user accounts and access rights are aligned with the current roles or functions of the staff members, and that they follow the principle of least privilege. However, to correspond with staff promotions audits of permissions may not be sufficient or adequate to maintain the security and the integrity of the system or the network, as the user accounts and access rights may change or become outdated due to other factors, such as role changes, transfers, or terminations, and they may not be performed on a regular and consistent basis. To correspond with terminations means that the audits of permissions are performed whenever a staff member leaves the organization, which may affect their user accounts and access rights. To correspond with terminations audits of permissions can help to ensure that the user accounts and access rights are revoked or removed from the system or the network, and that they prevent any unauthorized or improper access or use. However, to correspond with terminations audits of permissions may not be sufficient or adequate to maintain the security and the integrity of the system or the network, as the user accounts and access rights may change or become outdated due to other factors, such as role changes, transfers, or promotions, and they may not be performed on a regular and consistent basis.
A minimal implementation of endpoint security includes which of the following?
Options:
Trusted platforms
Host-based firewalls
Token-based authentication
Wireless Access Points (AP)
Answer:
BExplanation:
A minimal implementation of endpoint security includes host-based firewalls. Endpoint security is the practice of protecting the devices that connect to a network, such as laptops, smartphones, tablets, or servers, from malicious attacks or unauthorized access. Endpoint security can involve various technologies and techniques, such as antivirus, encryption, authentication, patch management, or device control. Host-based firewalls are one of the basic and essential components of endpoint security, as they provide network-level protection for the individual devices. Host-based firewalls are software applications that monitor and filter the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a device, based on a set of rules or policies. Host-based firewalls can prevent or mitigate some types of attacks, such as denial-of-service, port scanning, or unauthorized connections, by blocking or allowing the packets that match or violate the firewall rules. Host-based firewalls can also provide some benefits for endpoint security, such as enhancing the visibility and the auditability of the network activities, enforcing the compliance and the consistency of the firewall policies, and reducing the reliance and the burden on the network-based firewalls. Trusted platforms, token-based authentication, and wireless access points (AP) are not the components that are included in a minimal implementation of endpoint security, although they may be related or useful technologies. Trusted platforms are hardware or software components that provide a secure and trustworthy environment for the execution of applications or processes on a device. Trusted platforms can involve various mechanisms, such as trusted platform modules (TPM), secure boot, or trusted execution technology (TXT). Trusted platforms can provide some benefits for endpoint security, such as enhancing the confidentiality and integrity of the data and the code, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering, and enabling remote attestation or verification. However, trusted platforms are not a minimal or essential component of endpoint security, as they are not widely available or supported on all types of devices, and they may not be compatible or interoperable with some applications or processes. Token-based authentication is a technique that uses a physical or logical device, such as a smart card, a one-time password generator, or a mobile app, to generate or store a credential that is used to verify the identity of the user who accesses a network or a system. Token-based authentication can provide some benefits for endpoint security, such as enhancing the security and reliability of the authentication process, preventing password theft or reuse, and enabling multi-factor authentication (MFA). However, token-based authentication is not a minimal or essential component of endpoint security, as it does not provide protection for the device itself, but only for the user access credentials, and it may require additional infrastructure or support to implement and manage. Wireless access points (AP) are hardware devices that allow wireless devices, such as laptops, smartphones, or tablets, to connect to a wired network, such as the Internet or a local area network (LAN). Wireless access points (AP) can provide some benefits for endpoint security, such as extending the network coverage and accessibility, supporting the encryption and authentication mechanisms, and enabling the segmentation and isolation of the wireless network. However, wireless access points (AP) are not a component of endpoint security, as they are not installed or configured on the individual devices, but on the network infrastructure, and they may introduce some security risks, such as signal interception, rogue access points, or unauthorized connections.
Which of the following is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) based access cards?
Options:
Personal Identity Verification (PIV)
Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication
Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection
Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response
Answer:
DExplanation:
Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of RFID based access cards. RFID based access cards are contactless cards that use radio frequency identification (RFID) technology to communicate with a reader and grant access to a physical or logical resource. RFID based access cards are vulnerable to electronic cloning, which is the process of copying the data and identity of a legitimate card to a counterfeit card, and using it to impersonate the original cardholder and gain unauthorized access. Asymmetric CAK challenge-response is a cryptographic technique that prevents electronic cloning by using public key cryptography and digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of the card and the reader. Asymmetric CAK challenge-response works as follows:
- The card and the reader each have a pair of public and private keys, and the public keys are exchanged and stored in advance.
- When the card is presented to the reader, the reader generates a random number (nonce) and sends it to the card.
- The card signs the nonce with its private key and sends the signature back to the reader.
- The reader verifies the signature with the card’s public key and grants access if the verification is successful.
- The card also verifies the reader’s identity by requesting its signature on the nonce and checking it with the reader’s public key.
Asymmetric CAK challenge-response prevents electronic cloning because the private keys of the card and the reader are never transmitted or exposed, and the signatures are unique and non-reusable for each transaction. Therefore, a cloned card cannot produce a valid signature without knowing the private key of the original card, and a rogue reader cannot impersonate a legitimate reader without knowing its private key.
The other options are not as effective as asymmetric CAK challenge-response in preventing electronic cloning of RFID based access cards. Personal Identity Verification (PIV) is a standard for federal employees and contractors to use smart cards for physical and logical access, but it does not specify the cryptographic technique for RFID based access cards. Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication is a technique that uses a unique number and a digital certificate to identify the card and the cardholder, but it does not prevent replay attacks or verify the reader’s identity. Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection is a technique that monitors and alerts on multiple failed or suspicious attempts to access a resource, but it does not prevent the cloning of the card or the impersonation of the reader.
Which one of the following affects the classification of data?
Options:
Assigned security label
Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture
Minimum query size
Passage of time
Answer:
DExplanation:
The passage of time is one of the factors that affects the classification of data. Data classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity or criticality to data based on its value, impact, and legal requirements. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and handling procedures for the data. However, data classification is not static, but dynamic, meaning that it can change over time depending on various factors. One of these factors is the passage of time, which can affect the relevance, usefulness, or sensitivity of the data. For example, data that is classified as confidential or secret at one point in time may become obsolete, outdated, or declassified at a later point in time, and thus require a lower level of protection. Conversely, data that is classified as public or unclassified at one point in time may become more valuable, sensitive, or regulated at a later point in time, and thus require a higher level of protection. Therefore, data classification should be reviewed and updated periodically to reflect the changes in the data over time.
The other options are not factors that affect the classification of data, but rather the outcomes or components of data classification. Assigned security label is the result of data classification, which indicates the level of sensitivity or criticality of the data. Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture is a system that supports data classification, which allows different levels of access to data based on the clearance and need-to-know of the users. Minimum query size is a parameter that can be used to enforce data classification, which limits the amount of data that can be retrieved or displayed at a time.
Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?
Options:
Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity
Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving
Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security
Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best description of the responsibilities of a data owner is determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization. A data owner is a person or entity that has the authority and accountability for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of a set of data. A data owner is also responsible for defining the purpose, value, and classification of the data, as well as the security requirements and controls for the data. A data owner should be able to determine the impact the information has on the mission of the organization, which means assessing the potential consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing the data. The impact of the information on the mission of the organization is one of the main criteria for data classification, which helps to establish the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data.
The other options are not the best descriptions of the responsibilities of a data owner, but rather the responsibilities of other roles or functions related to data management. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity is a responsibility of a data steward, who is a person or entity that oversees the quality, consistency, and usability of the data. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving is a responsibility of a data custodian, who is a person or entity that implements and maintains the technical and physical security of the data. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security is a responsibility of a data controller, who is a person or entity that determines the purposes and means of processing the data.
When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity?
Options:
The process will require too many resources
It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software
It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data
The process will be perceived as having value
Answer:
AExplanation:
When implementing a data classification program, it is important to avoid too much granularity, because the process will require too many resources. Data classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity or criticality to data based on its value, impact, and legal requirements. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and handling procedures for the data. However, data classification is not a simple or straightforward process, as it involves many factors, such as the nature, context, and scope of the data, the stakeholders, the regulations, and the standards. If the data classification program has too many levels or categories of data, it will increase the complexity, cost, and time of the process, and reduce the efficiency and effectiveness of the data protection. Therefore, data classification should be done with a balance between granularity and simplicity, and follow the principle of proportionality, which means that the level of protection should be proportional to the level of risk.
The other options are not the main reasons to avoid too much granularity in data classification, but rather the potential challenges or benefits of data classification. It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software is a challenge of data classification, as it requires consistent and compatible methods and tools for labeling and protecting data across different types of media and devices. It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data is a challenge of data classification, as it requires clear and accountable roles and responsibilities for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of data. The process will be perceived as having value is a benefit of data classification, as it demonstrates the commitment and awareness of the organization to protect its data assets and comply with its obligations.
Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system?
Options:
Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations
Understand the value of the information assets
Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management
Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements
Answer:
BExplanation:
When developing an information security management system (ISMS), an initial consideration is to understand the value of the information assets that the organization owns or processes. An information asset is any data, information, or knowledge that has value to the organization and supports its mission, objectives, and operations. Understanding the value of the information assets helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and investment for them, as well as the potential impact and consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing them. Understanding the value of the information assets also helps to identify the stakeholders, owners, and custodians of the information assets, and their roles and responsibilities in the ISMS.
The other options are not initial considerations, but rather subsequent or concurrent considerations when developing an ISMS. Identifying the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations is a consideration that depends on the nature, scope, and context of the information assets, as well as the relationships and agreements with the external parties. Identifying the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management is a consideration that depends on the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, as well as the risk assessment and analysis of the information assets. Identifying relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements is a consideration that depends on the legal and ethical obligations and expectations of the organization, as well as the jurisdiction and industry of the information assets.
An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests.
Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff?
Options:
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Identity as a Service (IDaaS)
Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Answer:
BExplanation:
Identity as a Service (IDaaS) is the best contract in offloading the task of account management from the IT staff. IDaaS is a cloud-based service that provides identity and access management (IAM) functions, such as user authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, password management, single sign-on (SSO), and multifactor authentication (MFA). IDaaS can help the organization to streamline and automate the account management process, reduce the workload and costs of the IT staff, and improve the security and compliance of the user accounts. IDaaS can also support the contractors who have limited onsite time, as they can access the organization’s resources remotely and securely through the IDaaS provider.
The other options are not as effective as IDaaS in offloading the task of account management from the IT staff, as they do not provide IAM functions. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides a platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications, but it does not manage the user accounts for the applications. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides virtual desktops for users to access applications and data, but it does not manage the user accounts for the virtual desktops. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides software applications for users to use, but it does not manage the user accounts for the software applications.
Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department?
Options:
The department should report to the business owner
Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed
Individual accountability should be ensured
All members should be trained on their responsibilities
Answer:
CExplanation:
When assigning ownership of an asset to a department, the most important factor is to ensure individual accountability for the asset. Individual accountability means that each person who has access to or uses the asset is responsible for its protection and proper handling. Individual accountability also implies that each person who causes or contributes to a security breach or incident involving the asset can be identified and held liable. Individual accountability can be achieved by implementing security controls such as authentication, authorization, auditing, and logging.
The other options are not as important as ensuring individual accountability, as they do not directly address the security risks associated with the asset. The department should report to the business owner is a management issue, not a security issue. Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed is a good practice, but it does not prevent misuse or abuse of the asset. All members should be trained on their responsibilities is a preventive measure, but it does not guarantee compliance or enforcement of the responsibilities.
In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the
Options:
system security managers
business managers
Information Technology (IT) managers
end users
Answer:
BExplanation:
In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the business managers. Business managers are the persons or entities that have the authority and accountability for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of a set of data. Business managers are also responsible for defining the purpose, value, and classification of the data, as well as the security requirements and controls for the data. Business managers should be able to determine the impact the information has on the mission of the organization, which means assessing the potential consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing the data. The impact of the information on the mission of the organization is one of the main criteria for data classification, which helps to establish the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data.
The other options are not the data owners in a data classification scheme, but rather the other roles or functions related to data management. System security managers are the persons or entities that oversee the security of the information systems and networks that store, process, and transmit the data. They are responsible for implementing and maintaining the technical and physical security of the data, as well as monitoring and auditing the security performance and incidents. Information Technology (IT) managers are the persons or entities that manage the IT resources and services that support the business processes and functions that use the data. They are responsible for ensuring the availability, reliability, and scalability of the IT infrastructure and applications, as well as providing technical support and guidance to the users and stakeholders. End users are the persons or entities that access and use the data for their legitimate purposes and needs. They are responsible for complying with the security policies and procedures for the data, as well as reporting any security issues or violations.
What is one way to mitigate the risk of security flaws in custom software?
Options:
Include security language in the Earned Value Management (EVM) contract
Include security assurance clauses in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
Purchase only Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) products
Purchase only software with no open source Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)
Answer:
BExplanation:
One way to mitigate the risk of security flaws in custom software is to include security assurance clauses in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) between the customer and the software developer. The SLA is a contract that defines the expectations and obligations of both parties, such as the scope, quality, performance, and security of the software. By including security assurance clauses, the customer can specify the security requirements and standards that the software must meet, and the developer can agree to provide evidence of compliance and remediation of any defects. The other options are not effective ways to mitigate the risk of security flaws in custom software. Including security language in the Earned Value Management (EVM) contract is not relevant, as EVM is a project management technique that measures the progress and performance of a project, not the security of the software. Purchasing only Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) products or software with no open source Application Programming Interfaces (APIs) does not guarantee that the software is free of security flaws, as COTS and closed source software can also have vulnerabilities and may not meet the customer’s specific needs and expectations. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 21, p. 1119; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 8, p. 507.
When planning a penetration test, the tester will be MOST interested in which information?
Options:
Places to install back doors
The main network access points
Job application handouts and tours
Exploits that can attack weaknesses
Answer:
DExplanation:
When planning a penetration test, the tester will be most interested in the exploits that can attack the weaknesses of the target system or network. Exploits are the techniques or tools that take advantage of the vulnerabilities to compromise the security or functionality of the system or network. The tester will use the exploits to simulate a real attack and test the effectiveness of the security controls and defenses.
- A. Places to install back doors is not the information that the tester will be most interested in when planning a penetration test, but rather the possible outcome or objective of the test. Back doors are the hidden or unauthorized access points that allow the attacker to bypass the security mechanisms and gain persistent access to the system or network.
- B. The main network access points is not the information that the tester will be most interested in when planning a penetration test, but rather the preliminary information that the tester will need to obtain during the reconnaissance phase of the test. The main network access points are the devices or interfaces that connect the network to other networks or the internet, such as routers, switches, firewalls, or gateways.
- C. Job application handouts and tours is not the information that the tester will be most interested in when planning a penetration test, but rather the potential source of information that the tester could use for social engineering or physical penetration. Job application handouts and tours are the materials or activities that the organization provides to the prospective employees or visitors, which could reveal some details about the organization’s structure, culture, or operations.
References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, page 424; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, page 378
Who is ultimately responsible to ensure that information assets are categorized and adequate measures are taken to protect them?
Options:
Data Custodian
Executive Management
Chief Information Security Officer
Data/Information/Business Owners
Answer:
DExplanation:
The individuals who are ultimately responsible to ensure that information assets are categorized and adequate measures are taken to protect them are the data/information/business owners. Data/information/business owners are the individuals who have the authority or accountability for the information assets of an organization, such as data, systems, or processes. Data/information/business owners are ultimately responsible to ensure that information assets are categorized and adequate measures are taken to protect them, which means that they have to define and implement the rules and guidelines for classifying and securing the information assets according to their sensitivity, value, or criticality. Data/information/business owners also have to assign and oversee the roles and responsibilities of the data custodians and users, who are the individuals who have the duty or privilege to maintain or access the information assets of the organization. The other options are not the individuals who are ultimately responsible to ensure that information assets are categorized and adequate measures are taken to protect them, but rather different or subordinate roles. A data custodian is an individual who has the duty to maintain or safeguard the information assets of an organization, such as backup, restore, or encryption. A data custodian is responsible to follow the instructions or directions of the data/information/business owner, but not to make the decisions or policies for the information assets. Executive management is the group of individuals who have the highest level of authority or leadership in an organization, such as board of directors, chief executive officer, or chief financial officer. Executive management is responsible to provide the support or approval for the information security strategy, policies, and programs of the organization, but not to directly manage or control the information assets. A chief information security officer is an individual who has the senior executive responsibility for overseeing and managing the information security strategy, policies, and programs of an organization. A chief information security officer is responsible to advise and assist the data/information/business owners, executive management, and other stakeholders on the information security matters, but not to own or operate the information assets. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, p. 28; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, p. 286.
In configuration management, what baseline configuration information MUST be maintained for each computer system?
Options:
Operating system and version, patch level, applications running, and versions.
List of system changes, test reports, and change approvals
Last vulnerability assessment report and initial risk assessment report
Date of last update, test report, and accreditation certificate
Answer:
AExplanation:
Baseline configuration information is the set of data that describes the state of a computer system at a specific point in time. It is used to monitor and control changes to the system, as well as to assess its compliance with security standards and policies. Baseline configuration information must include the operating system and version, patch level, applications running, and versions, because these are the essential components that define the functionality and security of the system. These components can also affect the compatibility and interoperability of the system with other systems and networks. Therefore, it is important to maintain accurate and up-to-date records of these components for each computer system123. References:
- Create configuration baselines - Configuration Manager, Section: Configuration baselines
- About Configuration Baselines - Configuration Manager, Section: Configuration Baseline Rules
- About Configuration Baselines and Items - Configuration Manager, Section: Configuration Baselines
The goal of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) training and awareness program is to
Options:
enhance the skills required to create, maintain, and execute the plan.
provide for a high level of recovery in case of disaster.
describe the recovery organization to new employees.
provide each recovery team with checklists and procedures.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is a document that outlines the processes and procedures that an organization will follow in the event of a disruption or disaster, such as a fire, flood, cyberattack, etc. The BCP aims to ensure the continuity of the organization’s critical functions and minimize the impact of the disruption or disaster on the organization’s operations, assets, and stakeholders. A BCP training and awareness program is a set of activities that educate the organization’s staff and management on the BCP, its objectives, scope, roles, and responsibilities. The goal of a BCP training and awareness program is to enhance the skills required to create, maintain, and execute the plan, as well as to increase the awareness and commitment of the organization’s staff and management to the BCP. Providing for a high level of recovery in case of disaster is not the goal of a BCP training and awareness program, but rather the goal of the BCP itself. Describing the recovery organization to new employees is not the goal of a BCP training and awareness program, but rather a specific task within the program. Providing each recovery team with checklists and procedures is not the goal of a BCP training and awareness program, but rather a specific task within the program. References: Business Continuity Plan (BCP), [CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7: Security Operations]2
What type of wireless network attack BEST describes an Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP) attack?
Options:
Radio Frequency (RF) attack
Denial of Service (DoS) attack
Data modification attack
Application-layer attack
Answer:
BExplanation:
A Denial of Service (DoS) attack is a type of wireless network attack that aims to prevent legitimate users from accessing or using a wireless network or service. An Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP) attack is a specific form of DoS attack that involves generating a powerful burst of electromagnetic energy that can damage or disrupt electronic devices and systems, including wireless networks. An EMP attack can cause permanent or temporary loss of wireless network availability, functionality, or performance. A Radio Frequency (RF) attack is a type of wireless network attack that involves interfering with or jamming the radio signals used by wireless devices and networks, but it does not necessarily involve an EMP. A data modification attack is a type of wireless network attack that involves altering or tampering with the data transmitted or received over a wireless network, but it does not necessarily cause a DoS. An application-layer attack is a type of wireless network attack that targets the applications or services running on a wireless network, such as web servers or email servers, but it does not necessarily involve an EMP.
Which of the following prevents improper aggregation of privileges in Role Based Access Control (RBAC)?
Options:
Hierarchical inheritance
Dynamic separation of duties
The Clark-Wilson security model
The Bell-LaPadula security model
Answer:
BExplanation:
The method that prevents improper aggregation of privileges in role based access control (RBAC) is dynamic separation of duties. RBAC is a type of access control model that assigns permissions and privileges to users or devices based on their roles or functions within an organization, rather than their identities or attributes. RBAC can simplify and streamline the access control management, as it can reduce the complexity and redundancy of the permissions and privileges. However, RBAC can also introduce the risk of improper aggregation of privileges, which is the situation where a user or a device can accumulate more permissions or privileges than necessary or appropriate for their role or function, either by having multiple roles or by changing roles over time. Dynamic separation of duties is a method that prevents improper aggregation of privileges in RBAC, by enforcing rules or constraints that limit or restrict the roles or the permissions that a user or a device can have or use at any given time or situation.
- A. Hierarchical inheritance is not a method that prevents improper aggregation of privileges in RBAC, but rather a method that enables proper delegation of privileges in RBAC. Hierarchical inheritance is a method that allows the roles or the permissions in RBAC to be organized and structured in a hierarchical or a tree-like manner, where the higher-level roles or permissions can inherit or include the lower-level roles or permissions. Hierarchical inheritance can facilitate the delegation of privileges in RBAC, as it can ensure that the roles or the permissions are consistent and compatible with the organizational hierarchy or the business logic.
- C. The Clark-Wilson security model is not a method that prevents improper aggregation of privileges in RBAC, but rather a type of access control model that enforces the integrity or the accuracy of the data or the transactions within an information system. The Clark-Wilson security model is a type of access control model that defines and regulates the access and the operations that the users or the devices can perform on the data or the transactions, based on the concepts of well-formed transactions, separation of duties, and auditing. The Clark-Wilson security model can prevent unauthorized or improper modification or manipulation of the data or the transactions, by ensuring that the access and the operations are valid and verified.
- D. The Bell-LaPadula security model is not a method that prevents improper aggregation of privileges in RBAC, but rather a type of access control model that enforces the confidentiality or the secrecy of the data or the information within an information system. The Bell-LaPadula security model is a type of access control model that defines and regulates the access and the operations that the users or the devices can perform on the data or the information, based on the concepts of security levels, security labels, and security rules. The Bell-LaPadula security model can prevent unauthorized or improper disclosure or leakage of the data or the information, by ensuring that the access and the operations are consistent and compliant with the security policies.
References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 6, page 349; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 6, page 310
Which of the following explains why record destruction requirements are included in a data retention policy?
Options:
To comply with legal and business requirements
To save cost for storage and backup
To meet destruction guidelines
To validate data ownership
Answer:
AExplanation:
Record destruction requirements are included in a data retention policy to ensure that organizations comply with legal and business requirements. Proper disposal of records helps in protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access and also ensures compliance with laws regulating the storage and disposal of data. References: CISSP Official (ISC)2 Practice Tests, Chapter 1, page 32; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, page 40
Which of the following is a function of Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)?
Options:
File allocation
Redundancy check
Extended validation
Policy enforcement
Answer:
DExplanation:
A function of Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is policy enforcement. SAML is an XML-based standard for exchanging authentication and authorization information between different entities, such as service providers and identity providers. SAML enables policy enforcement by allowing the service provider to specify the security requirements and conditions for accessing its resources, and allowing the identity provider to assert the identity and attributes of the user who requests access. The other options are not functions of SAML, but rather different concepts or technologies. File allocation is the process of assigning disk space to files. Redundancy check is a method of detecting errors in data transmission or storage. Extended validation is a type of certificate that provides a higher level of assurance for the identity of the website owner. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, p. 283; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 6, p. 361.
Knowing the language in which an encrypted message was originally produced might help a cryptanalyst to perform a
Options:
clear-text attack.
known cipher attack.
frequency analysis.
stochastic assessment.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Frequency analysis is a technique of cryptanalysis that exploits the statistical patterns of letters or symbols in an encrypted message. Frequency analysis assumes that the frequency distribution of the plaintext is preserved in the ciphertext, and that the frequency distribution of the plaintext is known or can be estimated. Knowing the language in which an encrypted message was originally produced might help a cryptanalyst to perform frequency analysis, as different languages have different letter frequencies, digraphs, and word lengths. For example, in English, the letter “e” is the most common, while in French, it is the letter “a”. By comparing the frequency distribution of the ciphertext with the expected frequency distribution of the plaintext language, a cryptanalyst can make educated guesses about the encryption key or algorithm23. References:
- Breaking the Vigenère Cipher Flashcards | Quizlet, Section: Terms in this set (6)
- Frequency Analysis: Breaking the Code - Crypto Corner, Section: The Method
- Cipher Identifier (online tool) | Boxentriq, Section: Frequency Analysis
Which of the following BEST avoids data reminisce disclosure for cloud hosted resources?
Options:
Strong encryption and deletion of the keys after data is deleted.
Strong encryption and deletion of the virtual host after data is deleted.
Software based encryption with two factor authentication.
Hardware based encryption on dedicated physical servers.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The best way to avoid data reminisce disclosure for cloud hosted resources is to use strong encryption and delete the virtual host after data is deleted. Data reminisce is the residual data that remains on the storage media after the data is deleted or overwritten. Data reminisce can pose a risk of data leakage or unauthorized access if the storage media is reused, recycled, or disposed of without proper sanitization. By using strong encryption, the data is protected from unauthorized decryption even if the data reminisce is recovered. By deleting the virtual host, the data is removed from the cloud provider’s infrastructure and the storage media is released from the allocation pool.
- A. Strong encryption and deletion of the keys after data is deleted is not the best way to avoid data reminisce disclosure for cloud hosted resources, because it does not ensure that the data is completely erased from the storage media. Deleting the keys only prevents the data from being decrypted, but the data reminisce may still be recoverable by forensic tools or techniques.
- C. Software based encryption with two factor authentication is not the best way to avoid data reminisce disclosure for cloud hosted resources, because it does not address the issue of data deletion or sanitization. Software based encryption relies on the operating system or the application to encrypt and decrypt the data, which may leave traces of the data or the keys in the memory or the cache. Two factor authentication only enhances the access control to the data, but it does not prevent the data reminisce from being exposed if the storage media is compromised.
- D. Hardware based encryption on dedicated physical servers is not the best way to avoid data reminisce disclosure for cloud hosted resources, because it is not applicable to the cloud computing model. Hardware based encryption relies on the storage device or the controller to encrypt and decrypt the data, which may offer better performance and security than software based encryption. However, dedicated physical servers are not compatible with the cloud paradigm of shared, scalable, and elastic resources.
References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, page 282; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, page 247
Match the name of access control model with its associated restriction.
Drag each access control model to its appropriate restriction access on the right.
Options:
Answer:
Explanation:
The correct matches are as follows:
- Mandatory Access Control -> End user cannot set controls
- Discretionary Access Control (DAC) -> Subject has total control over objects
- Role Based Access Control (RBAC) -> Dynamically assigns permissions to particular duties based on job function
- Rule based access control -> Dynamically assigns roles to subjects based on criteria assigned by a custodian
Explanation: The image shows a table with two columns. The left column lists four different types of Access Control Models, and the right column lists their associated restrictions. The correct matches are based on the definitions and characteristics of each Access Control Model, as explained below:
- Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a type of access control that grants or denies access to an object based on the security labels of the subject and the object, and the security policy enforced by the system. The end user cannot set or change the security labels or the policy, as they are determined by a central authority.
- Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is a type of access control that grants or denies access to an object based on the identity and permissions of the subject, and the discretion of the owner of the object. The subject has total control over the objects that they own, and can grant or revoke access rights to other subjects as they wish.
- Role Based Access Control (RBAC) is a type of access control that grants or denies access to an object based on the role of the subject, and the permissions assigned to the role. The role is dynamically assigned to the subject based on their job function, and the permissions are determined by the business rules and policies of the organization.
- Rule based access control is a type of access control that grants or denies access to an object based on the rules or criteria that are defined by a custodian or an administrator. The rules or criteria are dynamically applied to the subject based on their attributes, such as location, time, or device, and the access rights are granted or revoked accordingly.
References: ISC2 CISSP, 2
What is a characteristic of Secure Socket Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS)?
Options:
SSL and TLS provide a generic channel security mechanism on top of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
SSL and TLS provide nonrepudiation by default.
SSL and TLS do not provide security for most routed protocols.
SSL and TLS provide header encapsulation over HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
Answer:
AExplanation:
SSL and TLS provide a generic channel security mechanism on top of TCP. This means that SSL and TLS are protocols that enable secure communication between two parties over a network, such as the internet, by using encryption, authentication, and integrity mechanisms. SSL and TLS operate at the transport layer of the OSI model, above the TCP protocol, which provides reliable and ordered delivery of data. SSL and TLS can be used to secure various application layer protocols, such as HTTP, SMTP, FTP, and so on. SSL and TLS do not provide nonrepudiation by default, as this is a service that requires digital signatures and certificates to prove the origin and content of a message. SSL and TLS do provide security for most routed protocols, as they can encrypt and authenticate any data that is transmitted over TCP. SSL and TLS do not provide header encapsulation over HTTP, as this is a function of the HTTPS protocol, which is a combination of HTTP and SSL/TLS.
The PRIMARY purpose of accreditation is to:
Options:
comply with applicable laws and regulations.
allow senior management to make an informed decision regarding whether to accept the risk of operating the system.
protect an organization’s sensitive datA.
verify that all security controls have been implemented properly and are operating in the correct manner.
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CISSP CBK Official Study Guide1, the primary purpose of accreditation is to allow senior management to make an informed decision regarding whether to accept the risk of operating the system. Accreditation is the process of formally authorizing a system to operate based on the results of the security assessment and the risk analysis. Accreditation is a management responsibility that involves evaluating the security posture, the residual risk, and the compliance status of the system, and determining if the system is acceptable to operate within the organization’s risk tolerance. Accreditation does not necessarily mean that the system complies with applicable laws and regulations, protects the organization’s sensitive data, or verifies that all security controls have been implemented properly and are operating in the correct manner, although these may be factors that influence the accreditation decision. References: 1
When building a data classification scheme, which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?
Options:
Purpose
Cost effectiveness
Availability
Authenticity
Answer:
AExplanation:
- A data classification scheme is a framework that defines the categories and levels of data sensitivity, as well as the policies and procedures for handling them. The primary concern when building a data classification scheme is the purpose of the data, i.e., why it is collected, processed, stored, and shared, and what are the risks and benefits associated with it. The purpose of the data determines its value, impact, and protection requirements.
- Cost effectiveness (B) is a secondary concern that affects the implementation and maintenance of a data classification scheme, but it is not the primary driver for creating one. Availability © and authenticity (D) are two aspects of data security that depend on the data classification scheme, but they are not the main factors for designing one. Therefore, B, C, and D are incorrect answers.
What is the GREATEST challenge of an agent-based patch management solution?
Options:
Time to gather vulnerability information about the computers in the program
Requires that software be installed, running, and managed on all participating computers
The significant amount of network bandwidth while scanning computers
The consistency of distributing patches to each participating computer
Answer:
BExplanation:
The greatest challenge of an agent-based patch management solution is that it requires that software be installed, running, and managed on all participating computers. Patch management is the process of identifying, acquiring, installing, and verifying patches or updates for software or systems, such as operating systems, applications, or firmware. Patch management can help to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. An agent-based patch management solution is a type of patch management solution that uses software agents or programs that run on each computer that needs to be patched. The agents communicate with a central server that provides the patches or updates, and perform the patching tasks automatically or on demand. The challenge of an agent-based patch management solution is that it requires that software be installed, running, and managed on all participating computers, which can increase the complexity, cost, and overhead of the patch management process. The other options are not the greatest challenges, but rather minor or irrelevant issues. Time to gather vulnerability information about the computers in the program is not a challenge, but rather a benefit, of an agent-based patch management solution, as the agents can scan and report the vulnerability status of the computers faster and more accurately than manual methods. The significant amount of network bandwidth while scanning computers is not a challenge, but rather a drawback, of an agent-less patch management solution, which is a type of patch management solution that does not use software agents, but rather scans the computers remotely from a central server, which can consume more network resources. The consistency of distributing patches to each participating computer is not a challenge, but rather an advantage, of an agent-based patch management solution, as the agents can ensure that the patches are applied uniformly and timely to all computers, without missing or skipping any computers. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8, p. 434; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, p. 429.
In which identity management process is the subject’s identity established?
Options:
Trust
Provisioning
Authorization
Enrollment
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the CISSP CBK Official Study Guide1, the identity management process in which the subject’s identity is established is enrollment. Enrollment is the process of registering or enrolling a subject into an identity management system, such as a user into an authentication system, or a device into a network. Enrollment is the process in which the subject’s identity is established, as it involves verifying and validating the subject’s identity, as well as collecting and storing the subject’s identity attributes, such as the name, email, or biometrics of the subject. Enrollment also involves issuing and assigning the subject’s identity credentials, such as the username, password, or certificate of the subject. Enrollment helps to create and maintain the subject’s identity record or profile, as well as to enable and facilitate the subject’s access and use of the system or network. Trust is not the identity management process in which the subject’s identity is established, although it may be a factor that influences the enrollment process. Trust is the degree of confidence or assurance that a subject or an entity has in another subject or entity, such as a user in a system, or a system in a network. Trust may influence the enrollment process, as it may determine the level or extent of the identity verification and validation, as well as the identity attributes and credentials that are required or provided for the enrollment process. Provisioning is not the identity management process in which the subject’s identity is established, although it may be a process that follows or depends on the enrollment process. Provisioning is the process of creating, assigning, and configuring a subject’s account or resource with the necessary access rights and permissions to perform the tasks and functions that are required by the subject’s role and responsibilities, as well as the security policies and standards of the system or network. Provisioning is not the process in which the subject’s identity is established, as it does not involve verifying and validating the subject’s identity, or collecting and storing the subject’s identity attributes or credentials. Authorization is not the identity management process in which the subject’s identity is established, although it may be a process that follows or depends on the enrollment process. Authorization is the process of granting or denying a subject’s access or use of an object or a resource, based on the subject’s identity, role, or credentials, as well as the security policies and rules of the system or network. Authorization is not the process in which the subject’s identity is established, as it does not involve verifying and validating the subject’s identity, or collecting and storing the subject’s identity attributes or credentials. References: 1
During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.
What is the best approach for the CISO?
During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.
What is the best approach for the CISO?
Options:
Document the system as high risk
Perform a vulnerability assessment
Perform a quantitative threat assessment
Notate the information and move on
Answer:
DExplanation:
The best approach for the CISO is to notate the information and move on. A CISO is a Chief Information Security Officer, who is a senior executive responsible for overseeing and managing the information security strategy, policies, and programs of an organization. A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the information and assets of an organization. In this scenario, the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant. HIPAA is a federal law that sets the standards and rules for the protection and privacy of PHI, which is any information that can be used to identify a person’s health condition, treatment, or payment. The best approach for the CISO is to notate the information and move on, as there is no need to take any further action or intervention, since the college is already compliant with the HIPAA regulations and has implemented the appropriate security measures for the PHI data. The other options are not the best approaches, but rather unnecessary or excessive actions. Documenting the system as high risk is not a best approach, as there is no evidence or indication that the system poses a high risk to the organization or the PHI data, as long as the college follows the HIPAA regulations and the security best practices. Performing a vulnerability assessment is not a best approach, as it is an intrusive and costly activity that may not be warranted or authorized, since the system is already compliant and secure. Performing a quantitative threat assessment is not a best approach, as it is a complex and time-consuming activity that may not be feasible or relevant, since the system is already compliant and secure. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, p. 22; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, p. 280.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the initialization vector when using Data Encryption Standard (DES)?
Options:
It must be known to both sender and receiver.
It can be transmitted in the clear as a random number.
It must be retained until the last block is transmitted.
It can be used to encrypt and decrypt information.
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide2, a characteristic of the initialization vector when using Data Encryption Standard (DES) is that it can be transmitted in the clear as a random number. An initialization vector (IV) is a value or a parameter that is used to initialize or modify the encryption or decryption process, such as the cipher block chaining (CBC) mode of operation. An IV is used to provide an additional layer of security and randomness to the encryption or decryption process, as it prevents the same plaintext from producing the same ciphertext, and vice versa. An IV can be transmitted in the clear as a random number, as it does not contain any sensitive or confidential information, and as it changes with each session or transaction, making it difficult for the attackers to predict or manipulate the encrypted or decrypted data patterns. An IV must be known to both sender and receiver is not a characteristic of the initialization vector when using Data Encryption Standard (DES), as it is a requirement or a condition for the initialization vector when using any symmetric encryption algorithm, not a specific characteristic for DES. A symmetric encryption algorithm is an encryption algorithm that uses the same key for both encryption and decryption, such as DES, Triple DES, or Advanced Encryption Standard (AES). A symmetric encryption algorithm requires that the IV must be known to both sender and receiver, as it is needed for both encryption and decryption, and as it is used to synchronize the encryption or decryption process between the sender and the receiver. An IV must be retained until the last block is transmitted is not a characteristic of the initialization vector when using Data Encryption Standard (DES), as it is a requirement or a condition for the initialization vector when using any block cipher algorithm, not a specific characteristic for DES. A block cipher algorithm is an encryption algorithm that divides the plaintext or the ciphertext into fixed-length blocks, and encrypts or decrypts each block separately, such as DES, Triple DES, or AES. A block cipher algorithm requires that the IV must be retained until the last block is transmitted, as it is used to link or chain the blocks together, and as it is needed for the encryption or decryption of the last block. An IV can be used to encrypt and decrypt information is not a characteristic of the initialization vector when using Data Encryption Standard (DES), as it is a function or a purpose of the initialization vector when using any encryption algorithm, not a specific characteristic for DES. An encryption algorithm is a mathematical function or procedure that transforms the plaintext or the original data into the ciphertext or the encrypted data, and vice versa, using a key or a parameter, such as DES, Triple DES, AES, or Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA). An encryption algorithm uses the IV to encrypt and decrypt information, as it is a value or a parameter that is used to initialize or modify the encryption or decryption process, and as it provides an additional layer of security and randomness to the encryption or decryption process. References: 2
When designing a vulnerability test, which one of the following is likely to give the BEST indication of what components currently operate on the network?
Options:
Topology diagrams
Mapping tools
Asset register
Ping testing
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide2, when designing a vulnerability test, mapping tools are likely to give the best indication of what components currently operate on the network. Mapping tools are software applications that scan and discover the network topology, devices, services, and protocols. They can provide a graphical representation of the network structure and components, as well as detailed information about each node and connection. Mapping tools can help identify potential vulnerabilities and weaknesses in the network configuration and architecture, as well as the exposure and attack surface of the network. Topology diagrams are not likely to give the best indication of what components currently operate on the network, as they may be outdated, inaccurate, or incomplete. Topology diagrams are static and abstract representations of the network layout and design, but they may not reflect the actual and dynamic state of the network. Asset register is not likely to give the best indication of what components currently operate on the network, as it may be outdated, inaccurate, or incomplete. Asset register is a document that lists and categorizes the assets owned by an organization, such as hardware, software, data, and personnel. However, it may not capture the current status, configuration, and interconnection of the assets, as well as the changes and updates that occur over time. Ping testing is not likely to give the best indication of what components currently operate on the network, as it is a simple and limited technique that only checks the availability and response time of a host. Ping testing is a network utility that sends an echo request packet to a target host and waits for an echo reply packet. It can measure the connectivity and latency of the host, but it cannot provide detailed information about the host’s characteristics, services, and vulnerabilities. References: 2
Which of the following is a recommended alternative to an integrated email encryption system?
Options:
Sign emails containing sensitive data
Send sensitive data in separate emails
Encrypt sensitive data separately in attachments
Store sensitive information to be sent in encrypted drives
Answer:
CExplanation:
The recommended alternative to an integrated email encryption system is to encrypt sensitive data separately in attachments. An integrated email encryption system is a system or a service that provides or offers the encryption or the protection for the email messages or the email communications, by using or applying the cryptographic techniques or the mechanisms, such as the public key encryption, the symmetric key encryption, or the digital signatures. An integrated email encryption system can protect the confidentiality, the integrity, or the authenticity of the email messages or the email communications, as it can prevent or reduce the risk of unauthorized or inappropriate access, disclosure, modification, or spoofing of the email messages or the email communications by the third parties or the attackers who intercept or capture the email messages or the email communications over the network. However, an integrated email encryption system can also have some limitations or challenges, such as the compatibility, the usability, or the cost. Therefore, the recommended alternative to an integrated email encryption system is to encrypt sensitive data separately in attachments, which means that instead of encrypting the entire email message or the email communication, only the sensitive data or the information that is attached or appended to the email message or the email communication, such as the documents, the files, or the images, are encrypted or protected, using the cryptographic techniques or the mechanisms, such as the password, the passphrase, or the key. Encrypting sensitive data separately in attachments can provide a similar level of security or protection for the email messages or the email communications, as it can prevent or reduce the risk of unauthorized or inappropriate access, disclosure, modification, or spoofing of the sensitive data or the information by the third parties or the attackers who intercept or capture the email messages or the email communications over the network, and it can also overcome or address some of the limitations or challenges of the integrated email encryption system, such as the compatibility, the usability, or the cost. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, page 116; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, page 173
Which type of security testing is being performed when an ethical hacker has no knowledge about the target system but the testing target is notified before the test?
Options:
Reversal
Gray box
Blind
White box
Answer:
CExplanation:
According to the CISSP CBK Official Study Guide1, the type of security testing that is being performed when an ethical hacker has no knowledge about the target system but the testing target is notified before the test is blind. Security testing is the process of assessing or evaluating the security or the vulnerability of the system or the network, by performing or conducting various tests or methods, such as the scanning, the analysis, or the penetration of the system or the network. Security testing can be classified into four types, based on the level of knowledge or information that the tester or the ethical hacker has about the target system or the network, as well as the level of notification or consent that the testing target or the owner has about the test, which are:
- Reversal: Security testing that is performed or conducted when the tester or the ethical hacker has full or complete knowledge or information about the target system or the network, and the testing target or the owner has no or zero notification or consent about the test, such as the reverse engineering or the decompiling of the system or the network.
- Gray box: Security testing that is performed or conducted when the tester or the ethical hacker has partial or limited knowledge or information about the target system or the network, and the testing target or the owner has partial or limited notification or consent about the test, such as the vulnerability assessment or the code review of the system or the network.
- Blind: Security testing that is performed or conducted when the tester or the ethical hacker has no or zero knowledge or information about the target system or the network, and the testing target or the owner has full or complete notification or consent about the test, such as the black box testing or the penetration testing of the system or the network.
- White box: Security testing that is performed or conducted when the tester or the ethical hacker has full or complete knowledge or information about the target system or the network, and the testing target or the owner has full or complete notification or consent about the test, such as the white box testing or the auditing of the system or the network.
The type of security testing that is being performed when an ethical hacker has no knowledge about the target system but the testing target is notified before the test is blind, as it matches the definition or the description of the blind security testing, which is the security testing that is performed or conducted when the tester or the ethical hacker has no or zero knowledge or information about the target system or the network, and the testing target or the owner has full or complete notification or consent about the test. Reversal is not the type of security testing that is being performed when an ethical hacker has no knowledge about the target system but the testing target is notified before the test, as it does not match the definition or the description of the reversal security testing, which is the security testing that is performed or conducted when the tester or the ethical hacker has full or complete knowledge or information about the target system or the network, and the testing target or the owner has no or zero notification or consent about the test. Gray box is not the type of security testing that is being performed when an ethical hacker has no knowledge about the target system but the testing target is notified before the test, as it does not match the definition or the description of the gray box security testing, which is the security testing that is performed or conducted when the tester or the ethical hacker has partial or limited knowledge or information about the target system or the network, and the testing target or the owner has partial or limited notification or consent about the test. White box is not the type of security testing that is being performed when an ethical hacker has no knowledge about the target system but the testing target is notified before the test, as it does not match the definition or the description of the white box security testing, which is the security testing that is performed or conducted when the tester or the ethical hacker has full or complete knowledge or information about the target system or the network, and the testing target or the owner has full or complete notification or consent about the test. References: 1
An organization has developed a major application that has undergone accreditation testing. After receiving the results of the evaluation, what is the final step before the application can be accredited?
Options:
Acceptance of risk by the authorizing official
Remediation of vulnerabilities
Adoption of standardized policies and procedures
Approval of the System Security Plan (SSP)
Answer:
AExplanation:
The final step before the application can be accredited is the acceptance of risk by the authorizing official, who is responsible for making the final decision on whether to authorize the operation of the system or not. The authorizing official must review the results of the evaluation, the System Security Plan (SSP), and the residual risks, and determine if the risks are acceptable or not. The other options are not the final step, but rather part of the accreditation process. Remediation of vulnerabilities is done before the evaluation, adoption of standardized policies and procedures is done during the development, and approval of the SSP is done by the system owner, not the authorizing official. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, p. 245; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 2, p. 63.
The PRIMARY outcome of a certification process is that it provides documented
Options:
system weaknesses for remediation.
standards for security assessment, testing, and process evaluation.
interconnected systems and their implemented security controls.
security analyses needed to make a risk-based decision.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The primary outcome of a certification process is that it provides documented security analyses needed to make a risk-based decision. Certification is a process of evaluating and testing the security of a system or product against a set of criteria or standards. Certification provides evidence of the security posture and capabilities of the system or product, as well as the identified vulnerabilities, threats, and risks. Certification helps the decision makers, such as the system owners or accreditors, to determine whether the system or product meets the security requirements and can be authorized to operate in a specific environment12 References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7: Security Operations, p. 455; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 7: Security Operations, p. 867.
Which one of the following activities would present a significant security risk to organizations when employing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) solution?
Options:
VPN bandwidth
Simultaneous connection to other networks
Users with Internet Protocol (IP) addressing conflicts
Remote users with administrative rights
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the CISSP For Dummies4, the activity that would present a significant security risk to organizations when employing a VPN solution is simultaneous connection to other networks. A VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted tunnel over a public or untrusted network, such as the internet, to connect remote users or sites to the organization’s private network, such as the intranet. A VPN provides security and privacy for the data and communication that are transmitted over the tunnel, as well as access to the network resources and services that are available on the private network. However, a VPN also introduces some security risks and challenges, such as configuration errors, authentication issues, malware infections, or data leakage. One of the security risks of a VPN is simultaneous connection to other networks, which occurs when a VPN user connects to the organization’s private network and another network at the same time, such as a home network, a public Wi-Fi network, or a malicious network. This creates a potential vulnerability or backdoor for the attackers to access or compromise the organization’s private network, by exploiting the weaker security or lower trust of the other network. Therefore, the organization should implement and enforce policies and controls to prevent or restrict the simultaneous connection to other networks when using a VPN solution. VPN bandwidth is not an activity that would present a significant security risk to organizations when employing a VPN solution, although it may be a factor that affects the performance and availability of the VPN solution. VPN bandwidth is the amount of data that can be transmitted or received over the VPN tunnel per unit of time, which depends on the speed and capacity of the network connection, the encryption and compression methods, the traffic load, and the network congestion. VPN bandwidth may limit the quality and efficiency of the data and communication that are transmitted over the VPN tunnel, but it does not directly pose a significant security risk to the organization’s private network. Users with IP addressing conflicts is not an activity that would present a significant security risk to organizations when employing a VPN solution, although it may be a factor that causes errors and disruptions in the VPN solution. IP addressing conflicts occur when two or more devices or hosts on the same network have the same IP address, which is a unique identifier that is assigned to each device or host to communicate over the network.
The restoration priorities of a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) are based on which of the following documents?
Options:
Service Level Agreement (SLA)
Business Continuity Plan (BCP)
Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
Crisis management plan
Answer:
CExplanation:
According to the CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, the restoration priorities of a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) are based on the Business Impact Analysis (BIA). A DRP is a document that defines the procedures and actions to be taken in the event of a disaster that disrupts the normal operations of an organization. A restoration priority is the order or sequence in which the critical business processes and functions, as well as the supporting resources, such as data, systems, personnel, and facilities, are restored after a disaster. A BIA is a process that assesses the potential impact and consequences of a disaster on the organization’s business processes and functions, as well as the supporting resources. A BIA helps to identify and prioritize the critical business processes and functions, as well as the recovery objectives and time frames for them. A BIA also helps to determine the dependencies and interdependencies among the business processes and functions, as well as the supporting resources. Therefore, the restoration priorities of a DRP are based on the BIA, as it provides the information and analysis that are needed to plan and execute the recovery strategy. A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is not the document that the restoration priorities of a DRP are based on, although it may be a factor that influences the restoration priorities. An SLA is a document that defines the expectations and requirements for the quality and performance of a service or product that is provided by a service provider to a customer or client, such as the availability, reliability, scalability, or security of the service or product. An SLA may help to justify or support the restoration priorities of a DRP, but it does not provide the information and analysis that are needed to plan and execute the recovery strategy. A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is not the document that the restoration priorities of a DRP are based on, although it may be a document that is aligned with or integrated with a DRP. A BCP is a document that defines the procedures and actions to be taken to ensure the continuity of the essential business operations during and after a disaster. A BCP may cover the same or similar business processes and functions, as well as the supporting resources, as a DRP, but it focuses on the continuity rather than the recovery of them. A BCP may also include other aspects or components that are not covered by a DRP, such as the prevention, mitigation, or response to a disaster. A crisis management plan is not the document that the restoration priorities of a DRP are based on, although it may be a document that is aligned with or integrated with a DRP. A crisis management plan is a document that defines the procedures and actions to be taken to manage and resolve a crisis or emergency situation that may affect the organization, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a pandemic. A crisis management plan may cover the same or similar business processes and functions, as well as the supporting resources, as a DRP, but it focuses on the management rather than the recovery of them. A crisis management plan may also include other aspects or components that are not covered by a DRP, such as the communication, coordination, or escalation of the crisis or emergency situation.
In the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model, which layer is responsible for the transmission of binary data over a communications network?
Options:
Application Layer
Physical Layer
Data-Link Layer
Network Layer
Answer:
BExplanation:
In the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model, the layer that is responsible for the transmission of binary data over a communications network is the Physical Layer. The OSI model is a conceptual framework or a reference model that describes or defines how the different components or elements of a communications network interact or communicate with each other, using a layered or a modular approach. The OSI model consists of seven layers, each with a specific function or role, and each communicating or interfacing with the adjacent layers. The Physical Layer is the lowest or the first layer of the OSI model, and it is responsible for the transmission of binary data over a communications network, which means that it is responsible for converting or encoding the data or the information into electrical signals, optical signals, or radio waves, and sending or receiving them over the physical medium or the channel, such as the cable, the fiber, or the air. The Physical Layer is also responsible for defining or specifying the physical characteristics or the properties of the physical medium or the channel, such as the voltage, the frequency, the bandwidth, or the modulation. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, page 101; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, page 158
Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system?
Options:
Encryption of audit logs
No archiving of audit logs
Hashing of audit logs
Remote access audit logs
Answer:
DExplanation:
Remote access audit logs could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system. A DoS attack is a type of attack that aims to disrupt or degrade the availability or performance of a system or a network by overwhelming it with excessive or malicious traffic or requests. An authentication system is a system that verifies the identity and credentials of the users or entities that want to access the system or network resources or services. An authentication system can use various methods or factors to authenticate the users or entities, such as passwords, tokens, certificates, biometrics, or behavioral patterns.
Remote access audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur when the users or entities access the system or network remotely, such as via the internet, VPN, or dial-up. Remote access audit logs can provide a reactive and detective layer of security by enabling the monitoring and analysis of the remote access behavior, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents.
Remote access audit logs could cause a DoS against an authentication system, because they could consume a large amount of disk space, memory, or bandwidth on the authentication system, especially if the remote access is frequent, intensive, or malicious. This could affect the performance or functionality of the authentication system, and prevent or delay the legitimate users or entities from accessing the system or network resources or services. For example, an attacker could launch a DoS attack against an authentication system by sending a large number of fake or invalid remote access requests, and generating a large amount of remote access audit logs that fill up the disk space or memory of the authentication system, and cause it to crash or slow down.
The other options are not the factors that could cause a DoS against an authentication system, but rather the factors that could improve or protect the authentication system. Encryption of audit logs is a technique that involves using a cryptographic algorithm and a key to transform the audit logs into an unreadable or unintelligible format, that can only be reversed or decrypted by authorized parties. Encryption of audit logs can enhance the security and confidentiality of the audit logs by preventing unauthorized access or disclosure of the sensitive information in the audit logs. However, encryption of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the integrity or privacy of the audit logs. No archiving of audit logs is a practice that involves not storing or transferring the audit logs to a separate or external storage device or location, such as a tape, disk, or cloud. No archiving of audit logs can reduce the security and availability of the audit logs by increasing the risk of loss or damage of the audit logs, and limiting the access or retrieval of the audit logs. However, no archiving of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the availability or preservation of the audit logs. Hashing of audit logs is a technique that involves using a hash function, such as MD5 or SHA, to generate a fixed-length and unique value, called a hash or a digest, that represents the audit logs. Hashing of audit logs can improve the security and integrity of the audit logs by verifying the authenticity or consistency of the audit logs, and detecting any modification or tampering of the audit logs. However, hashing of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the integrity or verification of the audit logs.
A Virtual Machine (VM) environment has five guest Operating Systems (OS) and provides strong isolation. What MUST an administrator review to audit a user’s access to data files?
Options:
Host VM monitor audit logs
Guest OS access controls
Host VM access controls
Guest OS audit logs
Answer:
DExplanation:
Guest OS audit logs are what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation. A VM environment is a system that allows multiple virtual machines (VMs) to run on a single physical machine, each with its own OS and applications. A VM environment can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the utilization and efficiency of the physical resources by sharing them among multiple VMs
- Enhancing the security and isolation of the VMs by preventing or limiting the interference or communication between them
- Increasing the flexibility and scalability of the VMs by allowing them to be created, modified, deleted, or migrated easily and quickly
A guest OS is the OS that runs on a VM, which is different from the host OS that runs on the physical machine. A guest OS can have its own security controls and mechanisms, such as access controls, encryption, authentication, and audit logs. Audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur within a system or a network, such as the access and usage of the data files. Audit logs can provide a reactive and detective layer of security by enabling the monitoring and analysis of the system or network behavior, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents.
Guest OS audit logs are what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation, because they can provide the most accurate and relevant information about the user’s actions and interactions with the data files on the VM. Guest OS audit logs can also help the administrator to identify and report any unauthorized or suspicious access or disclosure of the data files, and to recommend or implement any corrective or preventive actions.
The other options are not what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation, but rather what an administrator might review for other purposes or aspects. Host VM monitor audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur on the host VM monitor, which is the software or hardware component that manages and controls the VMs on the physical machine. Host VM monitor audit logs can provide information about the performance, status, and configuration of the VMs, but they cannot provide information about the user’s access to data files on the VMs. Guest OS access controls are rules and mechanisms that regulate and restrict the access and permissions of the users and processes to the resources and services on the guest OS. Guest OS access controls can provide a proactive and preventive layer of security by enforcing the principles of least privilege, separation of duties, and need to know. However, guest OS access controls are not what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files, but rather what an administrator must configure and implement to protect the data files. Host VM access controls are rules and mechanisms that regulate and restrict the access and permissions of the users and processes to the VMs on the physical machine. Host VM access controls can provide a granular and dynamic layer of security by defining and assigning the roles and permissions according to the organizational structure and policies. However, host VM access controls are not what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files, but rather what an administrator must configure and implement to protect the VMs.
In which of the following programs is it MOST important to include the collection of security process data?
Options:
Quarterly access reviews
Security continuous monitoring
Business continuity testing
Annual security training
Answer:
BExplanation:
Security continuous monitoring is the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data. Security process data is the data that reflects the performance, effectiveness, and compliance of the security processes, such as the security policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines. Security process data can include metrics, indicators, logs, reports, and assessments. Security process data can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the security and risk management of the system by providing the visibility and awareness of the security posture, vulnerabilities, and threats
- Enhancing the security and decision making of the system by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting
- Increasing the security and improvement of the system by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization
Security continuous monitoring is the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because it is the program that involves maintaining the ongoing awareness of the security status, events, and activities of the system. Security continuous monitoring can enable the system to detect and respond to any security issues or incidents in a timely and effective manner, and to adjust and improve the security controls and processes accordingly. Security continuous monitoring can also help the system to comply with the security requirements and standards from the internal or external authorities or frameworks.
The other options are not the programs in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, but rather programs that have other objectives or scopes. Quarterly access reviews are programs that involve reviewing and verifying the user accounts and access rights on a quarterly basis. Quarterly access reviews can ensure that the user accounts and access rights are valid, authorized, and up to date, and that any inactive, expired, or unauthorized accounts or rights are removed or revoked. However, quarterly access reviews are not the programs in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because they are not focused on the security status, events, and activities of the system, but rather on the user accounts and access rights. Business continuity testing is a program that involves testing and validating the business continuity plan (BCP) and the disaster recovery plan (DRP) of the system. Business continuity testing can ensure that the system can continue or resume its critical functions and operations in case of a disruption or disaster, and that the system can meet the recovery objectives and requirements. However, business continuity testing is not the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because it is not focused on the security status, events, and activities of the system, but rather on the continuity and recovery of the system. Annual security training is a program that involves providing and updating the security knowledge and skills of the system users and staff on an annual basis. Annual security training can increase the security awareness and competence of the system users and staff, and reduce the human errors or risks that might compromise the system security. However, annual security training is not the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because it is not focused on the security status, events, and activities of the system, but rather on the security education and training of the system users and staff.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure?
Options:
Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken
Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability
Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization
Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels
Answer:
DExplanation:
Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels is the primary benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure. Security testing is a process that involves evaluating and verifying the security posture, vulnerabilities, and threats of a system or a network, using various methods and techniques, such as vulnerability assessment, penetration testing, code review, and compliance checks. Security testing can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the security and risk management of the system or network by identifying and addressing the security weaknesses and gaps
- Enhancing the security and decision making of the system or network by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting
- Increasing the security and improvement of the system or network by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization
A security testing report is a document that summarizes and communicates the findings and recommendations of the security testing process to the relevant stakeholders, such as the technical and management teams. A security testing report can have various formats and structures, depending on the scope, purpose, and audience of the report. However, a formalized security testing report format and structure is one that follows a standard and consistent template, such as the one proposed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) in the Special Publication 800-115, Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment. A formalized security testing report format and structure can have several components, such as:
- Executive summary: a brief overview of the security testing objectives, scope, methodology, results, and conclusions
- Introduction: a detailed description of the security testing background, purpose, scope, assumptions, limitations, and constraints
- Methodology: a detailed explanation of the security testing approach, techniques, tools, and procedures
- Results: a detailed presentation of the security testing findings, such as the vulnerabilities, threats, risks, and impact levels, organized by test phases or categories
- Recommendations: a detailed proposal of the security testing suggestions, such as the remediation, mitigation, or prevention strategies, prioritized by impact levels or risk ratings
- Conclusion: a brief summary of the security testing outcomes, implications, and future steps
Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels is the primary benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, because it can ensure that the security testing report is clear, comprehensive, and consistent, and that it provides the relevant and useful information for the technical and management teams to make informed and effective decisions and actions regarding the system or network security.
The other options are not the primary benefits of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but rather secondary or specific benefits for different audiences or purposes. Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the executive summary component of the report, which is a brief and high-level overview of the report, rather than the entire report. Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the methodology and results components of the report, which are more technical and detailed parts of the report, rather than the entire report. Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the introduction and conclusion components of the report, which are more contextual and strategic parts of the report, rather than the entire report.
Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations?
Options:
Change management processes
User administration procedures
Operating System (OS) baselines
System backup documentation
Answer:
CExplanation:
Operating System (OS) baselines are of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations. OS baselines are standard or reference configurations that define the desired and secure state of an OS, including the settings, parameters, patches, and updates. OS baselines can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the security and compliance of the OS by applying the best practices and recommendations from the vendors, authorities, or frameworks
- Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the OS by optimizing the resources and functions
- Increasing the consistency and uniformity of the OS by reducing the variations and deviations
- Facilitating the monitoring and auditing of the OS by providing a baseline for comparison and measurement
OS baselines are of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they can enable the auditors to evaluate and verify the current and actual state of the OS against the desired and secure state of the OS. OS baselines can also help the auditors to identify and report any gaps, issues, or risks in the OS configurations, and to recommend or implement any corrective or preventive actions.
The other options are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, but rather of assistance for other purposes or aspects. Change management processes are processes that ensure that any changes to the system configurations are planned, approved, implemented, and documented in a controlled and consistent manner. Change management processes can improve the security and reliability of the system configurations by preventing or reducing the errors, conflicts, or disruptions that might occur due to the changes. However, change management processes are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they do not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the procedures and controls for managing the changes. User administration procedures are procedures that define the roles, responsibilities, and activities for creating, modifying, deleting, and managing the user accounts and access rights. User administration procedures can enhance the security and accountability of the user accounts and access rights by enforcing the principles of least privilege, separation of duties, and need to know. However, user administration procedures are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they do not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the rules and tasks for administering the users. System backup documentation is documentation that records the information and details about the system backup processes, such as the backup frequency, type, location, retention, and recovery. System backup documentation can increase the availability and resilience of the system by ensuring that the system data and configurations can be restored in case of a loss or damage. However, system backup documentation is not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because it does not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the backup and recovery of the system configurations.
Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations?
Options:
Walkthrough
Simulation
Parallel
White box
Answer:
BExplanation:
Simulation is the type of business continuity test that includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations. Business continuity is the ability of an organization to maintain or resume its critical functions and operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. Business continuity testing is the process of evaluating and validating the effectiveness and readiness of the business continuity plan (BCP) and the disaster recovery plan (DRP) through various methods and scenarios. Business continuity testing can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the confidence and competence of the organization and its staff in handling a disruption or disaster
- Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the organization and its systems in recovering from a disruption or disaster
- Increasing the compliance and alignment of the organization and its plans with the internal or external requirements and standards
- Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the organization and its plans by identifying and addressing any gaps, issues, or risks
There are different types of business continuity tests, depending on the scope, purpose, and complexity of the test. Some of the common types are:
- Walkthrough: a type of business continuity test that involves reviewing and discussing the BCP and DRP with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business continuity team, the management, and the staff. A walkthrough can provide a basic and qualitative assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to familiarize and educate the stakeholders with the plans and their roles and responsibilities.
- Simulation: a type of business continuity test that involves performing and practicing the BCP and DRP with the relevant stakeholders, using simulated or hypothetical scenarios, such as a fire drill, a power outage, or a cyberattack. A simulation can provide a realistic and quantitative assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to test and train the stakeholders with the plans and their actions and reactions.
- Parallel: a type of business continuity test that involves activating and operating the alternate site or system, while maintaining the normal operations at the primary site or system. A parallel test can provide a comprehensive and comparative assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to verify and validate the functionality and compatibility of the alternate site or system.
- Full interruption: a type of business continuity test that involves shutting down and transferring the normal operations from the primary site or system to the alternate site or system. A full interruption test can provide a conclusive and definitive assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to evaluate and measure the impact and effectiveness of the plans.
Simulation is the type of business continuity test that includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations, because it can simulate various types of risks, such as natural, human, or technical, and assess how the organization and its systems can cope and recover from them, without actually causing any harm or disruption to the live operations. Simulation can also help to identify and mitigate any potential risks that might affect the live operations, and to improve the resilience and preparedness of the organization and its systems.
The other options are not the types of business continuity tests that include assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations, but rather types that have other objectives or effects. Walkthrough is a type of business continuity test that does not include assessment of resilience to internal and external risks, but rather a review and discussion of the BCP and DRP, without any actual testing or practice. Parallel is a type of business continuity test that does not endanger live operations, but rather maintains them, while activating and operating the alternate site or system. Full interruption is a type of business continuity test that does endanger live operations, by shutting them down and transferring them to the alternate site or system.
A Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide which of the following?
Options:
Guaranteed recovery of all business functions
Minimization of the need decision making during a crisis
Insurance against litigation following a disaster
Protection from loss of organization resources
Answer:
BExplanation:
Minimization of the need for decision making during a crisis is the main benefit that a Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide. A BCP/DRP is a set of policies, procedures, and resources that enable an organization to continue or resume its critical functions and operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP/DRP can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the resilience and preparedness of the organization and its staff in handling a disruption or disaster
- Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the organization and its systems in recovering from a disruption or disaster
- Increasing the compliance and alignment of the organization and its plans with the internal or external requirements and standards
- Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the organization and its plans by identifying and addressing any gaps, issues, or risks
Minimization of the need for decision making during a crisis is the main benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it can ensure that the organization and its staff have a clear and consistent guidance and direction on how to respond and act during a disruption or disaster, and avoid any confusion, uncertainty, or inconsistency that might worsen the situation or impact. A BCP/DRP can also help to reduce the stress and pressure on the organization and its staff during a crisis, and increase their confidence and competence in executing the plans.
The other options are not the benefits that a BCP/DRP will provide, but rather unrealistic or incorrect expectations or outcomes of a BCP/DRP. Guaranteed recovery of all business functions is not a benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it is not possible or feasible to recover all business functions after a disruption or disaster, especially if the disruption or disaster is severe or prolonged. A BCP/DRP can only prioritize and recover the most critical or essential business functions, and may have to suspend or terminate the less critical or non-essential business functions. Insurance against litigation following a disaster is not a benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it is not a guarantee or protection that the organization will not face any legal or regulatory consequences or liabilities after a disruption or disaster, especially if the disruption or disaster is caused by the organization’s negligence or misconduct. A BCP/DRP can only help to mitigate or reduce the legal or regulatory risks, and may have to comply with or report to the relevant authorities or parties. Protection from loss of organization resources is not a benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it is not a prevention or avoidance of any damage or destruction of the organization’s assets or resources during a disruption or disaster, especially if the disruption or disaster is physical or natural. A BCP/DRP can only help to restore or replace the lost or damaged assets or resources, and may have to incur some costs or losses.
What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application?
Options:
Disable all unnecessary services
Ensure chain of custody
Prepare another backup of the system
Isolate the system from the network
Answer:
DExplanation:
Isolating the system from the network is the most important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application. An unknown application is an application that is not recognized or authorized by the system or network administrator, and that may have been installed or executed without the user’s knowledge or consent. An unknown application may have various purposes, such as:
- Providing a legitimate or useful function or service for the user, such as a utility or a tool
- Providing an illegitimate or malicious function or service for the attacker, such as a malware or a backdoor
- Providing a neutral or benign function or service for the developer, such as a trial or a demo
Forensic analysis is a process that involves examining and investigating the system or network for any evidence or traces of the unknown application, such as its origin, nature, behavior, and impact. Forensic analysis can provide several benefits, such as:
- Identifying and classifying the unknown application as legitimate, malicious, or neutral
- Determining and assessing the purpose and function of the unknown application
- Detecting and resolving any issues or risks caused by the unknown application
- Preventing and mitigating any future incidents or attacks involving the unknown application
Isolating the system from the network is the most important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application, because it can ensure that the system is isolated and protected from any external or internal influences or interferences, and that the forensic analysis is conducted in a safe and controlled environment. Isolating the system from the network can also help to:
- Prevent the unknown application from communicating or connecting with any other system or network, and potentially spreading or escalating the attack
- Prevent the unknown application from receiving or sending any commands or data, and potentially altering or deleting the evidence
- Prevent the unknown application from detecting or evading the forensic analysis, and potentially hiding or destroying itself
The other options are not the most important steps during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application, but rather steps that should be done after or along with isolating the system from the network. Disabling all unnecessary services is a step that should be done after isolating the system from the network, because it can ensure that the system is optimized and simplified for the forensic analysis, and that the system resources and functions are not consumed or affected by any irrelevant or redundant services. Ensuring chain of custody is a step that should be done along with isolating the system from the network, because it can ensure that the integrity and authenticity of the evidence are maintained and documented throughout the forensic process, and that the evidence can be traced and verified. Preparing another backup of the system is a step that should be done after isolating the system from the network, because it can ensure that the system data and configuration are preserved and replicated for the forensic analysis, and that the system can be restored and recovered in case of any damage or loss.
Which of the following is the FIRST step in the incident response process?
Options:
Determine the cause of the incident
Disconnect the system involved from the network
Isolate and contain the system involved
Investigate all symptoms to confirm the incident
Answer:
DExplanation:
Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident is the first step in the incident response process. An incident is an event that violates or threatens the security, availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the IT systems or data. An incident response is a process that involves detecting, analyzing, containing, eradicating, recovering, and learning from an incident, using various methods and tools. An incident response can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the security and risk management of the IT systems and data by identifying and addressing the security weaknesses and gaps
- Enhancing the security and decision making of the IT systems and data by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting
- Increasing the security and improvement of the IT systems and data by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization
- Facilitating the compliance and alignment of the IT systems and data with the internal or external requirements and standards
Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident is the first step in the incident response process, because it can ensure that the incident is verified and validated, and that the incident response is initiated and escalated. A symptom is a sign or an indication that an incident may have occurred or is occurring, such as an alert, a log, or a report. Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident involves collecting and analyzing the relevant data and information from various sources, such as the IT systems, the network, the users, or the external parties, and determining whether an incident has actually happened or is happening, and how serious or urgent it is. Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident can also help to:
- Prevent the false positives or negatives that might cause the incident response to be delayed or unnecessary
- Identify the scope and impact of the incident on the IT systems and data
- Notify and inform the appropriate stakeholders and authorities about the incident
- Activate and coordinate the incident response team and resources
The other options are not the first steps in the incident response process, but rather steps that should be done after or along with investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident. Determining the cause of the incident is a step that should be done after investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the root cause and source of the incident are identified and analyzed, and that the incident response is directed and focused. Determining the cause of the incident involves examining and testing the affected IT systems and data, and tracing and tracking the origin and path of the incident, using various techniques and tools, such as forensics, malware analysis, or reverse engineering. Determining the cause of the incident can also help to:
- Understand the nature and behavior of the incident and the attacker
- Detect and resolve any issues or risks caused by the incident
- Prevent and mitigate any future incidents or attacks involving the same or similar cause
- Support and enable the legal or regulatory actions or investigations against the incident or the attacker
Disconnecting the system involved from the network is a step that should be done along with investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the system is isolated and protected from any external or internal influences or interferences, and that the incident response is conducted in a safe and controlled environment. Disconnecting the system involved from the network can also help to:
- Prevent the incident from communicating or connecting with any other system or network, and potentially spreading or escalating the attack
- Prevent the incident from receiving or sending any commands or data, and potentially altering or deleting the evidence
- Prevent the incident from detecting or evading the incident response, and potentially hiding or destroying itself
Isolating and containing the system involved is a step that should be done after investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the incident is confined and restricted, and that the incident response is continued and maintained. Isolating and containing the system involved involves applying and enforcing the appropriate security measures and controls to limit or stop the activity and impact of the incident on the IT systems and data, such as firewall rules, access policies, or encryption keys. Isolating and containing the system involved can also help to:
- Minimize the damage and loss caused by the incident on the IT systems and data
- Maximize the recovery and restoration of the IT systems and data
- Support and enable the eradication and removal of the incident from the IT systems and data
- Facilitate the learning and improvement of the IT systems and data from the incident
With what frequency should monitoring of a control occur when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions?
Options:
Continuously without exception for all security controls
Before and after each change of the control
At a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control
Only during system implementation and decommissioning
Answer:
CExplanation:
Monitoring of a control should occur at a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions. ISCM is a process that involves maintaining the ongoing awareness of the security status, events, and activities of a system or network, by collecting, analyzing, and reporting the security data and information, using various methods and tools. ISCM can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the security and risk management of the system or network by identifying and addressing the security weaknesses and gaps
- Enhancing the security and decision making of the system or network by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting
- Increasing the security and improvement of the system or network by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization
- Facilitating the compliance and alignment of the system or network with the internal or external requirements and standards
A security control is a measure or mechanism that is implemented to protect the system or network from the security threats or risks, by preventing, detecting, or correcting the security incidents or impacts. A security control can have various types, such as administrative, technical, or physical, and various attributes, such as preventive, detective, or corrective. A security control can also have different levels of volatility, which is the degree or frequency of change or variation of the security control, due to various factors, such as the security requirements, the threat landscape, or the system or network environment.
Monitoring of a control should occur at a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it can ensure that the ISCM solutions can capture and reflect the current and accurate state and performance of the security control, and can identify and report any issues or risks that might affect the security control. Monitoring of a control at a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control can also help to optimize the ISCM resources and efforts, by allocating them according to the priority and urgency of the security control.
The other options are not the correct frequencies for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, but rather incorrect or unrealistic frequencies that might cause problems or inefficiencies for the ISCM solutions. Continuously without exception for all security controls is an incorrect frequency for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it is not feasible or necessary to monitor all security controls at the same and constant rate, regardless of their volatility or importance. Continuously monitoring all security controls without exception might cause the ISCM solutions to consume excessive or wasteful resources and efforts, and might overwhelm or overload the ISCM solutions with too much or irrelevant data and information. Before and after each change of the control is an incorrect frequency for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it is not sufficient or timely to monitor the security control only when there is a change of the security control, and not during the normal operation of the security control. Monitoring the security control only before and after each change might cause the ISCM solutions to miss or ignore the security status, events, and activities that occur between the changes of the security control, and might delay or hinder the ISCM solutions from detecting and responding to the security issues or incidents that affect the security control. Only during system implementation and decommissioning is an incorrect frequency for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it is not appropriate or effective to monitor the security control only during the initial or final stages of the system or network lifecycle, and not during the operational or maintenance stages of the system or network lifecycle. Monitoring the security control only during system implementation and decommissioning might cause the ISCM solutions to neglect or overlook the security status, events, and activities that occur during the regular or ongoing operation of the system or network, and might prevent or limit the ISCM solutions from improving and optimizing the security control.
When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid?
Options:
When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager
When it has been validated by the board of directors
When it has been validated by all threat scenarios
When it has been validated by realistic exercises
Answer:
DExplanation:
A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is considered to be valid when it has been validated by realistic exercises. A BCP is a part of a BCP/DRP that focuses on ensuring the continuous operation of the organization’s critical business functions and processes during and after a disruption or disaster. A BCP should include various components, such as:
- Business impact analysis: a process that identifies and prioritizes the critical business functions and processes, and assesses the potential impacts and risks of a disruption or disaster on them
- Recovery strategies: a process that defines and selects the appropriate methods and resources to recover the critical business functions and processes, such as alternate sites, backup systems, or recovery teams
- BCP document: a document that outlines and details the scope, purpose, and features of the BCP, such as the roles and responsibilities, the recovery procedures, and the contact information
- Testing, training, and exercises: a process that evaluates and validates the effectiveness and readiness of the BCP, and educates and trains the relevant stakeholders, such as the staff, the management, and the customers, on the BCP and their roles and responsibilities
- Maintenance and review: a process that monitors and updates the BCP, and addresses any changes or issues that might affect the BCP, such as the business requirements, the threat landscape, or the feedback and lessons learned
A BCP is considered to be valid when it has been validated by realistic exercises, because it can ensure that the BCP is practical and applicable, and that it can achieve the desired outcomes and objectives in a real-life scenario. Realistic exercises are a type of testing, training, and exercises that involve performing and practicing the BCP with the relevant stakeholders, using simulated or hypothetical scenarios, such as a fire drill, a power outage, or a cyberattack. Realistic exercises can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the confidence and competence of the organization and its staff in handling a disruption or disaster
- Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the organization and its systems in recovering from a disruption or disaster
- Increasing the compliance and alignment of the organization and its plans with the internal or external requirements and standards
- Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the organization and its plans by identifying and addressing any gaps, issues, or risks
The other options are not the criteria for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather the steps or parties that are involved in developing or approving a BCP. When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager is not a criterion for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather a step that is involved in developing a BCP. The BC manager is the person who is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the BCP activities and processes, such as the business impact analysis, the recovery strategies, the BCP document, the testing, training, and exercises, and the maintenance and review. The BC manager can validate the BCP by reviewing and verifying the BCP components and outcomes, and ensuring that they meet the BCP standards and objectives. However, the validation by the BC manager is not enough to consider the BCP to be valid, as it does not test or demonstrate the BCP in a realistic scenario. When it has been validated by the board of directors is not a criterion for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather a party that is involved in approving a BCP. The board of directors is the group of people who are elected by the shareholders to represent their interests and to oversee the strategic direction and governance of the organization. The board of directors can approve the BCP by endorsing and supporting the BCP components and outcomes, and allocating the necessary resources and funds for the BCP. However, the approval by the board of directors is not enough to consider the BCP to be valid, as it does not test or demonstrate the BCP in a realistic scenario. When it has been validated by all threat scenarios is not a criterion for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather an unrealistic or impossible expectation for validating a BCP. A threat scenario is a description or a simulation of a possible or potential disruption or disaster that might affect the organization’s critical business functions and processes, such as a natural hazard, a human error, or a technical failure. A threat scenario can be used to test and validate the BCP by measuring and evaluating the BCP’s performance and effectiveness in responding and recovering from the disruption or disaster. However, it is not possible or feasible to validate the BCP by all threat scenarios, as there are too many or unknown threat scenarios that might occur, and some threat scenarios might be too severe or complex to simulate or test. Therefore, the BCP should be validated by the most likely or relevant threat scenarios, and not by all threat scenarios.
An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause?
Options:
Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution
Inadequate cost modeling
Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)
Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)
Answer:
DExplanation:
Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA) would be the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. A Web hosting solution is a service that provides the infrastructure, resources, and tools for hosting and maintaining a website or a web application on the internet. A Web hosting solution can offer various benefits, such as:
- Improving the availability and accessibility of the website or web application by ensuring that it is online and reachable at all times
- Enhancing the performance and scalability of the website or web application by optimizing the speed, load, and capacity of the web server
- Increasing the security and reliability of the website or web application by providing the backup, recovery, and protection of the web data and content
- Reducing the cost and complexity of the website or web application by outsourcing the web hosting and management to a third-party provider
A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract or an agreement that defines the expectations, responsibilities, and obligations of the parties involved in a service, such as the service provider and the service consumer. An SLA can include various components, such as:
- Service description: a detailed explanation of the scope, purpose, and features of the service
- Service level objectives: a set of measurable and quantifiable goals or targets for the service quality, performance, and availability
- Service level indicators: a set of metrics or parameters that are used to monitor and evaluate the service level objectives
- Service level reporting: a process that involves collecting, analyzing, and communicating the service level indicators and objectives
- Service level penalties: a set of consequences or actions that are applied when the service level objectives are not met or violated
Insufficient SLA would be the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it could mean that the SLA does not include or specify the appropriate service level indicators or objectives for the Web hosting solution, or that the SLA does not provide or enforce the adequate service level reporting or penalties for the Web hosting solution. This could affect the ability of the organization to measure and assess the Web hosting solution quality, performance, and availability, and to identify and address any issues or risks in the Web hosting solution.
The other options are not the most probable causes for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, but rather the factors that could affect or improve the Web hosting solution in other ways. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to analyze and utilize the data and information from the Web hosting solution, such as the web traffic, behavior, or conversion. A BI solution is a system that involves the collection, integration, processing, and presentation of the data and information from various sources, such as the Web hosting solution, to support the decision making and planning of the organization. However, absence of a BI solution is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the analysis or usage of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution. Inadequate cost modeling is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to estimate and optimize the cost and value of the Web hosting solution, such as the web hosting fees, maintenance costs, or return on investment. A cost model is a tool or a method that helps the organization to calculate and compare the cost and value of the Web hosting solution, and to identify and implement the best or most efficient Web hosting solution. However, inadequate cost modeling is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the estimation or optimization of the cost and value of the Web hosting solution. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to design and develop the Web hosting solution, such as the web services, components, or interfaces. A SOA is a software architecture that involves the modularization, standardization, and integration of the software components or services that provide the functionality or logic of the Web hosting solution. A SOA can offer various benefits, such as:
- Improving the flexibility and scalability of the Web hosting solution by allowing the addition, modification, or removal of the software components or services without affecting the whole Web hosting solution
- Enhancing the interoperability and compatibility of the Web hosting solution by enabling the communication and interaction of the software components or services across different platforms and technologies
- Increasing the reusability and maintainability of the Web hosting solution by reducing the duplication and complexity of the software components or services
However, improper deployment of the SOA is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the design or development of the Web hosting solution.
What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management?
Options:
Certify and approve releases to the environment
Provide version rollbacks for system changes
Ensure that all applications are approved
Ensure accountability for changes to the environment
Answer:
DExplanation:
Ensuring accountability for changes to the environment is the primary reason for implementing change management. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the system or network environment, such as the hardware, software, configuration, or documentation, are planned, approved, implemented, and documented in a controlled and consistent manner. Change management can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the security and reliability of the system or network environment by preventing or reducing the errors, conflicts, or disruptions that might occur due to the changes
- Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the system or network environment by optimizing the resources and functions
- Increasing the compliance and alignment of the system or network environment with the internal or external requirements and standards
- Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the system or network environment by tracking and logging the changes and their outcomes
Ensuring accountability for changes to the environment is the primary reason for implementing change management, because it can ensure that the changes are authorized, justified, and traceable, and that the parties involved in the changes are responsible and accountable for their actions and results. Accountability can also help to deter or detect any unauthorized or malicious changes that might compromise the system or network environment.
The other options are not the primary reasons for implementing change management, but rather secondary or specific reasons for different aspects or phases of change management. Certifying and approving releases to the environment is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the approval phase of change management, which is the phase that involves reviewing and validating the changes and their impacts, and granting or denying the permission to proceed with the changes. Providing version rollbacks for system changes is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the implementation phase of change management, which is the phase that involves executing and monitoring the changes and their effects, and providing the backup and recovery options for the changes. Ensuring that all applications are approved is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the application changes, which are the changes that affect the software components or services that provide the functionality or logic of the system or network environment.
What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved?
Options:
Take the computer to a forensic lab
Make a copy of the hard drive
Start documenting
Turn off the computer
Answer:
BExplanation:
Making a copy of the hard drive should be the first action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved. A chain of evidence, also known as a chain of custody, is a process that documents and preserves the integrity and authenticity of the evidence collected from a crime scene, such as a desktop computer. A chain of evidence should include information such as:
- The identity and role of the person who collected, handled, or transferred the evidence
- The date and time of the collection, handling, or transfer of the evidence
- The location and condition of the evidence
- The method and tool used to collect, handle, or transfer the evidence
- The signature or seal of the person who collected, handled, or transferred the evidence
Making a copy of the hard drive should be the first action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved, because it can ensure that the original hard drive is not altered, damaged, or destroyed during the forensic analysis, and that the copy can be used as a reliable and admissible source of evidence. Making a copy of the hard drive should also involve using a write blocker, which is a device or a software that prevents any modification or deletion of the data on the hard drive, and generating a hash value, which is a unique and fixed identifier that can verify the integrity and consistency of the data on the hard drive.
The other options are not the first actions to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved, but rather actions that should be done after or along with making a copy of the hard drive. Taking the computer to a forensic lab is an action that should be done after making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the computer is transported and stored in a secure and controlled environment, and that the forensic analysis is conducted by qualified and authorized personnel. Starting documenting is an action that should be done along with making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the chain of evidence is maintained and recorded throughout the forensic process, and that the evidence can be traced and verified. Turning off the computer is an action that should be done after making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the computer is powered down and disconnected from any network or device, and that the computer is protected from any further damage or tampering.
A continuous information security-monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following?
Options:
Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies
Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts
Encompassing people, process, and technology
Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes
Answer:
CExplanation:
A continuous information security monitoring program can best reduce risk through encompassing people, process, and technology. A continuous information security monitoring program is a process that involves maintaining the ongoing awareness of the security status, events, and activities of a system or network, by collecting, analyzing, and reporting the security data and information, using various methods and tools. A continuous information security monitoring program can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the security and risk management of the system or network by identifying and addressing the security weaknesses and gaps
- Enhancing the security and decision making of the system or network by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting
- Increasing the security and improvement of the system or network by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization
- Facilitating the compliance and alignment of the system or network with the internal or external requirements and standards
A continuous information security monitoring program can best reduce risk through encompassing people, process, and technology, because it can ensure that the continuous information security monitoring program is holistic and comprehensive, and that it covers all the aspects and elements of the system or network security. People, process, and technology are the three pillars of a continuous information security monitoring program, and they represent the following:
- People: the human resources that are involved in the continuous information security monitoring program, such as the security analysts, the system administrators, the management, and the users. People are responsible for defining the security objectives and requirements, implementing and operating the security tools and controls, and monitoring and responding to the security events and incidents.
- Process: the procedures and policies that are followed in the continuous information security monitoring program, such as the security standards and guidelines, the security roles and responsibilities, the security workflows and tasks, and the security metrics and indicators. Process is responsible for establishing and maintaining the security governance and compliance, ensuring the security consistency and efficiency, and measuring and evaluating the security performance and effectiveness.
- Technology: the tools and systems that are used in the continuous information security monitoring program, such as the security sensors and agents, the security loggers and collectors, the security analyzers and correlators, and the security dashboards and reports. Technology is responsible for supporting and enabling the security functions and capabilities, providing the security visibility and awareness, and delivering the security data and information.
The other options are not the best ways to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but rather specific or partial ways that can contribute to the risk reduction. Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies is a specific way to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but it is not the best way, because it only focuses on one aspect of the security data and information, and it does not address the other aspects, such as the security objectives and requirements, the security controls and measures, and the security feedback and improvement. Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts is a partial way to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but it is not the best way, because it only covers one element of the system or network security, and it does not cover the other elements, such as the security threats and vulnerabilities, the security incidents and impacts, and the security response and remediation. Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes is a specific way to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but it is not the best way, because it only focuses on one type of the security events and activities, and it does not focus on the other types, such as the security alerts and notifications, the security analysis and correlation, and the security reporting and documentation.
Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?
Options:
Hardware and software compatibility issues
Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance
Budget constraints and requirements
Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives
Answer:
DExplanation:
Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRP) must be aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives. A DRP is a part of a BCP/DRP that focuses on restoring the normal operation of the organization’s IT systems and infrastructure after a disruption or disaster. A DRP should include various components, such as:
- Risk assessment: a process that identifies and evaluates the potential threats and vulnerabilities that might affect the IT systems and infrastructure, and estimates the likelihood and impact of a disruption or disaster
- Recovery objectives: a process that defines and quantifies the acceptable levels of recovery for the IT systems and infrastructure, such as the recovery point objective (RPO), which is the maximum amount of data loss that can be tolerated, and the recovery time objective (RTO), which is the maximum amount of downtime that can be tolerated
- Recovery strategies: a process that selects and implements the appropriate methods and resources to recover the IT systems and infrastructure, such as backup, replication, redundancy, or failover
- DRP document: a document that outlines and details the scope, purpose, and features of the DRP, such as the roles and responsibilities, the recovery procedures, and the contact information
- Testing, training, and exercises: a process that evaluates and validates the effectiveness and readiness of the DRP, and educates and trains the relevant stakeholders, such as the IT staff, the management, and the users, on the DRP and their roles and responsibilities
- Maintenance and review: a process that monitors and updates the DRP, and addresses any changes or issues that might affect the DRP, such as the IT requirements, the threat landscape, or the feedback and lessons learned
Recovery strategies of a DRP must be aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives, because it can ensure that the DRP is feasible and suitable, and that it can achieve the desired outcomes and objectives in a cost-effective and efficient manner. A cost/benefit analysis is a technique that compares the costs and benefits of different recovery strategies, and determines the optimal one that provides the best value for money. A business objective is a goal or a target that the organization wants to achieve through its IT systems and infrastructure, such as increasing the productivity, profitability, or customer satisfaction. A recovery strategy that is aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives can help to:
- Optimize the use and allocation of the IT resources and funds for the recovery
- Minimize the negative impacts and risks of a disruption or disaster on the IT systems and infrastructure
- Maximize the positive outcomes and benefits of the recovery for the IT systems and infrastructure
- Support and enable the achievement of the organizational goals and targets through the IT systems and infrastructure
The other options are not the factors that the recovery strategies of a DRP must be aligned with, but rather factors that should be considered or addressed when developing or implementing the recovery strategies of a DRP. Hardware and software compatibility issues are factors that should be considered when developing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can affect the functionality and interoperability of the IT systems and infrastructure, and may require additional resources or adjustments to resolve them. Applications’ criticality and downtime tolerance are factors that should be addressed when implementing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can determine the priority and urgency of the recovery for different applications, and may require different levels of recovery objectives and resources. Budget constraints and requirements are factors that should be considered when developing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can limit the availability and affordability of the IT resources and funds for the recovery, and may require trade-offs or compromises to balance them.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service?
Options:
Consolidation of multiple providers
Directory synchronization
Web based logon
Automated account management
Answer:
DExplanation:
Consolidation of multiple providers is the primary advantage of using a third-party identity service. A third-party identity service is a service that provides identity and access management (IAM) functions, such as authentication, authorization, and federation, for multiple applications or systems, using a single identity provider (IdP). A third-party identity service can offer various benefits, such as:
- Improving the user experience and convenience by allowing the users to access multiple applications or systems with a single sign-on (SSO) or a federated identity
- Enhancing the security and compliance by applying the consistent and standardized IAM policies and controls across multiple applications or systems
- Increasing the scalability and flexibility by enabling the integration and interoperability of multiple applications or systems with different platforms and technologies
- Reducing the cost and complexity by outsourcing the IAM functions to a third-party provider, and avoiding the duplication and maintenance of multiple IAM systems
Consolidation of multiple providers is the primary advantage of using a third-party identity service, because it can simplify and streamline the IAM architecture and processes, by reducing the number of IdPs and IAM systems that are involved in managing the identities and access for multiple applications or systems. Consolidation of multiple providers can also help to avoid the issues or risks that might arise from having multiple IdPs and IAM systems, such as the inconsistency, redundancy, or conflict of the IAM policies and controls, or the inefficiency, vulnerability, or disruption of the IAM functions.
The other options are not the primary advantages of using a third-party identity service, but rather secondary or specific advantages for different aspects or scenarios of using a third-party identity service. Directory synchronization is an advantage of using a third-party identity service, but it is more relevant for the scenario where the organization has an existing directory service, such as LDAP or Active Directory, that stores and manages the user accounts and attributes, and wants to synchronize them with the third-party identity service, to enable the SSO or federation for the users. Web based logon is an advantage of using a third-party identity service, but it is more relevant for the aspect where the third-party identity service uses a web-based protocol, such as SAML or OAuth, to facilitate the SSO or federation for the users, by redirecting them to a web-based logon page, where they can enter their credentials or consent. Automated account management is an advantage of using a third-party identity service, but it is more relevant for the aspect where the third-party identity service provides the IAM functions, such as provisioning, deprovisioning, or updating, for the user accounts and access rights, using an automated or self-service mechanism, such as SCIM or JIT.
What would be the MOST cost effective solution for a Disaster Recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours?
Options:
Warm site
Hot site
Mirror site
Cold site
Answer:
AExplanation:
A warm site is the most cost effective solution for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours. A DR site is a backup facility that can be used to restore the normal operation of the organization’s IT systems and infrastructure after a disruption or disaster. A DR site can have different levels of readiness and functionality, depending on the organization’s recovery objectives and budget. The main types of DR sites are:
- Hot site: a DR site that is fully operational and equipped with the necessary hardware, software, telecommunication lines, and network connectivity to allow the organization to be up and running almost immediately. A hot site has all the required servers, workstations, and communications links, and can function as a branch office or data center that is online and connected to the production network. A hot site also has a backup of the data from the systems at the primary site, which may be replicated in real time or near real time. A hot site greatly reduces or eliminates downtime for the organization, but it is also very expensive to maintain and operate.
- Warm site: a DR site that is partially operational and equipped with some of the hardware, software, telecommunication lines, and network connectivity to allow the organization to be up and running within a short time. A warm site has some of the required servers, workstations, and communications links, and can function as a temporary office or data center that is offline or partially connected to the production network. A warm site may have a backup of the data from the systems at the primary site, but it is not updated or synchronized as frequently as a hot site. A warm site reduces downtime for the organization, but it is also less expensive than a hot site.
- Cold site: a DR site that is not operational and equipped with only the basic infrastructure and environmental support systems to allow the organization to be up and running within a long time. A cold site has none of the required servers, workstations, and communications links, and cannot function as an office or data center until they are installed and configured. A cold site does not have a backup of the data from the systems at the primary site, and it has to be restored from other sources, such as tapes or disks. A cold site increases downtime for the organization, but it is also the cheapest option among the DR sites.
- Mirror site: a DR site that is an exact replica of the primary site, with the same hardware, software, telecommunication lines, and network connectivity, and with the same data and applications. A mirror site is always online and synchronized with the primary site, and can take over the operation of the organization seamlessly in the event of a disruption or disaster. A mirror site eliminates downtime for the organization, but it is also the most expensive option among the DR sites.
A warm site is the most cost effective solution for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it can provide a balance between the recovery time and the recovery cost. A warm site can enable the organization to resume its critical functions and operations within a reasonable time frame, without spending too much on the DR site maintenance and operation. A warm site can also provide some flexibility and scalability for the organization to adjust its recovery strategies and resources according to its needs and priorities.
The other options are not the most cost effective solutions for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, but rather solutions that are either too costly or too slow for the organization’s recovery objectives and budget. A hot site is a solution that is too costly for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it requires the organization to invest a lot of money on the DR site equipment, software, and services, and to pay for the ongoing operational and maintenance costs. A hot site may be more suitable for the organization’s systems that cannot be unavailable for more than a few hours or minutes, or that have very high availability and performance requirements. A mirror site is a solution that is too costly for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it requires the organization to duplicate its entire primary site, with the same hardware, software, data, and applications, and to keep them online and synchronized at all times. A mirror site may be more suitable for the organization’s systems that cannot afford any downtime or data loss, or that have very strict compliance and regulatory requirements. A cold site is a solution that is too slow for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it requires the organization to spend a lot of time and effort on the DR site installation, configuration, and restoration, and to rely on other sources of backup data and applications. A cold site may be more suitable for the organization’s systems that can be unavailable for more than a few days or weeks, or that have very low criticality and priority.
Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs?
Options:
Check arguments in function calls
Test for the security patch level of the environment
Include logging functions
Digitally sign each application module
Answer:
BExplanation:
Testing for the security patch level of the environment is the web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs. OS bugs are errors or defects in the code or logic of the OS that can cause the OS to malfunction or behave unexpectedly. OS bugs can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, disrupt business operations, or steal or leak sensitive data. Testing for the security patch level of the environment is the web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of OS bugs, because it can provide several benefits, such as:
- Detecting and resolving any vulnerabilities or issues caused by the OS bugs by applying the latest security patches or updates from the OS developers or vendors
- Enhancing the security and performance of the web applications by using the most secure and efficient version of the OS that supports the web applications
- Increasing the compliance and alignment of the web applications with the security policies and regulations that are applicable to the web applications
- Improving the compatibility and interoperability of the web applications with the other systems or platforms that interact with the web applications
The other options are not the web application controls that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of OS bugs, but rather web application controls that can prevent or mitigate other types of web application attacks or issues. Checking arguments in function calls is a web application control that can prevent or mitigate buffer overflow attacks, which are attacks that exploit the vulnerability of the web application code that does not properly check the size or length of the input data that is passed to a function or a variable, and overwrite the adjacent memory locations with malicious code or data. Including logging functions is a web application control that can prevent or mitigate unauthorized access or modification attacks, which are attacks that exploit the lack of or weak authentication or authorization mechanisms of the web applications, and access or modify the web application data or functionality without proper permission or verification. Digitally signing each application module is a web application control that can prevent or mitigate code injection or tampering attacks, which are attacks that exploit the vulnerability of the web application code that does not properly validate or sanitize the input data that is executed or interpreted by the web application, and inject or modify the web application code with malicious code or data.
Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?
Options:
Purchase software from a limited list of retailers
Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates
Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet
Test all new software in a segregated environment
Answer:
DExplanation:
Testing all new software in a segregated environment is the best method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment. Malware is any malicious software that can harm or compromise the security, availability, integrity, or confidentiality of a system or data. Malware can be introduced into a production environment through various sources, such as software downloads, updates, patches, or installations. Testing all new software in a segregated environment involves verifying and validating the functionality and security of the software before deploying it to the production environment, using a separate system or network that is isolated and protected from the production environment. Testing all new software in a segregated environment can provide several benefits, such as:
- Preventing the infection or propagation of malware to the production environment
- Detecting and resolving any issues or risks caused by the software
- Ensuring the compatibility and interoperability of the software with the production environment
- Supporting and enabling the quality assurance and improvement of the software
The other options are not the best methods to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment, but rather methods that can reduce or mitigate the risk of malware, but not eliminate it. Purchasing software from a limited list of retailers is a method that can reduce the risk of malware from being introduced into a production environment, but not prevent it. This method involves obtaining software only from trusted and reputable sources, such as official vendors or distributors, that can provide some assurance of the quality and security of the software. However, this method does not guarantee that the software is free of malware, as it may still contain hidden or embedded malware, or it may be tampered with or compromised during the delivery or installation process. Verifying the hash key or certificate key of all updates is a method that can reduce the risk of malware from being introduced into a production environment, but not prevent it. This method involves checking the authenticity and integrity of the software updates, patches, or installations, by comparing the hash key or certificate key of the software with the expected or published value, using cryptographic techniques and tools. However, this method does not guarantee that the software is free of malware, as it may still contain malware that is not detected or altered by the hash key or certificate key, or it may be subject to a man-in-the-middle attack or a replay attack that can intercept or modify the software or the key. Not permitting programs, patches, or updates from the Internet is a method that can reduce the risk of malware from being introduced into a production environment, but not prevent it. This method involves restricting or blocking the access or download of software from the Internet, which is a common and convenient source of malware, by applying and enforcing the appropriate security policies and controls, such as firewall rules, antivirus software, or web filters. However, this method does not guarantee that the software is free of malware, as it may still be obtained or infected from other sources, such as removable media, email attachments, or network shares.
What is the BEST approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications?
Options:
Debug the security issues
Migrate to newer, supported applications where possible
Conduct a security assessment
Protect the legacy application with a web application firewall
Answer:
BExplanation:
Migrating to newer, supported applications where possible is the best approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications. Legacy web applications are web applications that are outdated, unsupported, or incompatible with the current technologies and standards. Legacy web applications may have various security issues, such as:
- Vulnerabilities and bugs that are not fixed or patched by the developers or vendors
- Weak or obsolete encryption and authentication mechanisms that are easily broken or bypassed by attackers
- Lack of compliance with the security policies and regulations that are applicable to the web applications
- Incompatibility or interoperability issues with the newer web browsers, operating systems, or platforms that are used by the users or clients
Migrating to newer, supported applications where possible is the best approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications, because it can provide several benefits, such as:
- Enhancing the security and performance of the web applications by using the latest technologies and standards that are more secure and efficient
- Reducing the risk and impact of the web application attacks by eliminating or minimizing the vulnerabilities and bugs that are present in the legacy web applications
- Increasing the compliance and alignment of the web applications with the security policies and regulations that are applicable to the web applications
- Improving the compatibility and interoperability of the web applications with the newer web browsers, operating systems, or platforms that are used by the users or clients
The other options are not the best approaches to addressing security issues in legacy web applications, but rather approaches that can mitigate or remediate the security issues, but not eliminate or prevent them. Debugging the security issues is an approach that can mitigate the security issues in legacy web applications, but not the best approach, because it involves identifying and fixing the errors or defects in the code or logic of the web applications, which may be difficult or impossible to do for the legacy web applications that are outdated or unsupported. Conducting a security assessment is an approach that can remediate the security issues in legacy web applications, but not the best approach, because it involves evaluating and testing the security effectiveness and compliance of the web applications, using various techniques and tools, such as audits, reviews, scans, or penetration tests, and identifying and reporting any security weaknesses or gaps, which may not be sufficient or feasible to do for the legacy web applications that are incompatible or obsolete. Protecting the legacy application with a web application firewall is an approach that can mitigate the security issues in legacy web applications, but not the best approach, because it involves deploying and configuring a web application firewall, which is a security device or software that monitors and filters the web traffic between the web applications and the users or clients, and blocks or allows the web requests or responses based on the predefined rules or policies, which may not be effective or efficient to do for the legacy web applications that have weak or outdated encryption or authentication mechanisms.
The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
Options:
System acquisition and development
System operations and maintenance
System initiation
System implementation
Answer:
AExplanation:
The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in the system acquisition and development phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC). The SDLC is a process that involves planning, designing, developing, testing, deploying, operating, and maintaining a system, using various models and methodologies, such as waterfall, spiral, agile, or DevSecOps. The SDLC can be divided into several phases, each with its own objectives and activities, such as:
- System initiation: This phase involves defining the scope, purpose, and objectives of the system, identifying the stakeholders and their needs and expectations, and establishing the project plan and budget.
- System acquisition and development: This phase involves designing the architecture and components of the system, selecting and procuring the hardware and software resources, developing and coding the system functionality and features, and integrating and testing the system modules and interfaces.
- System implementation: This phase involves deploying and installing the system to the production environment, migrating and converting the data and applications from the legacy system, training and educating the users and staff on the system operation and maintenance, and evaluating and validating the system performance and effectiveness.
- System operations and maintenance: This phase involves operating and monitoring the system functionality and availability, maintaining and updating the system hardware and software, resolving and troubleshooting any issues or problems, and enhancing and optimizing the system features and capabilities.
The certification and accreditation process is a process that involves assessing and verifying the security and compliance of a system, and authorizing and approving the system operation and maintenance, using various standards and frameworks, such as NIST SP 800-37 or ISO/IEC 27001. The certification and accreditation process can be divided into several tasks, each with its own objectives and activities, such as:
- Security categorization: This task involves determining the security level and impact of the system and its data, based on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability criteria, and applying the appropriate security controls and measures.
- Security planning: This task involves defining the security objectives and requirements of the system, identifying the roles and responsibilities of the security stakeholders, and developing and documenting the security plan and policy.
- Security implementation: This task involves implementing and enforcing the security controls and measures for the system, according to the security plan and policy, and ensuring the security functionality and compatibility of the system.
- Security assessment: This task involves evaluating and testing the security effectiveness and compliance of the system, using various techniques and tools, such as audits, reviews, scans, or penetration tests, and identifying and reporting any security weaknesses or gaps.
- Security authorization: This task involves reviewing and approving the security assessment results and recommendations, and granting or denying the authorization for the system operation and maintenance, based on the risk and impact analysis and the security objectives and requirements.
- Security monitoring: This task involves monitoring and updating the security status and activities of the system, using various methods and tools, such as logs, alerts, or reports, and addressing and resolving any security issues or changes.
The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in the system acquisition and development phase of the SDLC, because it can ensure that the system design and development are consistent and compliant with the security objectives and requirements, and that the system changes are controlled and documented. Configuration management and control is a process that involves establishing and maintaining the baseline and the inventory of the system components and resources, such as hardware, software, data, or documentation, and tracking and recording any modifications or updates to the system components and resources, using various techniques and tools, such as version control, change control, or configuration audits. Configuration management and control can provide several benefits, such as:
- Improving the quality and security of the system design and development by identifying and addressing any errors or inconsistencies
- Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the system design and development by optimizing the use and allocation of the system components and resources
- Increasing the compliance and alignment of the system design and development with the security objectives and requirements by applying and enforcing the security controls and measures
- Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the system design and development by providing the evidence and information for the security assessment and authorization
The other options are not the phases of the SDLC that incorporate the configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process, but rather phases that involve other tasks of the certification and accreditation process. System operations and maintenance is a phase of the SDLC that incorporates the security monitoring task of the certification and accreditation process, because it can ensure that the system operation and maintenance are consistent and compliant with the security objectives and requirements, and that the system security is updated and improved. System initiation is a phase of the SDLC that incorporates the security categorization and security planning tasks of the certification and accreditation process, because it can ensure that the system scope and objectives are defined and aligned with the security objectives and requirements, and that the security plan and policy are developed and documented. System implementation is a phase of the SDLC that incorporates the security assessment and security authorization tasks of the certification and accreditation process, because it can ensure that the system deployment and installation are evaluated and verified for the security effectiveness and compliance, and that the system operation and maintenance are authorized and approved based on the risk and impact analysis and the security objectives and requirements.
When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined?
Options:
After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed
After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins
After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins
After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed
Answer:
DExplanation:
Software security functional requirements must be defined after the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC). The SDLC is a process that involves planning, designing, developing, testing, deploying, operating, and maintaining a system, using various models and methodologies, such as waterfall, spiral, agile, or DevSecOps. The SDLC can be divided into several phases, each with its own objectives and activities, such as:
- System initiation: This phase involves defining the scope, purpose, and objectives of the system, identifying the stakeholders and their needs and expectations, and establishing the project plan and budget.
- System acquisition and development: This phase involves designing the architecture and components of the system, selecting and procuring the hardware and software resources, developing and coding the system functionality and features, and integrating and testing the system modules and interfaces.
- System implementation: This phase involves deploying and installing the system to the production environment, migrating and converting the data and applications from the legacy system, training and educating the users and staff on the system operation and maintenance, and evaluating and validating the system performance and effectiveness.
- System operations and maintenance: This phase involves operating and monitoring the system functionality and availability, maintaining and updating the system hardware and software, resolving and troubleshooting any issues or problems, and enhancing and optimizing the system features and capabilities.
Software security functional requirements are the specific and measurable security features and capabilities that the system must provide to meet the security objectives and requirements. Software security functional requirements are derived from the business functional analysis and the data security categorization, which are two tasks that are performed in the system initiation phase of the SDLC. The business functional analysis is the process of identifying and documenting the business functions and processes that the system must support and enable, such as the inputs, outputs, workflows, and tasks. The data security categorization is the process of determining the security level and impact of the system and its data, based on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability criteria, and applying the appropriate security controls and measures. Software security functional requirements must be defined after the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed, because they can ensure that the system design and development are consistent and compliant with the security objectives and requirements, and that the system security is aligned and integrated with the business functions and processes.
The other options are not the phases of the SDLC when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather phases that involve other tasks or activities related to the system design and development. After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed is not the phase when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather the phase when the system architecture and components are designed, based on the system scope and objectives, and the data security categorization is verified and validated. After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins is not the phase when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather the phase when the system design and components are evaluated and tested for the security effectiveness and compliance, and the system detailed design is developed, based on the system architecture and components. After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins is not the phase when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather the phase when the system architecture and components are designed, based on the system scope and objectives, and the data security categorization is initiated and planned.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction?
Options:
Lack of software documentation
License agreements requiring release of modified code
Expiration of the license agreement
Costs associated with support of the software
Answer:
BExplanation:
The primary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction is license agreements requiring release of modified code. Open source software is software that uses publicly available source code, which can be seen, modified, and distributed by anyone. Open source software has some advantages, such as being affordable and flexible, but it also has some disadvantages, such as being potentially insecure or unsupported.
One of the main disadvantages of using open source software in a commercial software construction is the license agreements that govern the use and distribution of the open source software. License agreements are legal contracts that specify the rights and obligations of the parties involved in the software, such as the original authors, the developers, and the users. License agreements can vary in terms of their terms and conditions, such as the scope, the duration, or the fees of the software.
Some of the common types of license agreements for open source software are:
- Permissive licenses: license agreements that allow the developers and users to freely use, modify, and distribute the open source software, with minimal or no restrictions. Examples of permissive licenses are the MIT License, the Apache License, or the BSD License.
- Copyleft licenses: license agreements that require the developers and users to share and distribute the open source software and any modifications or derivatives of it, under the same or compatible license terms and conditions. Examples of copyleft licenses are the GNU General Public License (GPL), the GNU Lesser General Public License (LGPL), or the Mozilla Public License (MPL).
- Mixed licenses: license agreements that combine the elements of permissive and copyleft licenses, and may apply different license terms and conditions to different parts or components of the open source software. Examples of mixed licenses are the Eclipse Public License (EPL), the Common Development and Distribution License (CDDL), or the GNU Affero General Public License (AGPL).
The primary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction is license agreements requiring release of modified code, which are usually associated with copyleft licenses. This means that if a commercial software construction uses or incorporates open source software that is licensed under a copyleft license, then it must also release its own source code and any modifications or derivatives of it, under the same or compatible copyleft license. This can pose a significant risk for the commercial software construction, as it may lose its competitive advantage, intellectual property, or revenue, by disclosing its source code and allowing others to use, modify, or distribute it.
The other options are not the primary risks with using open source software in a commercial software construction, but rather secondary or minor risks that may or may not apply to the open source software. Lack of software documentation is a secondary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction, as it may affect the quality, usability, or maintainability of the open source software, but it does not necessarily affect the rights or obligations of the commercial software construction. Expiration of the license agreement is a minor risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction, as it may affect the availability or continuity of the open source software, but it is unlikely to happen, as most open source software licenses are perpetual or indefinite. Costs associated with support of the software is a secondary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction, as it may affect the reliability, security, or performance of the open source software, but it can be mitigated or avoided by choosing the open source software that has adequate or alternative support options.
A Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. The program is not working as expected. What is the MOST probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended?
Options:
Least privilege
Privilege escalation
Defense in depth
Privilege bracketing
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended is least privilege. Least privilege is a principle that states that a subject (such as a user, a process, or a program) should only have the minimum amount of access or permissions that are necessary to perform its function or task. Least privilege can help to reduce the attack surface and the potential damage of a system or network, by limiting the exposure and impact of a subject in case of a compromise or misuse.
Java implements the principle of least privilege through its security model, which consists of several components, such as:
- The Java Virtual Machine (JVM): a software layer that executes the Java bytecode and provides an abstraction from the underlying hardware and operating system. The JVM enforces the security rules and restrictions on the Java programs, such as the memory protection, the bytecode verification, and the exception handling.
- The Java Security Manager: a class that defines and controls the security policy and permissions for the Java programs. The Java Security Manager can be configured and customized by the system administrator or the user, and can grant or deny the access or actions of the Java programs, such as the file I/O, the network communication, or the system properties.
- The Java Security Policy: a file that specifies the security permissions for the Java programs, based on the code source and the code signer. The Java Security Policy can be defined and modified by the system administrator or the user, and can assign different levels of permissions to different Java programs, such as the trusted or the untrusted ones.
- The Java Security Sandbox: a mechanism that isolates and restricts the Java programs that are downloaded or executed from untrusted sources, such as the web or the network. The Java Security Sandbox applies the default or the minimal security permissions to the untrusted Java programs, and prevents them from accessing or modifying the local resources or data, such as the files, the databases, or the registry.
In this question, the Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. This means that the Java program needs to have the permissions to perform the file I/O and the network communication operations, which are considered as sensitive or risky actions by the Java security model. However, if the Java program is running on computer C with the default or the minimal security permissions, such as in the Java Security Sandbox, then it will not be able to perform these operations, and the program will not work as expected. Therefore, the most probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended is least privilege, which limits the access or permissions of the Java program based on its source, signer, or policy.
The other options are not the security features of Java preventing the program from operating as intended, but rather concepts or techniques that are related to security in general or in other contexts. Privilege escalation is a technique that allows a subject to gain higher or unauthorized access or permissions than what it is supposed to have, by exploiting a vulnerability or a flaw in a system or network. Privilege escalation can help an attacker to perform malicious actions or to access sensitive resources or data, by bypassing the security controls or restrictions. Defense in depth is a concept that states that a system or network should have multiple layers or levels of security, to provide redundancy and resilience in case of a breach or an attack. Defense in depth can help to protect a system or network from various threats and risks, by using different types of security measures and controls, such as the physical, the technical, or the administrative ones. Privilege bracketing is a technique that allows a subject to temporarily elevate or lower its access or permissions, to perform a specific function or task, and then return to its original or normal level. Privilege bracketing can help to reduce the exposure and impact of a subject, by minimizing the time and scope of its higher or lower access or permissions.
What type of access control determines the authorization to resource based on pre-defined job titles within an organization?
Options:
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
Role-based access control
Non-discretionary access control
Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Answer:
AExplanation:
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is the type of access control that determines the authorization to resources based on predefined job titles within an organization. RBAC is a model of access control that assigns roles to users based on their functions, responsibilities, or qualifications, and grants permissions to resources based on the roles. RBAC simplifies the management and administration of access control, as it reduces the complexity and redundancy of assigning permissions to individual users or groups. RBAC also enhances the security and compliance of access control, as it enforces the principle of least privilege and the separation of duties. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5: Identity and Access Management, page 203. Free daily CISSP practice questions, Question 4.
A software development company found odd behavior in some recently developed software, creating a need for a more thorough code review. What is the MOST effective argument for a more thorough code review?
Options:
It will increase flexibility of the applications developed.
It will increase accountability with the customers.
It will impede the development process.
lt will reduce the potential for vulnerabilities.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most effective argument for a more thorough code review is that it will reduce the potential for vulnerabilities. A code review is a process of examining and evaluating the source code of a software program to identify and correct any errors, defects, or weaknesses that may affect its functionality, quality, security, or performance. A more thorough code review will increase the chances of finding and fixing the vulnerabilities in the code, such as logic flaws, buffer overflows, input validation errors, or insecure coding practices. A more thorough code review will also improve the security posture of the software, as it will reduce the attack surface, mitigate the risks, and comply with the standards and regulations. A more thorough code review may also provide other benefits, such as increasing the flexibility, accountability, or efficiency of the software development process, but these are not the most effective or persuasive arguments for a more thorough code review, as they may not be directly related to the security objectives or requirements of the software. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 21: Software Development Security, page 2010.
Which of the following documents specifies services from the client's viewpoint?
Options:
Service level report
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Service level agreement (SLA)
Service Level Requirement (SLR)
Answer:
DExplanation:
The document that specifies services from the client’s viewpoint is the Service Level Requirement (SLR). SLR is a document that defines and describes the expectations and the needs of the client or the customer regarding the services that are provided or delivered by the service provider or the vendor, such as the quality, the availability, the performance, or the cost of the services. SLR specifies services from the client’s viewpoint, because it can:
- Identify and communicate the requirements and the objectives of the client or the customer for the services that are provided or delivered by the service provider or the vendor, and ensure that the services are aligned and consistent with the requirements and the objectives of the client or the customer.
- Negotiate and agree on the terms and the conditions of the services that are provided or delivered by the service provider or the vendor, and establish the roles and the responsibilities of the client or the customer and the service provider or the vendor for the services.
- Monitor and measure the performance and the effectiveness of the services that are provided or delivered by the service provider or the vendor, and evaluate the satisfaction and the feedback of the client or the customer for the services.
The other options are not the documents that specify services from the client’s viewpoint. Service level report is a document that provides and presents the information and the data about the actual performance and the effectiveness of the services that are provided or delivered by the service provider or the vendor, compared to the agreed or the expected performance and the effectiveness of the services, such as the service level targets or the service level indicators. Service level report does not specify services from the client’s viewpoint, but rather reports services from the service provider’s viewpoint. Business impact analysis (BIA) is a document that provides and presents the analysis and the assessment of the potential impact and the consequences of the disruption or the interruption of the critical business functions or processes, due to the incidents or the events, such as the disasters, the emergencies, or the threats. BIA does not specify services from the client’s viewpoint, but rather analyzes services from the business viewpoint. Service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines and describes the agreed or the expected performance and the effectiveness of the services that are provided or delivered by the service provider or the vendor, such as the service level targets or the service level indicators, and the remedies or the penalties for the non-compliance or the breach of the performance and the effectiveness of the services. SLA does not specify services from the client’s viewpoint, but rather agrees services from the service provider’s viewpoint. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7: Security Operations, page 900. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7: Security
Which of the following is the MOST important action regarding authentication?
Options:
Granting access rights
Enrolling in the system
Establishing audit controls
Obtaining executive authorization
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most important action regarding authentication is enrolling in the system. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity or attributes of a user, device, or process that requests access to a system or resource. Authentication can be based on something the user knows, such as a password or a PIN; something the user has, such as a smart card or a token; something the user is, such as a fingerprint or a face; or something the user does, such as a signature or a voice. Enrolling in the system is the first and essential step of authentication, as it establishes the identity or attributes of the user and associates them with a unique identifier, such as a username or an account number. Enrolling in the system also involves creating and storing the authentication factors, such as passwords, tokens, or biometrics, that will be used to authenticate the user in the future. Without enrolling in the system, authentication cannot take place. Granting access rights, establishing audit controls, and obtaining executive authorization are not actions regarding authentication, but rather actions regarding authorization, accountability, and governance, respectively. Authorization is the process of granting or denying access to a system or resource based on the authenticated identity or attributes of the user. Accountability is the process of holding users responsible for their actions and activities on a system or resource. Governance is the process of defining and implementing the policies, procedures, and standards for managing and securing a system or resource. References:
- [Authentication]
- [What is Authentication?]
- [Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)]
An organization is planning to have an it audit of its as a Service (SaaS) application to demonstrate to external parties that the security controls around availability are designed. The audit report must also cover a certain period of time to show the operational effectiveness of the controls. Which Service Organization Control (SOC) report would BEST fit their needs?
Options:
SOC 1 Type 1
SOC 1 Type 2
SOC 2 Type 1
SOC 2 Type 2
Answer:
DExplanation:
A SOC 2 Type 2 report would best fit the needs of the organization that wants to have an IT audit of its SaaS application to demonstrate the security controls around availability. A SOC 2 Type 2 report provides information about the design and the operating effectiveness of the controls at a service organization relevant to the availability trust service category, as well as the other trust service categories such as security, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy. A SOC 2 Type 2 report covers a specified period of time, usually between six and twelve months, and includes the description of the tests of controls and the results performed by the auditor. A SOC 2 Type 2 report is intended for the general or the restricted use of the user entities and the other interested parties that need to understand the security controls of the service organization.
The other options are not the best fit for the needs of the organization. A SOC 1 report is for organizations whose internal security controls can impact a customer’s financial statements, and it is based on the SSAE 18 standard. A SOC 1 report does not cover the availability trust service category, but rather the control objectives defined by the service organization. A SOC 1 report can be either Type 1 or Type 2, depending on whether it evaluates the design of the controls at a point in time or the operating effectiveness of the controls over a period of time. A SOC 1 report is intended for the restricted use of the user entities and the other interested parties that need to understand the internal control over financial reporting of the service organization. A SOC 2 Type 1 report is similar to a SOC 2 Type 2 report, except that it evaluates the design of the controls at a point in time, and does not include the tests of controls and the results. A SOC 2 Type 1 report may not provide sufficient assurance about the operational effectiveness of the controls over a period of time. A SOC 3 report is a short form, general use report that gives users and interested parties a report about controls at a service organization related to the trust service categories. A SOC 3 report does not include the description of tests of controls and results, which limits its usability and detail.
References: SOC Report Types: Type 1 vs Type 2 SOC Reports/Audits, SOC 1 vs SOC 2 vs SOC 3: What’s the Difference? | Secureframe, A Comprehensive Guide to SOC Reports - SC&H Group, Service Organization Control (SOC) Reports Explained - Cherry Bekaert, Service Organization Controls (SOC) Reports | Rapid7
What is the FIRST step that should be considered in a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) program?
Options:
Configuration management (CM)
Information Rights Management (IRM)
Policy creation
Data classification
Answer:
DExplanation:
The first step that should be considered in a data loss prevention (DLP) program is data classification. Data loss prevention (DLP) is a type of process that involves identifying, monitoring, and protecting the data or the information on a system or a network, or on an organization or a business, using various methods, such as policies, rules, or tools, to prevent or mitigate the data or the information from being lost, leaked, or stolen by unauthorized parties, such as hackers, insiders, or competitors. DLP can provide various benefits, such as enhancing the security, compliance, or reputation of the system or the network, or of the organization or the business, and ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the data or the information. DLP can be implemented or performed by various steps or phases, such as:
- Data classification: The step or the phase that involves defining, assigning, and labeling the data or the information on a system or a network, or on an organization or a business, using various criteria, categories, or levels, such as public, private, or confidential, to indicate or reflect the value, sensitivity, or importance of the data or the information, and to determine or guide the handling or the management of the data or the information.
- Data discovery: The step or the phase that involves locating, identifying, and inventorying the data or the information on a system or a network, or on an organization or a business, using various methods, such as scanning, mapping, or indexing, to understand or analyze the source, type, or content of the data or the information, and to assess or evaluate the risk or the exposure of the data or the information.
- Data monitoring: The step or the phase that involves observing, tracking, and recording the data or the information on a system or a network, or on an organization or a business, using various sources, such as logs, alerts, or reports, to measure or evaluate the usage, activity, or behavior of the data or the information, and to detect or prevent the data or the information from being lost, leaked, or stolen.
- Data protection: The step or the phase that involves applying or enforcing the policies, rules, or tools to the data or the information on a system or a network, or on an organization or a business, using various techniques, such as encryption, masking, or blocking, to prevent or mitigate the data or the information from being lost, leaked, or stolen, and to achieve or maintain the security, compliance, or reputation of the system or the network, or of the organization or the business. Data classification is the first step that should be considered in a DLP program, as it can provide the foundation or the basis for the other steps or phases of the DLP program, and as it can enable or facilitate the identification, monitoring, and protection of the data or the information34. References: CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 3, page 230; 2024 Pass4itsure CISSP Dumps, Question 18.
Which of the following should be included in a hardware retention policy?
Which of the following should be included in a hardware retention policy?
Options:
The use of encryption technology to encrypt sensitive data prior to retention
Retention of data for only one week and outsourcing the retention to a third-party vendor
Retention of all sensitive data on media and hardware
A plan to retain data required only for business purposes and a retention schedule
Answer:
DExplanation:
A hardware retention policy is a set of guidelines that defines how long hardware and data should be kept and how they should be disposed of when they are no longer needed. A hardware retention policy should include a plan to retain data required only for business purposes and a retention schedule that specifies the duration and frequency of data retention. This can help to reduce the risk of data breaches, comply with legal and regulatory requirements, optimize storage space and costs, and support business continuity and disaster recovery. A hardware retention policy should also include procedures for secure data erasure and hardware disposal to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data. References:
- Hardware Retention Policy
- Disposal of IT Equipment Policy
- Data Retention Policy
Which of the following BEST provides for non-repudiation od user account actions?
Options:
Centralized authentication system
File auditing system
Managed Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Centralized logging system
Answer:
DExplanation:
A centralized logging system is the best option for providing non-repudiation of user account actions. Non-repudiation is the ability to prove that a certain action or event occurred and who was responsible for it, without the possibility of denial or dispute. A centralized logging system is a system that collects, stores, and analyzes the log records generated by various sources, such as applications, servers, devices, or users. A centralized logging system can provide non-repudiation by capturing and preserving the evidence of the user account actions, such as the timestamp, the username, the IP address, the action performed, and the outcome. A centralized logging system can also prevent the tampering or deletion of the log records by using encryption, hashing, digital signatures, or write-once media. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7: Security Operations, page 382. CISSP Practice Exam | Boson, Question 10.
What is a security concern when considering implementing software-defined networking (SDN)?
Options:
It increases the attack footprint.
It uses open source protocols.
It has a decentralized architecture.
It is cloud based.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A security concern when considering implementing software-defined networking (SDN) is that it increases the attack footprint. SDN is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, and centralizes the network intelligence and management in a software controller. SDN enables more flexibility, scalability, and programmability of the network, as well as better integration with cloud services and applications. However, SDN also introduces new security challenges and risks, such as the following:
- It increases the attack footprint, as the SDN controller becomes a single point of failure and a high-value target for attackers. If the SDN controller is compromised, the attacker can gain access to the entire network and manipulate its behavior or performance.
- It exposes new attack vectors, as the SDN controller communicates with the network devices and applications via open and standardized protocols, such as OpenFlow, REST, or NETCONF. These protocols may have vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers to launch denial-of-service, man-in-the-middle, or spoofing attacks.
- It requires more trust and verification, as the SDN controller relies on the information and feedback from the network devices and applications to make decisions and enforce policies. The network devices and applications may provide inaccurate or malicious information to the SDN controller, or may not comply with the instructions or configurations from the SDN controller, leading to security breaches or inconsistencies. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, Section: Software-Defined Networking, pp. 219-220.
Physical assets defined in an organization’s Business Impact Analysis (BIA) could include which of the following?
Options:
Personal belongings of organizational staff members
Supplies kept off-site at a remote facility
Cloud-based applications
Disaster Recovery (DR) line-item revenues
Answer:
BExplanation:
Supplies kept off-site at a remote facility are physical assets that could be defined in an organization’s Business Impact Analysis (BIA). A BIA is a process that involves identifying and evaluating the potential impacts of various disruptions or disasters on the organization’s critical business functions and processes, and determining the recovery priorities and objectives for the organization. A BIA can help the organization plan and prepare for the continuity and the resilience of its business operations in the event of a crisis. A physical asset is a tangible and valuable resource that is owned or controlled by the organization, and that supports its business activities and objectives. A physical asset could be a hardware, a software, a network, a data, a facility, a equipment, a material, or a personnel. Supplies kept off-site at a remote facility are physical assets that could be defined in a BIA, as they are resources that are essential for the organization’s business operations, and that could be affected by a disruption or a disaster. For example, the organization may need to access or use the supplies to resume or restore its business functions and processes, or to mitigate or recover from the impacts of the crisis. Therefore, the organization should include the supplies kept off-site at a remote facility in its BIA, and assess the potential impacts, risks, and dependencies of these assets on its business continuity and recovery. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7: Security Operations, page 387. CISSP Practice Exam – FREE 20 Questions and Answers, Question 16.
Which of the following does Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) support?
Options:
Multicast and broadcast messages
Coordination of IEEE 802.11 protocols
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) systems
Synchronization of multiple devices
Answer:
AExplanation:
Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) supports multicast and broadcast messages by using a group temporal key that is shared by all the devices in the same wireless network. This key is used to encrypt and decrypt the messages that are sent to multiple recipients at once. TKIP also supports unicast messages by using a pairwise temporal key that is unique for each device and session. TKIP does not support coordination of IEEE 802.11 protocols, as it is a protocol itself that was designed to replace WEP. TKIP is compatible with WEP systems, but it does not support them, as it provides more security features than WEP. TKIP does not support synchronization of multiple devices, as it does not provide any clock or time synchronization mechanism . References: 1: Temporal Key Integrity Protocol - Wikipedia 2: Wi-Fi Security: Should You Use WPA2-AES, WPA2-TKIP, or Both? - How-To Geek
When implementing controls in a heterogeneous end-point network for an organization, it is critical that
Options:
hosts are able to establish network communications.
users can make modifications to their security software configurations.
common software security components be implemented across all hosts.
firewalls running on each host are fully customizable by the user.
Answer:
CExplanation:
A heterogeneous end-point network is a network that consists of different types of devices, such as computers, tablets, smartphones, printers, etc., that connect to the network and communicate with each other. Each device, or host, may have different operating systems, applications, configurations, and security requirements. When implementing controls in a heterogeneous end-point network, it is critical that common software security components be implemented across all hosts. Common software security components are software programs or features that provide security functions, such as antivirus, firewall, encryption, authentication, etc. Implementing common software security components across all hosts ensures that the hosts have a consistent and minimum level of security protection, and that the hosts can interoperate securely with each other and with the network. Implementing common software security components across all hosts does not mean that the hosts have to be identical or have the same security settings. The hosts can still have different hardware, software, and security configurations, as long as they meet the security requirements and standards of the organization and the network. Implementing common software security components across all hosts is not the same as ensuring that hosts are able to establish network communications, allowing users to make modifications to their security software configurations, or making firewalls running on each host fully customizable by the user. These are other aspects of security management that may or may not be relevant or desirable for a heterogeneous end-point network, depending on the organization’s policies and objectives.
What security management control is MOST often broken by collusion?
Options:
Job rotation
Separation of duties
Least privilege model
Increased monitoring
Answer:
BExplanation:
Separation of duties is a security management control that divides a critical or sensitive task into two or more parts, and assigns them to different individuals or groups. This reduces the risk of fraud, error, or abuse of authority, as no single person or group can perform the entire task without the cooperation or oversight of others. Separation of duties is most often broken by collusion, which is a secret or illegal agreement between two or more parties to bypass the control and achieve a common goal12. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, page 352: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 23.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when storing and processing Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?
Options:
Encrypt and hash all PII to avoid disclosure and tampering.
Store PII for no more than one year.
Avoid storing PII in a Cloud Service Provider.
Adherence to collection limitation laws and regulations.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most important consideration when storing and processing PII is to adhere to the collection limitation laws and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction and context of the data processing. Collection limitation is a principle that states that PII should be collected only for a specific, legitimate, and lawful purpose, and only to the extent that is necessary for that purpose1. By following this principle, the data processor can minimize the amount of PII that is stored and processed, and reduce the risk of data breaches, misuse, or unauthorized access. Encrypting and hashing all PII, storing PII for no more than one year, and avoiding storing PII in a cloud service provider are also good practices for protecting PII, but they are not as important as adhering to the collection limitation laws and regulations. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, page 290.
In Business Continuity Planning (BCP), what is the importance of documenting business processes?
Options:
Provides senior management with decision-making tools
Establishes and adopts ongoing testing and maintenance strategies
Defines who will perform which functions during a disaster or emergency
Provides an understanding of the organization's interdependencies
Answer:
DExplanation:
Documenting business processes is an important step in Business Continuity Planning (BCP), as it provides an understanding of the organization’s interdependencies, such as the people, resources, systems, and functions that are involved in each process. This helps to identify the critical processes that need to be prioritized and protected, as well as the potential impact of a disruption on the organization’s operations and objectives12. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 10, page 10092: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 10, page 339.
A security professional has just completed their organization's Business Impact Analysis (BIA). Following Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) best practices, what would be the professional's NEXT step?
Options:
Identify and select recovery strategies.
Present the findings to management for funding.
Select members for the organization's recovery teams.
Prepare a plan to test the organization's ability to recover its operations.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The next step after completing the organization’s Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is to identify and select recovery strategies. A BIA is a process of analyzing the potential impact and consequences of a disruption or disaster on the organization’s critical business functions and processes. A BIA helps to identify the recovery objectives, priorities, and requirements for the organization. Based on the BIA results, the organization should identify and select the recovery strategies that are suitable and feasible for restoring the critical business functions and processes within the acceptable time frame and cost. The recovery strategies may include technical, operational, organizational, or contractual solutions, such as backup systems, alternate sites, mutual aid agreements, or insurance policies . References: : Business Impact Analysis | Ready.gov : Business Continuity Planning Process Diagram
Which of the following is an appropriate source for test data?
Options:
Production data that is secured and maintained only in the production environment.
Test data that has no similarities to production datA.
Test data that is mirrored and kept up-to-date with production datA.
Production data that has been sanitized before loading into a test environment.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The most appropriate source for test data is production data that has been sanitized before loading into a test environment. Sanitization is the process of removing or modifying sensitive or confidential information from the data, such as personal identifiers, financial records, or trade secrets. Sanitized data preserves the characteristics and structure of the original data, but reduces the risk of exposing or compromising the data in the test environment. Production data that is secured and maintained only in the production environment is not a suitable source for test data, as it may not be accessible or available for testing purposes. Test data that has no similarities to production data is not a realistic or reliable source for test data, as it may not reflect the actual scenarios or conditions that the system will encounter in the production environment. Test data that is mirrored and kept up-to-date with production data is not a secure or ethical source for test data, as it may violate the privacy or confidentiality of the data owners or subjects, and expose the data to unauthorized access or modification in the test environment. References: 4: Data Sanitization: What It Is and How to Implement It55: Test Data Management: Best Practices and Methodologies
Which of the following is a limitation of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) as it relates to conducting code review?
Options:
It has normalized severity ratings.
It has many worksheets and practices to implement.
It aims to calculate the risk of published vulnerabilities.
It requires a robust risk management framework to be put in place.
Answer:
CExplanation:
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a framework that provides a standardized and consistent way of measuring and communicating the severity and risk of published vulnerabilities. CVSS assigns a numerical score and a vector string to each vulnerability, based on various metrics and formulas. CVSS is a useful tool for prioritizing the remediation of vulnerabilities, but it has some limitations as it relates to conducting code review. One of the limitations is that CVSS aims to calculate the risk of published vulnerabilities, which means that it does not cover the vulnerabilities that are not yet discovered or disclosed. Code review, on the other hand, is a process of examining the source code of a software to identify and fix any errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities that may exist in the code. Code review can help find vulnerabilities that are not yet published, and therefore not scored by CVSS. References: : CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 8, page 222. : Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, 5th Edition, Chapter 8, page 465.
What is the MOST important purpose of testing the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?
Options:
Evaluating the efficiency of the plan
Identifying the benchmark required for restoration
Validating the effectiveness of the plan
Determining the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most important purpose of testing the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) is to validate the effectiveness of the plan. A DRP is a document that outlines the procedures and steps to be followed in the event of a disaster that disrupts the normal operations of an organization. A DRP aims to minimize the impact of the disaster, restore the critical functions and systems, and resume the normal operations as soon as possible. Testing the DRP is essential to ensure that the plan is feasible, reliable, and up-to-date. Testing the DRP can reveal any errors, gaps, or weaknesses in the plan, and provide feedback and recommendations for improvement. Testing the DRP can also increase the confidence and readiness of the staff, and ensure compliance with the regulatory and contractual requirements97. References: 9: What Is Disaster Recovery Testing and Why Is It Important?107: Disaster Recovery Plan Testing in IT
An internal Service Level Agreement (SLA) covering security is signed by senior managers and is in place. When should compliance to the SLA be reviewed to ensure that a good security posture is being delivered?
Options:
As part of the SLA renewal process
Prior to a planned security audit
Immediately after a security breach
At regularly scheduled meetings
Answer:
DExplanation:
Compliance to the SLA should be reviewed at regularly scheduled meetings, such as monthly or quarterly, to ensure that the security posture is being delivered as agreed. This allows both parties to monitor the performance, identify any issues or gaps, and take corrective actions if needed. Reviewing the SLA only as part of the renewal process, prior to a planned security audit, or immediately after a security breach is not sufficient, as it may result in missing or delaying the detection and resolution of security problems. References: 1: How to measure your SLA: 5 Metrics you should be Monitoring and Reporting23: Run your security awareness program like a marketer with these campaign kits4
Which of the following is the MAIN reason that system re-certification and re-accreditation are needed?
Options:
To assist data owners in making future sensitivity and criticality determinations
To assure the software development team that all security issues have been addressed
To verify that security protection remains acceptable to the organizational security policy
To help the security team accept or reject new systems for implementation and production
Answer:
CExplanation:
The main reason that system re-certification and re-accreditation are needed is to verify that the security protection of the system remains acceptable to the organizational security policy, especially after significant changes or updates to the system. Re-certification is the process of reviewing and testing the security controls of the system to ensure that they are still effective and compliant with the security policy. Re-accreditation is the process of authorizing the system to operate based on the results of the re-certification. The other options are not the main reason for system re-certification and re-accreditation, as they either do not relate to the security protection of the system (A and D), or do not involve re-certification and re-accreditation (B). References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 10, page 633; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 10, page 695.
The Structured Query Language (SQL) implements Discretionary Access Controls (DAC) using
Options:
INSERT and DELETE.
GRANT and REVOKE.
PUBLIC and PRIVATE.
ROLLBACK and TERMINATE.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The Structured Query Language (SQL) implements Discretionary Access Controls (DAC) using the GRANT and REVOKE commands. DAC is a type of access control that allows the owner or creator of an object, such as a table, view, or procedure, to grant or revoke permissions to other users or roles. For example, a user can grant SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE privileges to another user on a specific table, or revoke them if needed34. References: 3: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, page 4134: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, page 123.
At a MINIMUM, a formal review of any Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) should be conducted
Options:
monthly.
quarterly.
annually.
bi-annually.
Answer:
CExplanation:
A formal review of any Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) should be conducted at a minimum annually, or more frequently if there are significant changes in the business environment, the IT infrastructure, the security threats, or the regulatory requirements. A formal review involves evaluating the DRP against the current business needs, objectives, and risks, and ensuring that the DRP is updated, accurate, complete, and consistent. A formal review also involves testing the DRP to verify its effectiveness and feasibility, and identifying any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed12. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 10, page 10352: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 10, page 351.
When building a data center, site location and construction factors that increase the level of vulnerability to physical threats include
Options:
hardened building construction with consideration of seismic factors.
adequate distance from and lack of access to adjacent buildings.
curved roads approaching the data center.
proximity to high crime areas of the city.
Answer:
DExplanation:
When building a data center, site location and construction factors that increase the level of vulnerability to physical threats include proximity to high crime areas of the city. This factor increases the risk of theft, vandalism, sabotage, or other malicious acts that could damage or disrupt the data center operations. The other options are factors that decrease the level of vulnerability to physical threats, as they provide protection or deterrence against natural or human-made hazards. Hardened building construction with consideration of seismic factors (A) reduces the impact of earthquakes or other natural disasters. Adequate distance from and lack of access to adjacent buildings (B) prevents unauthorized entry or fire spread from neighboring structures. Curved roads approaching the data center © slow down the speed of vehicles and make it harder for attackers to ram or bomb the data center. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 10, page 637; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 10, page 699.
Which one of the following transmission media is MOST effective in preventing data interception?
Options:
Microwave
Twisted-pair
Fiber optic
Coaxial cable
Answer:
CExplanation:
Fiber optic is the most effective transmission media in preventing data interception, as it uses light signals to transmit data over thin glass or plastic fibers1. Fiber optic cables are immune to electromagnetic interference, which means that they cannot be tapped or eavesdropped by external devices or signals. Fiber optic cables also have a low attenuation rate, which means that they can transmit data over long distances without losing much signal strength or quality. Microwave, twisted-pair, and coaxial cable are less effective transmission media in preventing data interception, as they use electromagnetic waves or electrical signals to transmit data over metal wires or air2. These media are susceptible to interference, noise, or tapping, which can compromise the confidentiality or integrity of the data. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, page 4062: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, page 85.
Which of the following is the FIRST step of a penetration test plan?
Options:
Analyzing a network diagram of the target network
Notifying the company's customers
Obtaining the approval of the company's management
Scheduling the penetration test during a period of least impact
Answer:
CExplanation:
The first step of a penetration test plan is to obtain the approval of the company’s management, as well as the consent of the target network’s owner or administrator. This is essential to ensure the legality, ethics, and scope of the test, as well as to define the objectives, expectations, and deliverables of the test. Without proper authorization, a penetration test could be considered as an unauthorized or malicious attack, and could result in legal or reputational consequences . References: : CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, page 758. : CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 7, page 234.
Following the completion of a network security assessment, which of the following can BEST be demonstrated?
Options:
The effectiveness of controls can be accurately measured
A penetration test of the network will fail
The network is compliant to industry standards
All unpatched vulnerabilities have been identified
Answer:
AExplanation:
A network security assessment is a process of evaluating the security posture of a network by identifying and analyzing vulnerabilities, threats, and risks. The results of the assessment can help measure how well the network controls are performing and where they need improvement.
B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not the main objectives or outcomes of a network security assessment. A penetration test is a type of security assessment that simulates an attack on the network, but it does not guarantee that the network will fail or succeed. The network may or may not be compliant to industry standards depending on the criteria and scope of the assessment. Not all unpatched vulnerabilities may be identified by the assessment, as some may be unknown or undetectable by the tools or methods used.
Which of the following is an effective method for avoiding magnetic media data remanence?
Options:
Degaussing
Encryption
Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
Authentication
Answer:
AExplanation:
Degaussing is an effective method for avoiding magnetic media data remanence, which is the residual representation of data that remains on a storage device after it has been erased or overwritten. Degaussing is a process of applying a strong magnetic field to the storage device, such as a hard disk or a tape, to erase the data and destroy the magnetic alignment of the media. Degaussing can ensure that the data is unrecoverable, even by forensic tools or techniques. Encryption, DLP, and authentication are not methods for avoiding magnetic media data remanence, as they do not erase the data from the storage device, but rather protect it from unauthorized access or disclosure. References: : CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 10, page 631. : CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 9, page 251.
Which one of these risk factors would be the LEAST important consideration in choosing a building site for a new computer facility?
Options:
Vulnerability to crime
Adjacent buildings and businesses
Proximity to an airline flight path
Vulnerability to natural disasters
Answer:
CExplanation:
Proximity to an airline flight path is the least important consideration in choosing a building site for a new computer facility, as it poses the lowest risk factor compared to the other options. Proximity to an airline flight path may cause some noise or interference issues, but it is unlikely to result in a major disaster or damage to the computer facility, unless there is a rare case of a plane crash or a terrorist attack3. Vulnerability to crime, adjacent buildings and businesses, and vulnerability to natural disasters are more important considerations in choosing a building site for a new computer facility, as they can pose significant threats to the physical security, availability, and integrity of the facility and its assets. Vulnerability to crime can expose the facility to theft, vandalism, or sabotage. Adjacent buildings and businesses can affect the fire safety, power supply, or environmental conditions of the facility. Vulnerability to natural disasters can cause the facility to suffer from floods, earthquakes, storms, or fires. References: 3: Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, 5th Edition, Chapter 10, page 543.
Why MUST a Kerberos server be well protected from unauthorized access?
Options:
It contains the keys of all clients.
It always operates at root privilege.
It contains all the tickets for services.
It contains the Internet Protocol (IP) address of all network entities.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A Kerberos server must be well protected from unauthorized access because it contains the keys of all clients. Kerberos is a network authentication protocol that uses symmetric cryptography and a trusted third party, called the Key Distribution Center (KDC), to provide secure and mutual authentication between clients and servers2. The KDC consists of two components: the Authentication Server (AS) and the Ticket Granting Server (TGS). The AS issues a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT) to the client after verifying its identity and password. The TGS issues a service ticket to the client after validating its TGT and the requested service. The client then uses the service ticket to access the service. The KDC stores the keys of all clients and services in its database, and uses them to encrypt and decrypt the tickets. If an attacker gains access to the KDC, they can compromise the keys and the tickets, and impersonate any client or service on the network. References: 2: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, page 91.
In a financial institution, who has the responsibility for assigning the classification to a piece of information?
Options:
Chief Financial Officer (CFO)
Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
Originator or nominated owner of the information
Department head responsible for ensuring the protection of the information
Answer:
CExplanation:
In a financial institution, the responsibility for assigning the classification to a piece of information belongs to the originator or nominated owner of the information. The originator is the person who creates or generates the information, and the nominated owner is the person who is assigned the accountability and authority for the information by the management. The originator or nominated owner is the best person to determine the value and sensitivity of the information, and to assign the appropriate classification level based on the criteria and guidelines established by the organization. The originator or nominated owner is also responsible for reviewing and updating the classification as needed, and for ensuring that the information is handled and protected according to its classification56. References: 5: Information Classification Policy76: Information Classification and Handling Policy
Which of the following is TRUE about Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) testing?
Options:
Operational networks are usually shut down during testing.
Testing should continue even if components of the test fail.
The company is fully prepared for a disaster if all tests pass.
Testing should not be done until the entire disaster plan can be tested.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Testing is a vital part of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) process, as it validates the effectiveness and feasibility of the plan, identifies gaps and weaknesses, and provides opportunities for improvement and training. Testing should continue even if components of the test fail, as this will help to evaluate the impact of the failure, the root cause of the problem, and the possible solutions or alternatives34. References: 3: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 10, page 10354: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 10, page 351.
When designing a networked Information System (IS) where there will be several different types of individual access, what is the FIRST step that should be taken to ensure all access control requirements are addressed?
Options:
Create a user profile.
Create a user access matrix.
Develop an Access Control List (ACL).
Develop a Role Based Access Control (RBAC) list.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The first step to take when designing a networked Information System (IS) where there will be several different types of individual access is to create a user access matrix. A user access matrix is a table that defines the access rights and permissions of each user or user group to each resource or function in the system. A user access matrix helps to ensure that all access control requirements are addressed, such as the principle of least privilege, the principle of separation of duties, and the principle of need to know. A user access matrix also helps to simplify and standardize the implementation and administration of access control policies and mechanisms910. References: 9: Access Control Matrix1110: Access Control Models and Methods12
What is the term commonly used to refer to a technique of authenticating one machine to another by forging packets from a trusted source?
Options:
Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack
Smurfing
Session redirect
Spoofing
Answer:
DExplanation:
The term commonly used to refer to a technique of authenticating one machine to another by forging packets from a trusted source is spoofing. Spoofing is a type of attack that involves impersonating or masquerading as a legitimate entity, such as a user, a device, or a network, by altering or falsifying the source or destination address of a packet3. Spoofing can be used to bypass authentication, gain unauthorized access, or launch other attacks, such as denial-of-service or man-in-the-middle. Man-in-the-middle, smurfing, and session redirect are not terms that refer to a technique of authenticating one machine to another by forging packets from a trusted source, as they are related to different types of attacks or techniques. Man-in-the-middle is an attack that involves intercepting and modifying the communication between two parties. Smurfing is an attack that involves sending a large number of ICMP echo requests to a network broadcast address, using a spoofed source address of the intended victim. Session redirect is a technique that involves changing the destination address of a packet to redirect it to a different location. References: 3: Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, 5th Edition, Chapter 4, page 199. : CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, page 423.
Who must approve modifications to an organization's production infrastructure configuration?
Options:
Technical management
Change control board
System operations
System users
Answer:
BExplanation:
A change control board (CCB) is a group of stakeholders who are responsible for reviewing, approving, and monitoring changes to an organization’s production infrastructure configuration. A production infrastructure configuration is the set of hardware, software, network, and environmental components that support the operation of an information system. Changes to the production infrastructure configuration can affect the security, performance, availability, and functionality of the system. Therefore, changes must be carefully planned, tested, documented, and authorized before implementation. A CCB ensures that changes are aligned with the organization’s objectives, policies, and standards, and that changes do not introduce any adverse effects or risks to the system or the organization. A CCB is not the same as technical management, system operations, or system users, who may be involved in the change management process, but do not have the authority to approve changes.
What would be the PRIMARY concern when designing and coordinating a security assessment for an Automatic Teller Machine (ATM) system?
Options:
Physical access to the electronic hardware
Regularly scheduled maintenance process
Availability of the network connection
Processing delays
Answer:
AExplanation:
The primary concern when designing and coordinating a security assessment for an Automatic Teller Machine (ATM) system is the availability of the network connection. An ATM system relies on a network connection to communicate with the bank’s servers and process the transactions of the customers. If the network connection is disrupted, degraded, or compromised, the ATM system may not be able to function properly, or may expose the customers’ data or money to unauthorized access or theft. Therefore, a security assessment for an ATM system should focus on ensuring that the network connection is reliable, resilient, and secure, and that there are backup or alternative solutions in case of network failure12. References: 1: ATM Security: Best Practices for Automated Teller Machines32: ATM Security: A Comprehensive Guide4
Which of the following MUST be part of a contract to support electronic discovery of data stored in a cloud environment?
Options:
Integration with organizational directory services for authentication
Tokenization of data
Accommodation of hybrid deployment models
Identification of data location
Answer:
DExplanation:
Identification of data location is a must-have clause in a contract to support electronic discovery of data stored in a cloud environment. Electronic discovery, or e-discovery, is the process of identifying, preserving, collecting, processing, reviewing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant to a legal case or investigation1. In a cloud environment, where data may be stored in multiple locations, jurisdictions, or servers, it is essential to have a clear and contractual agreement on how and where the data can be accessed, retrieved, and produced for e-discovery purposes. Identification of data location can help ensure the availability, integrity, and admissibility of the data as evidence. Integration with organizational directory services for authentication, tokenization of data, and accommodation of hybrid deployment models are not mandatory clauses for e-discovery support, as they are more related to the security, privacy, and flexibility of the cloud service, rather than the legal aspects of data discovery. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 10, page 647.
Which of the following statements is TRUE of black box testing?
Options:
Only the functional specifications are known to the test planner.
Only the source code and the design documents are known to the test planner.
Only the source code and functional specifications are known to the test planner.
Only the design documents and the functional specifications are known to the test planner.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Black box testing is a method of software testing that does not require any knowledge of the internal structure or code of the software1. The test planner only knows the functional specifications, which describe what the software is supposed to do, and tests the software based on the expected inputs and outputs. Black box testing is useful for finding errors in the functionality, usability, or performance of the software, but it cannot detect errors in the code or design. White box testing, on the other hand, requires the test planner to have access to the source code and the design documents, and tests the software based on the internal logic and structure2. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 21, page 13132: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 8, page 215.
Which type of control recognizes that a transaction amount is excessive in accordance with corporate policy?
Options:
Detection
Prevention
Investigation
Correction
Answer:
AExplanation:
A detection control is a type of control that identifies and reports the occurrence of an unwanted event, such as a violation of a policy or a threshold. A detection control does not prevent or correct the event, but rather alerts the appropriate personnel or system to take action34. References: 3: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, page 294: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 21.
What is the ultimate objective of information classification?
Options:
To assign responsibility for mitigating the risk to vulnerable systems
To ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection
To recognize that the value of any item of information may change over time
To recognize the optimal number of classification categories and the benefits to be gained from their use
Answer:
BExplanation:
The ultimate objective of information classification is to ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection in accordance with their importance and sensitivity to the organization. Information classification is the process of assigning labels or categories to information based on criteria such as confidentiality, integrity, availability, and value. Information classification helps the organization to identify the risks and threats to the information, and to apply the necessary controls and safeguards to protect it. Information classification also helps the organization to comply with the legal, regulatory, and contractual obligations related to the information12. References: 1: Information Classification - Why it matters?32: ISO 27001 & Information Classification: Free 4-Step Guide4
Which of the following is a method used to prevent Structured Query Language (SQL) injection attacks?
Options:
Data compression
Data classification
Data warehousing
Data validation
Answer:
DExplanation:
Data validation is a method used to prevent Structured Query Language (SQL) injection attacks, which are a type of web application attack that exploit the input fields of a web form to inject malicious SQL commands into the underlying database. Data validation involves checking the input data for any illegal or unexpected characters, such as quotes, semicolons, or keywords, and rejecting or sanitizing them before passing them to the database34. References: 3: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 6, page 6604: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 6, page 199.
During an audit of system management, auditors find that the system administrator has not been trained. What actions need to be taken at once to ensure the integrity of systems?
Options:
A review of hiring policies and methods of verification of new employees
A review of all departmental procedures
A review of all training procedures to be undertaken
A review of all systems by an experienced administrator
Answer:
DExplanation:
During an audit of system management, if auditors find that the system administrator has not been trained, the immediate action that needs to be taken to ensure the integrity of systems is a review of all systems by an experienced administrator. This is to verify that the systems are configured, maintained, and secured properly, and that there are no errors, vulnerabilities, or breaches that could compromise the system’s availability, confidentiality, or integrity. A review of hiring policies, departmental procedures, or training procedures are not urgent actions, as they are more related to the long-term improvement of the system management process, rather than the current state of the systems . References: : CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8, page 829. : CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 8, page 267.
Which of the following MUST be done when promoting a security awareness program to senior management?
Options:
Show the need for security; identify the message and the audience
Ensure that the security presentation is designed to be all-inclusive
Notify them that their compliance is mandatory
Explain how hackers have enhanced information security
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most important thing to do when promoting a security awareness program to senior management is to show the need for security; identify the message and the audience. This means that you should demonstrate how security awareness can benefit the organization, reduce risks, and align with the business goals. You should also tailor your message and your audience according to the specific security issues and challenges that your organization faces. Ensuring that the security presentation is designed to be all-inclusive, notifying them that their compliance is mandatory, or explaining how hackers have enhanced information security are not the most effective ways to promote a security awareness program, as they may not address the specific needs, interests, or concerns of senior management. References: 9: Seven Keys to Success for a More Mature Security Awareness Program1011: 6 Metrics to Track in Your Cybersecurity Awareness Training Campaign
Which of the following is the BEST way to verify the integrity of a software patch?
Options:
Cryptographic checksums
Version numbering
Automatic updates
Vendor assurance
Answer:
AExplanation:
The best way to verify the integrity of a software patch is to use cryptographic checksums. Cryptographic checksums are mathematical values that are computed from the data in the software patch using a hash function or an algorithm. Cryptographic checksums can be used to compare the original and the downloaded or installed version of the software patch, and to detect any alteration, corruption, or tampering of the data. Cryptographic checksums are also known as hashes, digests, or fingerprints, and they are often provided by the software vendor along with the software patch12. References: 1: What is a Checksum and How to Calculate a Checksum32: How to Verify File Integrity Using Hashes
The overall goal of a penetration test is to determine a system's
Options:
ability to withstand an attack.
capacity management.
error recovery capabilities.
reliability under stress.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A penetration test is a simulated attack on a system or network, performed by authorized testers, to evaluate the security posture and identify vulnerabilities that could be exploited by malicious actors. The overall goal of a penetration test is to determine the system’s ability to withstand an attack, and to provide recommendations for improving the security controls and mitigating the risks12. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, page 7572: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 7, page 233.
An input validation and exception handling vulnerability has been discovered on a critical web-based system. Which of the following is MOST suited to quickly implement a control?
Options:
Add a new rule to the application layer firewall
Block access to the service
Install an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Patch the application source code
Answer:
AExplanation:
Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall is the most suited to quickly implement a control for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system. An input validation and exception handling vulnerability is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a web-based system does not properly check, filter, or sanitize the input data that is received from the users or other sources, or does not properly handle the errors or exceptions that are generated by the system. An input validation and exception handling vulnerability can lead to various attacks, such as:
- Injection attacks, such as SQL injection, command injection, or cross-site scripting (XSS), where the attacker inserts malicious code or commands into the input data that are executed by the system or the browser, resulting in data theft, data manipulation, or remote code execution.
- Buffer overflow attacks, where the attacker sends more input data than the system can handle, causing the system to overwrite the adjacent memory locations, resulting in data corruption, system crash, or arbitrary code execution.
- Denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, where the attacker sends malformed or invalid input data that cause the system to generate excessive errors or exceptions, resulting in system overload, resource exhaustion, or system failure.
An application layer firewall is a device or software that operates at the application layer of the OSI model and inspects the application layer payload or the content of the data packets. An application layer firewall can provide various functions, such as:
- Filtering the data packets based on the application layer protocols, such as HTTP, FTP, or SMTP, and the application layer attributes, such as URLs, cookies, or headers.
- Blocking or allowing the data packets based on the predefined rules or policies that specify the criteria for the application layer protocols and attributes.
- Logging and auditing the data packets for the application layer protocols and attributes.
- Modifying or transforming the data packets for the application layer protocols and attributes.
Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall is the most suited to quickly implement a control for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system, because it can prevent or reduce the impact of the attacks by filtering or blocking the malicious or invalid input data that exploit the vulnerability. For example, a new rule can be added to the application layer firewall to:
- Reject or drop the data packets that contain SQL statements, shell commands, or script tags in the input data, which can prevent or reduce the injection attacks.
- Reject or drop the data packets that exceed a certain size or length in the input data, which can prevent or reduce the buffer overflow attacks.
- Reject or drop the data packets that contain malformed or invalid syntax or characters in the input data, which can prevent or reduce the DoS attacks.
Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall can be done quickly and easily, without requiring any changes or patches to the web-based system, which can be time-consuming and risky, especially for a critical system. Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall can also be done remotely and centrally, without requiring any physical access or installation on the web-based system, which can be inconvenient and costly, especially for a distributed system.
The other options are not the most suited to quickly implement a control for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system, but rather options that have other limitations or drawbacks. Blocking access to the service is not the most suited option, because it can cause disruption and unavailability of the service, which can affect the business operations and customer satisfaction, especially for a critical system. Blocking access to the service can also be a temporary and incomplete solution, as it does not address the root cause of the vulnerability or prevent the attacks from occurring again. Installing an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is not the most suited option, because IDS only monitors and detects the attacks, and does not prevent or respond to them. IDS can also generate false positives or false negatives, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of the detection. IDS can also be overwhelmed or evaded by the attacks, which can affect the effectiveness and efficiency of the detection. Patching the application source code is not the most suited option, because it can take a long time and require a lot of resources and testing to identify, fix, and deploy the patch, especially for a complex and critical system. Patching the application source code can also introduce new errors or vulnerabilities, which can affect the functionality and security of the system. Patching the application source code can also be difficult or impossible, if the system is proprietary or legacy, which can affect the feasibility and compatibility of the patch.
Which of the following is the BEST network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress?
Options:
Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)
Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)
Stateful firewalls
Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools
Answer:
DExplanation:
Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools are the best network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress. NBA tools are devices or software that monitor and analyze the network traffic and activities, and detect any anomalies or deviations from the normal or expected behavior. NBA tools use various techniques, such as statistical analysis, machine learning, artificial intelligence, or heuristics, to establish a baseline of the network behavior, and to identify any outliers or indicators of compromise. NBA tools can provide several benefits, such as:
- Detecting unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks that are not signature-based or rule-based, and that can evade or bypass other network defenses, such as firewalls, IDS, or IPS.
- Detecting advanced persistent threats (APTs) that are low and slow, and that can remain undetected for a long time, by correlating and aggregating the network events and data over time and across different sources.
- Detecting insider threats or compromised hosts that are authorized and trusted, but that exhibit malicious or suspicious behavior, by profiling and classifying the network entities and their interactions.
- Providing early warning and alerting of the potential or ongoing attacks, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents, by providing rich and contextual information about the network behavior and the attack vectors.
The other options are not the best network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress, but rather network defenses that have other limitations or drawbacks. Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) are devices or software that monitor and block the network traffic and activities that match the predefined signatures or rules of known attacks. IPS can provide a proactive and preventive layer of security, but they cannot detect or stop unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks that do not match any signatures or rules, or that can evade or disable the IPS. Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) are devices or software that monitor and alert the network traffic and activities that match the predefined signatures or rules of known attacks. IDS can provide a reactive and detective layer of security, but they cannot detect or alert unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks that do not match any signatures or rules, or that can evade or disable the IDS. Stateful firewalls are devices or software that filter and control the network traffic and activities based on the state and context of the network sessions, such as the source and destination IP addresses, port numbers, protocol types, and sequence numbers. Stateful firewalls can provide a granular and dynamic layer of security, but they cannot filter or control unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks that use valid or spoofed network sessions, or that can exploit or bypass the firewall rules.
What is the purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack?
Options:
To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable
To intercept network traffic without authorization
To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices
To convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity
Answer:
DExplanation:
The purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack is to convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity. IP spoofing is a technique that involves creating and sending IP packets with a forged source IP address, which is usually the IP address of a trusted or authorized host. IP spoofing can be used for various malicious purposes, such as:
- Bypassing IP-based access control lists (ACLs) or firewalls that filter traffic based on the source IP address.
- Launching denial-of-service (DoS) or distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks by flooding a target system with spoofed packets, or by reflecting or amplifying the traffic from intermediate systems.
- Hijacking or intercepting a TCP session by predicting or guessing the sequence numbers and sending spoofed packets to the legitimate parties.
- Gaining unauthorized access to a system or network by impersonating a trusted or authorized host and exploiting its privileges or credentials.
The purpose of IP spoofing is to convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity, because it allows the attacker to evade detection, avoid responsibility, and exploit trust relationships.
The other options are not the main purposes of IP spoofing, but rather the possible consequences or methods of IP spoofing. To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable is a possible consequence of IP spoofing, as it can cause a DoS or DDoS attack. To intercept network traffic without authorization is a possible method of IP spoofing, as it can be used to hijack or intercept a TCP session. To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices is not a valid option, as IP spoofing involves forging the source address, not the destination address.
Which of the following factors contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol?
Options:
WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV)
WEP uses Message Digest 5 (MD5)
WEP uses Diffie-Hellman
WEP does not use any Initialization Vector (IV)
Answer:
AExplanation:
WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV) is the factor that contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol. WEP is a security protocol that provides encryption and authentication for wireless networks, such as Wi-Fi. WEP uses the RC4 stream cipher to encrypt the data packets, and the CRC-32 checksum to verify the data integrity. WEP also uses a shared secret key, which is concatenated with a 24-bit Initialization Vector (IV), to generate the keystream for the RC4 encryption. WEP has several weaknesses and vulnerabilities, such as:
- WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV), which results in 16,777,216 (2^24) possible values. This might seem large, but it is not enough for a high-volume wireless network, where the same IV can be reused frequently, creating keystream reuse and collisions. An attacker can capture and analyze the encrypted data packets that use the same IV, and recover the keystream and the secret key, using techniques such as the Fluhrer, Mantin, and Shamir (FMS) attack, or the KoreK attack.
- WEP uses a weak integrity check, which is the CRC-32 checksum. The CRC-32 checksum is a linear function that can be easily computed and manipulated by anyone who knows the keystream. An attacker can modify the encrypted data packets and the checksum, without being detected, using techniques such as the bit-flipping attack, or the chop-chop attack.
- WEP uses a static and shared secret key, which is manually configured and distributed among all the wireless devices that use the same network. The secret key is not changed or refreshed automatically, unless the administrator does it manually. This means that the secret key can be exposed or compromised over time, and that all the wireless devices can be affected by a single key breach. An attacker can also exploit the weak authentication mechanism of WEP, which is based on the secret key, and gain unauthorized access to the network, using techniques such as the authentication spoofing attack, or the shared key authentication attack.
WEP has been deprecated and replaced by more secure protocols, such as Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) or Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2), which use stronger encryption and authentication methods, such as the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), or the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP).
The other options are not factors that contribute to the weakness of WEP, but rather factors that are irrelevant or incorrect. WEP does not use Message Digest 5 (MD5), which is a hash function that produces a 128-bit output from a variable-length input. WEP does not use Diffie-Hellman, which is a method for generating a shared secret key between two parties. WEP does use an Initialization Vector (IV), which is a 24-bit value that is concatenated with the secret key.
An external attacker has compromised an organization’s network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information?
Options:
Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls
Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)
Require strong authentication for administrators
Implement logical network segmentation at the switches
Answer:
DExplanation:
Implementing logical network segmentation at the switches is the most effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information. Logical network segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks or segments based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Logical network segmentation can be implemented at the switches, which are devices that operate at the data link layer of the OSI model and forward data packets based on the MAC addresses. Logical network segmentation can provide several benefits, such as:
- Isolating network traffic and reducing congestion and collisions
- Enhancing performance and efficiency of the network
- Improving security and confidentiality of the network
- Restricting the scope and impact of attacks
- Enforcing access control and security policies
- Facilitating monitoring and auditing of the network
Logical network segmentation can mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information by limiting the visibility and access of the sniffer to the segment where it is installed. A sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes the data packets that are transmitted over a network. A sniffer can be used for legitimate purposes, such as troubleshooting, testing, or monitoring the network, or for malicious purposes, such as eavesdropping, stealing, or modifying the data. A sniffer can only capture the data packets that are within its broadcast domain, which is the set of devices that can communicate with each other without a router. By implementing logical network segmentation at the switches, the organization can create multiple broadcast domains and isolate the sensitive or critical data from the compromised segment. This way, the attacker can only see the data packets that belong to the same segment as the sniffer, and not the data packets that belong to other segments. This can prevent the attacker from gaining further information or accessing other resources on the network.
The other options are not the most effective layers of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information, but rather layers that have other limitations or drawbacks. Implementing packet filtering on the network firewalls is not the most effective layer of security, because packet filtering only examines the network layer header of the data packets, such as the source and destination IP addresses, and does not inspect the payload or the content of the data. Packet filtering can also be bypassed by using techniques such as IP spoofing or fragmentation. Installing Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS) is not the most effective layer of security, because HIDS only monitors and detects the activities and events on a single host, and does not prevent or respond to the attacks. HIDS can also be disabled or evaded by the attacker if the host is compromised. Requiring strong authentication for administrators is not the most effective layer of security, because authentication only verifies the identity of the users or processes, and does not protect the data in transit or at rest. Authentication can also be defeated by using techniques such as phishing, keylogging, or credential theft.
Which of the following operates at the Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?
Options:
Packet filtering
Port services filtering
Content filtering
Application access control
Answer:
AExplanation:
Packet filtering operates at the network layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. The OSI model is a conceptual framework that describes how data is transmitted and processed across different layers of a network. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The network layer is the third layer from the bottom of the OSI model, and it is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks or subnets. The network layer uses logical addresses, such as IP addresses, to identify the source and destination of the data packets, and it uses protocols, such as IP, ICMP, or ARP, to perform the routing and forwarding functions.
Packet filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the incoming and outgoing data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them. Packet filtering can be performed by devices, such as routers, firewalls, or proxies, that operate at the network layer of the OSI model. Packet filtering typically examines the network layer header of the data packets, such as the source and destination IP addresses, the protocol type, or the fragmentation flags, and compares them with the predefined rules or policies. Packet filtering can also examine the transport layer header of the data packets, such as the source and destination port numbers, the TCP flags, or the sequence numbers, and compare them with the rules or policies. Packet filtering can provide a basic level of security and performance for a network or a host, but it also has some limitations, such as the inability to inspect the payload or the content of the data packets, the vulnerability to spoofing or fragmentation attacks, or the complexity and maintenance of the rules or policies.
The other options are not techniques that operate at the network layer of the OSI model, but rather at other layers. Port services filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the transport layer header of the data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the port numbers or the services. Port services filtering operates at the transport layer of the OSI model, which is the fourth layer from the bottom. Content filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the application layer payload or the content of the data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the keywords, URLs, file types, or other criteria. Content filtering operates at the application layer of the OSI model, which is the seventh and the topmost layer. Application access control is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the application layer identity or the credentials of the users or the processes and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the roles, permissions, or other attributes. Application access control operates at the application layer of the OSI model, which is the seventh and the topmost layer.
At what level of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) located?
Options:
Link layer
Physical layer
Session layer
Application layer
Answer:
BExplanation:
Data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) is located at the physical layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. The OSI model is a conceptual framework that describes how data is transmitted and processed across different layers of a network. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The physical layer is the lowest layer of the OSI model, and it is responsible for the transmission and reception of raw bits over a physical medium, such as cables, wires, or optical fibers. The physical layer defines the physical characteristics of the medium, such as voltage, frequency, modulation, connectors, etc. The physical layer also deals with the physical topology of the network, such as bus, ring, star, mesh, etc.
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a dedicated network that provides access to consolidated and block-level data storage. A SAN consists of storage devices, such as disks, tapes, or arrays, that are connected to servers or clients via a network infrastructure, such as switches, routers, or hubs. A SAN allows multiple servers or clients to share the same storage devices, and it provides high performance, availability, scalability, and security for data storage. Data at rest on a SAN is located at the physical layer of the OSI model, because it is stored as raw bits on the physical medium of the storage devices, and it is accessed by the servers or clients through the physical medium of the network infrastructure.
Which of the following is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats?
Options:
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
Link Control Protocol (LCP)
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP)
Answer:
BExplanation:
Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats. PPP is a data link layer protocol that provides a standard method for transporting network layer packets over point-to-point links, such as serial lines, modems, or dial-up connections. PPP supports various network layer protocols, such as IP, IPX, or AppleTalk, and it can encapsulate them in a common frame format. PPP also provides features such as authentication, compression, error detection, and multilink aggregation. LCP is a subprotocol of PPP that is responsible for establishing, configuring, maintaining, and terminating the point-to-point connection. LCP negotiates and agrees on various options and parameters for the PPP link, such as the maximum transmission unit (MTU), the authentication method, the compression method, the error detection method, and the packet format. LCP uses a series of messages, such as configure-request, configure-ack, configure-nak, configure-reject, terminate-request, terminate-ack, code-reject, protocol-reject, echo-request, echo-reply, and discard-request, to communicate and exchange information between the PPP peers.
The other options are not used by PPP to determine packet formats, but rather for other purposes. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a tunneling protocol that allows the creation of virtual private networks (VPNs) over public networks, such as the Internet. L2TP encapsulates PPP frames in IP datagrams and sends them across the tunnel between two L2TP endpoints. L2TP does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a payload. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is an authentication protocol that is used by PPP to verify the identity of the remote peer before allowing access to the network. CHAP uses a challenge-response mechanism that involves a random number (nonce) and a hash function to prevent replay attacks. CHAP does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a transport. Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP) is not a valid option, as there is no such protocol with this name. There is a Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE), which is a protocol that encapsulates PPP frames in Ethernet frames and allows the use of PPP over Ethernet networks. PPPoE does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a payload.
In a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack, which layer is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node?
Options:
Transport layer
Application layer
Network layer
Session layer
Answer:
AExplanation:
The transport layer of the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node. The TCP/IP stack is a simplified version of the OSI model, and it consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and link. The transport layer is the third layer of the TCP/IP stack, and it is responsible for providing reliable and efficient end-to-end data transfer between two nodes on a network. The transport layer uses protocols, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) or User Datagram Protocol (UDP), to segment, sequence, acknowledge, and reassemble the data packets, and to handle error detection and correction, flow control, and congestion control. The transport layer also provides connection-oriented or connectionless services, depending on the protocol used.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol, which means that it establishes a logical connection between two nodes before exchanging data, and it maintains the connection until the data transfer is complete. TCP uses a three-way handshake to negotiate and establish a connection with another node. The three-way handshake works as follows:
- The client sends a SYN (synchronize) packet to the server, indicating its initial sequence number and requesting a connection.
- The server responds with a SYN-ACK (synchronize-acknowledge) packet, indicating its initial sequence number and acknowledging the client’s request.
- The client responds with an ACK (acknowledge) packet, acknowledging the server’s response and completing the connection.
UDP is a connectionless protocol, which means that it does not establish or maintain a connection between two nodes, but rather sends data packets independently and without any guarantee of delivery, order, or integrity. UDP does not use a handshake or any other mechanism to negotiate and establish a connection with another node, but rather relies on the application layer to handle any connection-related issues.
What is the MOST important consideration from a data security perspective when an organization plans to relocate?
Options:
Ensure the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel
Review the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present
Conduct a gap analysis of a new facilities against existing security requirements
Revise the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan
Answer:
CExplanation:
When an organization plans to relocate, the most important consideration from a data security perspective is to conduct a gap analysis of the new facilities against the existing security requirements. A gap analysis is a process that identifies and evaluates the differences between the current state and the desired state of a system or a process. In this case, the gap analysis would compare the security controls and measures implemented in the old and new locations, and identify any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. The gap analysis would also help to determine the costs and resources needed to implement the necessary security improvements in the new facilities.
The other options are not as important as conducting a gap analysis, as they do not directly address the data security risks associated with relocation. Ensuring the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel is a safety issue, not a data security issue. Reviewing the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present is also a safety issue, not a data security issue. Revising the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan is a good practice, but it is not a preventive measure, rather a reactive one. A DR/BC plan is a document that outlines how an organization will recover from a disaster and resume its normal operations. A DR/BC plan should be updated regularly, not only when relocating.
A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning (BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with?
Options:
Application
Storage
Power
Network
Answer:
AExplanation:
A company whose IT services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center should be most concerned with application failures when preparing a companywide BCP. A BCP is a document that describes how an organization will continue its critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP should include a risk assessment, a business impact analysis, a recovery strategy, and a testing and maintenance plan.
A Tier 4 data center is the highest level of data center classification, according to the Uptime Institute. A Tier 4 data center has the highest level of availability, reliability, and fault tolerance, as it has multiple and independent paths for power and cooling, and redundant and backup components for all systems. A Tier 4 data center has an uptime rating of 99.995%, which means it can only experience 0.4 hours of downtime per year. Therefore, the likelihood of a power, storage, or network failure in a Tier 4 data center is very low, and the impact of such a failure would be minimal, as the data center can quickly switch to alternative sources or routes.
However, a Tier 4 data center cannot prevent or mitigate application failures, which are caused by software bugs, configuration errors, or malicious attacks. Application failures can affect the functionality, performance, or security of the IT services, and cause data loss, corruption, or breach. Therefore, the IT manager should be most concerned with application failures when preparing a BCP, and ensure that the applications are properly designed, tested, updated, and monitored.
An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on which PRIMARY elements?
Options:
Development, testing, and deployment
Prevention, detection, and remediation
People, technology, and operations
Certification, accreditation, and monitoring
Answer:
CExplanation:
An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on the primary elements of people, technology, and operations. People are the users, administrators, managers, and other stakeholders who are involved in the security process. They need to be aware, trained, motivated, and accountable for their security roles and responsibilities. Technology is the hardware, software, network, and other tools that are used to implement the security controls and measures. They need to be selected, configured, updated, and monitored according to the security standards and best practices. Operations are the policies, procedures, processes, and activities that are performed to achieve the security objectives and requirements. They need to be documented, reviewed, audited, and improved continuously to ensure their effectiveness and efficiency.
The other options are not the primary elements of defense in depth, but rather the phases, functions, or outcomes of the security process. Development, testing, and deployment are the phases of the security life cycle, which describes how security is integrated into the system development process. Prevention, detection, and remediation are the functions of the security management, which describes how security is maintained and improved over time. Certification, accreditation, and monitoring are the outcomes of the security evaluation, which describes how security is assessed and verified against the criteria and standards.
Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas?
Options:
Install mantraps at the building entrances
Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic
Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public
Hire a guard to protect the public area
Answer:
CExplanation:
Supplying a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public is the most cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas. A duress alarm is a device that allows a person to signal for help in case of an emergency, such as an attack, a robbery, or a medical condition. A duress alarm can be activated by pressing a button, pulling a cord, or speaking a code word. A duress alarm can alert security personnel, law enforcement, or other responders to the location and nature of the emergency, and initiate appropriate actions. A duress alarm is a reactive control because it responds to an incident after it has occurred, rather than preventing it from happening.
The other options are not as cost-effective as supplying a duress alarm, as they involve more expensive or complex technologies or resources. Installing mantraps at the building entrances is a preventive control that restricts the access of unauthorized persons to the facility, but it also requires more space, maintenance, and supervision. Enclosing the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic is a preventive control that protects the personnel from physical attacks, but it also reduces the visibility and ventilation of the area. Hiring a guard to protect the public area is a deterrent control that discourages potential attackers, but it also involves paying wages, benefits, and training costs.
All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that
Options:
determine the risk of a business interruption occurring
determine the technological dependence of the business processes
Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption
Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption
Answer:
AExplanation:
A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of natural and man-made disasters on business operations. The BIA questionnaire is a tool that collects information from business process owners and stakeholders about the criticality, dependencies, recovery objectives, and resources of their processes. The BIA questionnaire should include questions that:
- Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption, such as loss of revenue, customer satisfaction, reputation, legal obligations, etc.
- Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption, such as direct and indirect costs, fines, penalties, etc.
- Determine the technological dependence of the business processes, such as hardware, software, network, data, etc.
- Establish the recovery time objectives (RTO) and recovery point objectives (RPO) for each business process, which indicate the maximum acceptable downtime and data loss, respectively.
The BIA questionnaire should not include questions that determine the risk of a business interruption occurring, as this is part of the risk assessment process, which is a separate activity from the BIA. The risk assessment process identifies and analyzes the threats and vulnerabilities that could cause a business interruption, and estimates the likelihood and impact of such events. The risk assessment process also evaluates the existing controls and mitigation strategies, and recommends additional measures to reduce the risk to an acceptable level.
Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?
Options:
Examine the device for physical tampering
Implement more stringent baseline configurations
Purge or re-image the hard disk drive
Change access codes
Answer:
CExplanation:
Purging or re-imaging the hard disk drive of a laptop before traveling to a high risk area will reduce the risk of data compromise or theft in case the laptop is lost, stolen, or seized by unauthorized parties. Purging or re-imaging the hard disk drive will erase all the data and applications on the laptop, leaving only the operating system and the essential software. This will minimize the exposure of sensitive or confidential information that could be accessed by malicious actors. Purging or re-imaging the hard disk drive should be done using secure methods that prevent data recovery, such as overwriting, degaussing, or physical destruction.
The other options will not reduce the risk to the laptop as effectively as purging or re-imaging the hard disk drive. Examining the device for physical tampering will only detect if the laptop has been compromised after the fact, but will not prevent it from happening. Implementing more stringent baseline configurations will improve the security settings and policies of the laptop, but will not protect the data if the laptop is bypassed or breached. Changing access codes will make it harder for unauthorized users to log in to the laptop, but will not prevent them from accessing the data if they use other methods, such as booting from a removable media or removing the hard disk drive.
Intellectual property rights are PRIMARY concerned with which of the following?
Options:
Owner’s ability to realize financial gain
Owner’s ability to maintain copyright
Right of the owner to enjoy their creation
Right of the owner to control delivery method
Answer:
AExplanation:
Intellectual property rights are primarily concerned with the owner’s ability to realize financial gain from their creation. Intellectual property is a category of intangible assets that are the result of human creativity and innovation, such as inventions, designs, artworks, literature, music, software, etc. Intellectual property rights are the legal rights that grant the owner the exclusive control over the use, reproduction, distribution, and modification of their intellectual property. Intellectual property rights aim to protect the owner’s interests and incentives, and to reward them for their contribution to the society and economy.
The other options are not the primary concern of intellectual property rights, but rather the secondary or incidental benefits or aspects of them. The owner’s ability to maintain copyright is a means of enforcing intellectual property rights, but not the end goal of them. The right of the owner to enjoy their creation is a personal or moral right, but not a legal or economic one. The right of the owner to control the delivery method is a specific or technical aspect of intellectual property rights, but not a general or fundamental one.
When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and 27002, when can management responsibilities be defined?
Options:
Only when assets are clearly defined
Only when standards are defined
Only when controls are put in place
Only procedures are defined
Answer:
BExplanation:
When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the ISO 27001 and 27002, management responsibilities can be defined only when standards are defined. Standards are the specific rules, guidelines, or procedures that support the implementation of the security policy. Standards define the minimum level of security that must be achieved by the organization, and provide the basis for measuring compliance and performance. Standards also assign roles and responsibilities to different levels of management and staff, and specify the reporting and escalation procedures.
Management responsibilities are the duties and obligations that managers have to ensure the effective and efficient execution of the security policy and standards. Management responsibilities include providing leadership, direction, support, and resources for the security program, establishing and communicating the security objectives and expectations, ensuring compliance with the legal and regulatory requirements, monitoring and reviewing the security performance and incidents, and initiating corrective and preventive actions when needed.
Management responsibilities cannot be defined without standards, as standards provide the framework and criteria for defining what managers need to do and how they need to do it. Management responsibilities also depend on the scope and complexity of the security policy and standards, which may vary depending on the size, nature, and context of the organization. Therefore, standards must be defined before management responsibilities can be defined.
The other options are not correct, as they are not prerequisites for defining management responsibilities. Assets are the resources that need to be protected by the security policy and standards, but they do not determine the management responsibilities. Controls are the measures that are implemented to reduce the security risks and achieve the security objectives, but they do not determine the management responsibilities. Procedures are the detailed instructions that describe how to perform the security tasks and activities, but they do not determine the management responsibilities.
Which of the following represents the GREATEST risk to data confidentiality?
Options:
Network redundancies are not implemented
Security awareness training is not completed
Backup tapes are generated unencrypted
Users have administrative privileges
Answer:
CExplanation:
Generating backup tapes unencrypted represents the greatest risk to data confidentiality, as it exposes the data to unauthorized access or disclosure if the tapes are lost, stolen, or intercepted. Backup tapes are often stored off-site or transported to remote locations, which increases the chances of them falling into the wrong hands. If the backup tapes are unencrypted, anyone who obtains them can read the data without any difficulty. Therefore, backup tapes should always be encrypted using strong algorithms and keys, and the keys should be protected and managed separately from the tapes.
The other options do not pose as much risk to data confidentiality as generating backup tapes unencrypted. Network redundancies are not implemented will affect the availability and reliability of the network, but not necessarily the confidentiality of the data. Security awareness training is not completed will increase the likelihood of human errors or negligence that could compromise the data, but not as directly as generating backup tapes unencrypted. Users have administrative privileges will grant users more access and control over the system and the data, but not as widely as generating backup tapes unencrypted.