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ISC CISSP Dumps

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Total 1486 questions

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the BEST approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance?

Options:

A.

Audit logs

B.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Application of least privilege

Question 2

A manufacturing organization wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the manufacturing organization?

Options:

A.

Trusted third-party certification

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

Security Assertion Markup language (SAML)

D.

Cross-certification

Question 3

Users require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. Which control would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary?

Options:

A.

Limit access to predefined queries

B.

Segregate the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level

C.

Implement Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

D.

Reduce the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes

Question 4

Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices?

Options:

A.

Derived credential

B.

Temporary security credential

C.

Mobile device credentialing service

D.

Digest authentication

Question 5

Which security service is served by the process of encryption plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting cipher text with the sender’s public key?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Integrity

C.

Identification

D.

Availability

Question 6

Which of the following mobile code security models relies only on trust?

Options:

A.

Code signing

B.

Class authentication

C.

Sandboxing

D.

Type safety

Question 7

Which component of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified automated vulnerability assessments?

Options:

A.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

B.

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

C.

Asset Reporting Format (ARF)

D.

Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL)

Question 8

Who in the organization is accountable for classification of data information assets?

Options:

A.

Data owner

B.

Data architect

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

D.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

Question 9

The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Diffie-Hellman algorithm

B.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

C.

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

D.

Message Digest 5 (MD5)

Question 10

Which technique can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack?

Options:

A.

Hashing the data before encryption

B.

Hashing the data after encryption

C.

Compressing the data after encryption

D.

Compressing the data before encryption

Question 11

What is the second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management?

Options:

A.

Implementation Phase

B.

Initialization Phase

C.

Cancellation Phase

D.

Issued Phase

Question 12

Which of the following describes the concept of a Single Sign -On (SSO) system?

Options:

A.

Users are authenticated to one system at a time.

B.

Users are identified to multiple systems with several credentials.

C.

Users are authenticated to multiple systems with one login.

D.

Only one user is using the system at a time.

Question 13

From a security perspective, which of the following is a best practice to configure a Domain Name Service (DNS) system?

Options:

A.

Configure secondary servers to use the primary server as a zone forwarder.

B.

Block all Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connections.

C.

Disable all recursive queries on the name servers.

D.

Limit zone transfers to authorized devices.

Question 14

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.

Which of the following methods is the MOST effective way of removing the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) program from the computer?

Options:

A.

Run software uninstall

B.

Re-image the computer

C.

Find and remove all installation files

D.

Delete all cookies stored in the web browser cache

Question 15

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

During the investigation of a security incident, it is determined that an unauthorized individual accessed a system which hosts a database containing financial information.

If the intrusion causes the system processes to hang, which of the following has been affected?

Options:

A.

System integrity

B.

System availability

C.

System confidentiality

D.

System auditability

Question 16

A system is developed so that its business users can perform business functions but not user administration functions. Application administrators can perform administration functions but not user business functions. These capabilities are BEST described as

Options:

A.

least privilege.

B.

rule based access controls.

C.

Mandatory Access Control (MAC).

D.

separation of duties.

Question 17

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider’s facility. This provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer-based applications used by the organization.

What additional considerations are there if the third party is located in a different country?

Options:

A.

The organizational structure of the third party and how it may impact timelines within the organization

B.

The ability of the third party to respond to the organization in a timely manner and with accurate information

C.

The effects of transborder data flows and customer expectations regarding the storage or processing of their data

D.

The quantity of data that must be provided to the third party and how it is to be used

Question 18

Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

Time of data validation after disaster

B.

Time of data restoration from backup after disaster

C.

Time of application resumption after disaster

D.

Time of application verification after disaster

Question 19

When using third-party software developers, which of the following is the MOST effective method of providing software development Quality Assurance (QA)?

Options:

A.

Retain intellectual property rights through contractual wording.

B.

Perform overlapping code reviews by both parties.

C.

Verify that the contractors attend development planning meetings.

D.

Create a separate contractor development environment.

Question 20

Which of the following is the MOST crucial for a successful audit plan?

Options:

A.

Defining the scope of the audit to be performed

B.

Identifying the security controls to be implemented

C.

Working with the system owner on new controls

D.

Acquiring evidence of systems that are not compliant

Question 21

Which of the following is a detective access control mechanism?

Options:

A.

Log review

B.

Least privilege

C.

Password complexity

D.

Non-disclosure agreement

Question 22

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

During the investigation of a security incident, it is determined that an unauthorized individual accessed a system which hosts a database containing financial information.

Aside from the potential records which may have been viewed, which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern regarding the database information?

Options:

A.

Unauthorized database changes

B.

Integrity of security logs

C.

Availability of the database

D.

Confidentiality of the incident

Question 23

A large university needs to enable student access to university resources from their homes. Which of the following provides the BEST option for low maintenance and ease of deployment?

Options:

A.

Provide students with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) Virtual Private Network (VPN) client software.

B.

Use Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) VPN technology.

C.

Use Secure Shell (SSH) with public/private keys.

D.

Require students to purchase home router capable of VPN.

Question 24

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider’s facility. This provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer-based applications used by the organization.

The organization should ensure that the third party's physical security controls are in place so that they

Options:

A.

are more rigorous than the original controls.

B.

are able to limit access to sensitive information.

C.

allow access by the organization staff at any time.

D.

cannot be accessed by subcontractors of the third party.

Question 25

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.

The security program can be considered effective when

Options:

A.

vulnerabilities are proactively identified.

B.

audits are regularly performed and reviewed.

C.

backups are regularly performed and validated.

D.

risk is lowered to an acceptable level.

Question 26

An organization decides to implement a partial Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) with only the servers having digital certificates. What is the security benefit of this implementation?

Options:

A.

Clients can authenticate themselves to the servers.

B.

Mutual authentication is available between the clients and servers.

C.

Servers are able to issue digital certificates to the client.

D.

Servers can authenticate themselves to the client.

Question 27

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.

Which of the following solutions would have MOST likely detected the use of peer-to-peer programs when the computer was connected to the office network?

Options:

A.

Anti-virus software

B.

Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

C.

Anti-spyware software

D.

Integrity checking software

Question 28

What is the BEST first step for determining if the appropriate security controls are in place for protecting data at rest?

Options:

A.

Identify regulatory requirements

B.

Conduct a risk assessment

C.

Determine business drivers

D.

Review the security baseline configuration

Question 29

What is the MAIN feature that onion routing networks offer?

Options:

A.

Non-repudiation

B.

Traceability

C.

Anonymity

D.

Resilience

Question 30

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.

Which of the following documents explains the proper use of the organization's assets?

Options:

A.

Human resources policy

B.

Acceptable use policy

C.

Code of ethics

D.

Access control policy

Question 31

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns.

In the plan, what is the BEST approach to mitigate future internal client-based attacks?

Options:

A.

Block all client side web exploits at the perimeter.

B.

Remove all non-essential client-side web services from the network.

C.

Screen for harmful exploits of client-side services before implementation.

D.

Harden the client image before deployment.

Question 32

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns.

What MUST the plan include in order to reduce client-side exploitation?

Options:

A.

Approved web browsers

B.

Network firewall procedures

C.

Proxy configuration

D.

Employee education

Question 33

An organization's data policy MUST include a data retention period which is based on

Options:

A.

application dismissal.

B.

business procedures.

C.

digital certificates expiration.

D.

regulatory compliance.

Question 34

What physical characteristic does a retinal scan biometric device measure?

Options:

A.

The amount of light reflected by the retina

B.

The size, curvature, and shape of the retina

C.

The pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye

D.

The pattern of light receptors at the back of the eye

Question 35

Which of the following problems is not addressed by using OAuth (Open Standard to Authorization) 2.0 to integrate a third-party identity provider for a service?

Options:

A.

Resource Servers are required to use passwords to authenticate end users.

B.

Revocation of access of some users of the third party instead of all the users from the third party.

C.

Compromise of the third party means compromise of all the users in the service.

D.

Guest users need to authenticate with the third party identity provider.

Question 36

It is MOST important to perform which of the following to minimize potential impact when implementing a new vulnerability scanning tool in a production environment?

Options:

A.

Negotiate schedule with the Information Technology (IT) operation’s team

B.

Log vulnerability summary reports to a secured server

C.

Enable scanning during off-peak hours

D.

Establish access for Information Technology (IT) management

Question 37

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of implementing a Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

system?

Options:

A.

Integration using Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

B.

Form-based user registration process

C.

Integration with the organizations Human Resources (HR) system

D.

A considerably simpler provisioning process

Question 38

When developing solutions for mobile devices, in which phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) should technical limitations related to devices be specified?

Options:

A.

Implementation

B.

Initiation

C.

Review

D.

Development

Question 39

Which of the following is the MOST effective method to mitigate Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Use Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.

Whitelist input validation

C.

Require client certificates

D.

Validate data output

Question 40

An international medical organization with headquarters in the United States (US) and branches in France

wants to test a drug in both countries. What is the organization allowed to do with the test subject’s data?

Options:

A.

Aggregate it into one database in the US

B.

Process it in the US, but store the information in France

C.

Share it with a third party

D.

Anonymize it and process it in the US

Question 41

Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to ensure that security objectives are aligned with organization goals?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Information security department

C.

Audit committee

D.

All users

Question 42

In a change-controlled environment, which of the following is MOST likely to lead to unauthorized changes to

production programs?

Options:

A.

Modifying source code without approval

B.

Promoting programs to production without approval

C.

Developers checking out source code without approval

D.

Developers using Rapid Application Development (RAD) methodologies without approval

Question 43

Which of the following methods of suppressing a fire is environmentally friendly and the MOST appropriate for a data center?

Options:

A.

Inert gas fire suppression system

B.

Halon gas fire suppression system

C.

Dry-pipe sprinklers

D.

Wet-pipe sprinklers

Question 44

During examination of Internet history records, the following string occurs within a Unique Resource Locator (URL):

or 1=1

What type of attack does this indicate?

Options:

A.

Directory traversal

B.

Structured Query Language (SQL) injection

C.

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

D.

Shellcode injection

Question 45

A control to protect from a Denial-of-Service (DoS) attach has been determined to stop 50% of attacks, and additionally reduces the impact of an attack by 50%. What is the residual risk?

Options:

A.

25%

B.

50%

C.

75%

D.

100%

Question 46

An organization plan on purchasing a custom software product developed by a small vendor to support its business model. Which unique consideration should be made part of the contractual agreement potential long-term risks associated with creating this dependency?

Options:

A.

A source code escrow clause

B.

Right to request an independent review of the software source code

C.

Due diligence form requesting statements of compliance with security requirements

D.

Access to the technical documentation

Question 47

What capability would typically be included in a commercially available software package designed for access control?

Options:

A.

Password encryption

B.

File encryption

C.

Source library control

D.

File authentication

Question 48

A security compliance manager of a large enterprise wants to reduce the time it takes to perform network,

system, and application security compliance audits while increasing quality and effectiveness of the results.

What should be implemented to BEST achieve the desired results?

Options:

A.

Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

B.

Source code repository

C.

Configuration Management Plan (CMP)

D.

System performance monitoring application

Question 49

Which of the following is the MOST important part of an awareness and training plan to prepare employees for emergency situations?

Options:

A.

Having emergency contacts established for the general employee population to get information

B.

Conducting business continuity and disaster recovery training for those who have a direct role in the recovery

C.

Designing business continuity and disaster recovery training programs for different audiences

D.

Publishing a corporate business continuity and disaster recovery plan on the corporate website

Question 50

“Stateful” differs from “Static” packet filtering firewalls by being aware of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Difference between a new and an established connection

B.

Originating network location

C.

Difference between a malicious and a benign packet payload

D.

Originating application session

Question 51

Attack trees are MOST useful for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Determining system security scopes

B.

Generating attack libraries

C.

Enumerating threats

D.

Evaluating Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

Question 52

Which of the following mechanisms will BEST prevent a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack?

Options:

A.

parameterized database queries

B.

whitelist input values

C.

synchronized session tokens

D.

use strong ciphers

Question 53

The security accreditation task of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) process is completed at the end of which phase?

Options:

A.

System acquisition and development

B.

System operations and maintenance

C.

System initiation

D.

System implementation

Question 54

Which of the following is a common feature of an Identity as a Service (IDaaS) solution?

Options:

A.

Single Sign-On (SSO) authentication support

B.

Privileged user authentication support

C.

Password reset service support

D.

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS) authentication support

Question 55

Which of the following is BEST achieved through the use of eXtensible Access Markup Language (XACML)?

Options:

A.

Minimize malicious attacks from third parties

B.

Manage resource privileges

C.

Share digital identities in hybrid cloud

D.

Defined a standard protocol

Question 56

What is the PRIMARY goal of fault tolerance?

Options:

A.

Elimination of single point of failure

B.

Isolation using a sandbox

C.

Single point of repair

D.

Containment to prevent propagation

Question 57

An organization’s security policy delegates to the data owner the ability to assign which user roles have access

to a particular resource. What type of authorization mechanism is being used?

Options:

A.

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

B.

Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

C.

Media Access Control (MAC)

D.

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Question 58

Which of the following would an attacker BEST be able to accomplish through the use of Remote Access Tools (RAT)?

Options:

A.

Reduce the probability of identification

B.

Detect further compromise of the target

C.

Destabilize the operation of the host

D.

Maintain and expand control

Question 59

Access to which of the following is required to validate web session management?

Options:

A.

Log timestamp

B.

Live session traffic

C.

Session state variables

D.

Test scripts

Question 60

Match the functional roles in an external audit to their responsibilities.

Drag each role on the left to its corresponding responsibility on the right.

Select and Place:

as

Options:

Question 61

Which of the following is MOST appropriate for protecting confidentially of data stored on a hard drive?

Options:

A.

Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)

B.

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

C.

Message Digest 5 (MD5)

D.

Secure Hash Algorithm 2(SHA-2)

Question 62

Who is accountable for the information within an Information System (IS)?

Options:

A.

Security manager

B.

System owner

C.

Data owner

D.

Data processor

Question 63

Unused space in a disk cluster is important in media analysis because it may contain which of the following?

Options:

A.

Residual data that has not been overwritten

B.

Hidden viruses and Trojan horses

C.

Information about the File Allocation table (FAT)

D.

Information about patches and upgrades to the system

Question 64

As part of an application penetration testing process, session hijacking can BEST be achieved by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Known-plaintext attack

B.

Denial of Service (DoS)

C.

Cookie manipulation

D.

Structured Query Language (SQL) injection

Question 65

A security practitioner is tasked with securing the organization’s Wireless Access Points (WAP). Which of these is the MOST effective way of restricting this environment to authorized users?

Options:

A.

Enable Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) encryption on the wireless access point

B.

Disable the broadcast of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) name

C.

Change the name of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) to a random value not associated with the organization

D.

Create Access Control Lists (ACL) based on Media Access Control (MAC) addresses

Question 66

Which of the following access management procedures would minimize the possibility of an organization's employees retaining access to secure werk areas after they change roles?

Options:

A.

User access modification

B.

user access recertification

C.

User access termination

D.

User access provisioning

Question 67

What is the MOST significant benefit of an application upgrade that replaces randomly generated session keys with certificate based encryption for communications with backend servers?

Options:

A.

Non-repudiation

B.

Efficiency

C.

Confidentially

D.

Privacy

Question 68

Which of the following management process allows ONLY those services required for users to accomplish

their tasks, change default user passwords, and set servers to retrieve antivirus updates?

Options:

A.

Configuration

B.

Identity

C.

Compliance

D.

Patch

Question 69

At a MINIMUM, audits of permissions to individual or group accounts should be scheduled

Options:

A.

annually

B.

to correspond with staff promotions

C.

to correspond with terminations

D.

continually

Question 70

A minimal implementation of endpoint security includes which of the following?

Options:

A.

Trusted platforms

B.

Host-based firewalls

C.

Token-based authentication

D.

Wireless Access Points (AP)

Question 71

Which of the following is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) based access cards?

Options:

A.

Personal Identity Verification (PIV)

B.

Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication

C.

Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection

D.

Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response

Question 72

Which one of the following affects the classification of data?

Options:

A.

Assigned security label

B.

Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture

C.

Minimum query size

D.

Passage of time

Question 73

Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?

Options:

A.

Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity

B.

Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving

C.

Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security

D.

Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization

Question 74

When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity?

Options:

A.

The process will require too many resources

B.

It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software

C.

It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data

D.

The process will be perceived as having value

Question 75

Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system?

Options:

A.

Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations

B.

Understand the value of the information assets

C.

Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management

D.

Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements

Question 76

An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests.

Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Identity as a Service (IDaaS)

C.

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 77

Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department?

Options:

A.

The department should report to the business owner

B.

Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed

C.

Individual accountability should be ensured

D.

All members should be trained on their responsibilities

Question 78

In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the

Options:

A.

system security managers

B.

business managers

C.

Information Technology (IT) managers

D.

end users

Question 79

What is one way to mitigate the risk of security flaws in custom software?

Options:

A.

Include security language in the Earned Value Management (EVM) contract

B.

Include security assurance clauses in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)

C.

Purchase only Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) products

D.

Purchase only software with no open source Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)

Question 80

When planning a penetration test, the tester will be MOST interested in which information?

Options:

A.

Places to install back doors

B.

The main network access points

C.

Job application handouts and tours

D.

Exploits that can attack weaknesses

Question 81

Who is ultimately responsible to ensure that information assets are categorized and adequate measures are taken to protect them?

Options:

A.

Data Custodian

B.

Executive Management

C.

Chief Information Security Officer

D.

Data/Information/Business Owners

Question 82

In configuration management, what baseline configuration information MUST be maintained for each computer system?

Options:

A.

Operating system and version, patch level, applications running, and versions.

B.

List of system changes, test reports, and change approvals

C.

Last vulnerability assessment report and initial risk assessment report

D.

Date of last update, test report, and accreditation certificate

Question 83

The goal of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) training and awareness program is to

Options:

A.

enhance the skills required to create, maintain, and execute the plan.

B.

provide for a high level of recovery in case of disaster.

C.

describe the recovery organization to new employees.

D.

provide each recovery team with checklists and procedures.

Question 84

What type of wireless network attack BEST describes an Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP) attack?

Options:

A.

Radio Frequency (RF) attack

B.

Denial of Service (DoS) attack

C.

Data modification attack

D.

Application-layer attack

Question 85

Which of the following prevents improper aggregation of privileges in Role Based Access Control (RBAC)?

Options:

A.

Hierarchical inheritance

B.

Dynamic separation of duties

C.

The Clark-Wilson security model

D.

The Bell-LaPadula security model

Question 86

Which of the following explains why record destruction requirements are included in a data retention policy?

Options:

A.

To comply with legal and business requirements

B.

To save cost for storage and backup

C.

To meet destruction guidelines

D.

To validate data ownership

Question 87

Which of the following is a function of Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)?

Options:

A.

File allocation

B.

Redundancy check

C.

Extended validation

D.

Policy enforcement

Question 88

Knowing the language in which an encrypted message was originally produced might help a cryptanalyst to perform a

Options:

A.

clear-text attack.

B.

known cipher attack.

C.

frequency analysis.

D.

stochastic assessment.

Question 89

Which of the following BEST avoids data reminisce disclosure for cloud hosted resources?

Options:

A.

Strong encryption and deletion of the keys after data is deleted.

B.

Strong encryption and deletion of the virtual host after data is deleted.

C.

Software based encryption with two factor authentication.

D.

Hardware based encryption on dedicated physical servers.

Question 90

Match the name of access control model with its associated restriction.

Drag each access control model to its appropriate restriction access on the right.

as

Options:

Question 91

What is a characteristic of Secure Socket Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS)?

Options:

A.

SSL and TLS provide a generic channel security mechanism on top of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

B.

SSL and TLS provide nonrepudiation by default.

C.

SSL and TLS do not provide security for most routed protocols.

D.

SSL and TLS provide header encapsulation over HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

Question 92

The PRIMARY purpose of accreditation is to:

Options:

A.

comply with applicable laws and regulations.

B.

allow senior management to make an informed decision regarding whether to accept the risk of operating the system.

C.

protect an organization’s sensitive datA.

D.

verify that all security controls have been implemented properly and are operating in the correct manner.

Question 93

When building a data classification scheme, which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Purpose

B.

Cost effectiveness

C.

Availability

D.

Authenticity

Question 94

What is the GREATEST challenge of an agent-based patch management solution?

Options:

A.

Time to gather vulnerability information about the computers in the program

B.

Requires that software be installed, running, and managed on all participating computers

C.

The significant amount of network bandwidth while scanning computers

D.

The consistency of distributing patches to each participating computer

Question 95

In which identity management process is the subject’s identity established?

Options:

A.

Trust

B.

Provisioning

C.

Authorization

D.

Enrollment

Question 96

During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.

What is the best approach for the CISO?

During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.

What is the best approach for the CISO?

Options:

A.

Document the system as high risk

B.

Perform a vulnerability assessment

C.

Perform a quantitative threat assessment

D.

Notate the information and move on

Question 97

Which of the following is a characteristic of the initialization vector when using Data Encryption Standard (DES)?

Options:

A.

It must be known to both sender and receiver.

B.

It can be transmitted in the clear as a random number.

C.

It must be retained until the last block is transmitted.

D.

It can be used to encrypt and decrypt information.

Question 98

When designing a vulnerability test, which one of the following is likely to give the BEST indication of what components currently operate on the network?

Options:

A.

Topology diagrams

B.

Mapping tools

C.

Asset register

D.

Ping testing

Question 99

Which of the following is a recommended alternative to an integrated email encryption system?

Options:

A.

Sign emails containing sensitive data

B.

Send sensitive data in separate emails

C.

Encrypt sensitive data separately in attachments

D.

Store sensitive information to be sent in encrypted drives

Question 100

Which type of security testing is being performed when an ethical hacker has no knowledge about the target system but the testing target is notified before the test?

Options:

A.

Reversal

B.

Gray box

C.

Blind

D.

White box

Question 101

An organization has developed a major application that has undergone accreditation testing. After receiving the results of the evaluation, what is the final step before the application can be accredited?

Options:

A.

Acceptance of risk by the authorizing official

B.

Remediation of vulnerabilities

C.

Adoption of standardized policies and procedures

D.

Approval of the System Security Plan (SSP)

Question 102

The PRIMARY outcome of a certification process is that it provides documented

Options:

A.

system weaknesses for remediation.

B.

standards for security assessment, testing, and process evaluation.

C.

interconnected systems and their implemented security controls.

D.

security analyses needed to make a risk-based decision.

Question 103

Which one of the following activities would present a significant security risk to organizations when employing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) solution?

Options:

A.

VPN bandwidth

B.

Simultaneous connection to other networks

C.

Users with Internet Protocol (IP) addressing conflicts

D.

Remote users with administrative rights

Question 104

The restoration priorities of a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) are based on which of the following documents?

Options:

A.

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

B.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

C.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

D.

Crisis management plan

Question 105

In the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model, which layer is responsible for the transmission of binary data over a communications network?

Options:

A.

Application Layer

B.

Physical Layer

C.

Data-Link Layer

D.

Network Layer

Question 106

Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system?

Options:

A.

Encryption of audit logs

B.

No archiving of audit logs

C.

Hashing of audit logs

D.

Remote access audit logs

Question 107

A Virtual Machine (VM) environment has five guest Operating Systems (OS) and provides strong isolation. What MUST an administrator review to audit a user’s access to data files?

Options:

A.

Host VM monitor audit logs

B.

Guest OS access controls

C.

Host VM access controls

D.

Guest OS audit logs

Question 108

In which of the following programs is it MOST important to include the collection of security process data?

Options:

A.

Quarterly access reviews

B.

Security continuous monitoring

C.

Business continuity testing

D.

Annual security training

Question 109

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure?

Options:

A.

Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken

B.

Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability

C.

Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization

D.

Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels

Question 110

Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations?

Options:

A.

Change management processes

B.

User administration procedures

C.

Operating System (OS) baselines

D.

System backup documentation

Question 111

Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations?

Options:

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Simulation

C.

Parallel

D.

White box

Question 112

A Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide which of the following?

Options:

A.

Guaranteed recovery of all business functions

B.

Minimization of the need decision making during a crisis

C.

Insurance against litigation following a disaster

D.

Protection from loss of organization resources

Question 113

What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application?

Options:

A.

Disable all unnecessary services

B.

Ensure chain of custody

C.

Prepare another backup of the system

D.

Isolate the system from the network

Question 114

Which of the following is the FIRST step in the incident response process?

Options:

A.

Determine the cause of the incident

B.

Disconnect the system involved from the network

C.

Isolate and contain the system involved

D.

Investigate all symptoms to confirm the incident

Question 115

With what frequency should monitoring of a control occur when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions?

Options:

A.

Continuously without exception for all security controls

B.

Before and after each change of the control

C.

At a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control

D.

Only during system implementation and decommissioning

Question 116

When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid?

Options:

A.

When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager

B.

When it has been validated by the board of directors

C.

When it has been validated by all threat scenarios

D.

When it has been validated by realistic exercises

Question 117

An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause?

Options:

A.

Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution

B.

Inadequate cost modeling

C.

Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)

D.

Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Question 118

What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management?

Options:

A.

Certify and approve releases to the environment

B.

Provide version rollbacks for system changes

C.

Ensure that all applications are approved

D.

Ensure accountability for changes to the environment

Question 119

What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved?

Options:

A.

Take the computer to a forensic lab

B.

Make a copy of the hard drive

C.

Start documenting

D.

Turn off the computer

Question 120

A continuous information security-monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies

B.

Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts

C.

Encompassing people, process, and technology

D.

Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes

Question 121

Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?

Options:

A.

Hardware and software compatibility issues

B.

Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance

C.

Budget constraints and requirements

D.

Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives

Question 122

Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service?

Options:

A.

Consolidation of multiple providers

B.

Directory synchronization

C.

Web based logon

D.

Automated account management

Question 123

What would be the MOST cost effective solution for a Disaster Recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours?

Options:

A.

Warm site

B.

Hot site

C.

Mirror site

D.

Cold site

Question 124

Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs?

Options:

A.

Check arguments in function calls

B.

Test for the security patch level of the environment

C.

Include logging functions

D.

Digitally sign each application module

Question 125

Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?

Options:

A.

Purchase software from a limited list of retailers

B.

Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates

C.

Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet

D.

Test all new software in a segregated environment

Question 126

What is the BEST approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications?

Options:

A.

Debug the security issues

B.

Migrate to newer, supported applications where possible

C.

Conduct a security assessment

D.

Protect the legacy application with a web application firewall

Question 127

The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

System acquisition and development

B.

System operations and maintenance

C.

System initiation

D.

System implementation

Question 128

When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined?

Options:

A.

After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed

B.

After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins

C.

After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins

D.

After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed

Question 129

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction?

Options:

A.

Lack of software documentation

B.

License agreements requiring release of modified code

C.

Expiration of the license agreement

D.

Costs associated with support of the software

Question 130

A Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. The program is not working as expected. What is the MOST probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended?

Options:

A.

Least privilege

B.

Privilege escalation

C.

Defense in depth

D.

Privilege bracketing

Question 131

What type of access control determines the authorization to resource based on pre-defined job titles within an organization?

Options:

A.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

B.

Role-based access control

C.

Non-discretionary access control

D.

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Question 132

A software development company found odd behavior in some recently developed software, creating a need for a more thorough code review. What is the MOST effective argument for a more thorough code review?

Options:

A.

It will increase flexibility of the applications developed.

B.

It will increase accountability with the customers.

C.

It will impede the development process.

D.

lt will reduce the potential for vulnerabilities.

Question 133

Which of the following documents specifies services from the client's viewpoint?

Options:

A.

Service level report

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Service Level Requirement (SLR)

Question 134

Which of the following is the MOST important action regarding authentication?

Options:

A.

Granting access rights

B.

Enrolling in the system

C.

Establishing audit controls

D.

Obtaining executive authorization

Question 135

An organization is planning to have an it audit of its as a Service (SaaS) application to demonstrate to external parties that the security controls around availability are designed. The audit report must also cover a certain period of time to show the operational effectiveness of the controls. Which Service Organization Control (SOC) report would BEST fit their needs?

Options:

A.

SOC 1 Type 1

B.

SOC 1 Type 2

C.

SOC 2 Type 1

D.

SOC 2 Type 2

Question 136

What is the FIRST step that should be considered in a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) program?

Options:

A.

Configuration management (CM)

B.

Information Rights Management (IRM)

C.

Policy creation

D.

Data classification

Question 137

Which of the following should be included in a hardware retention policy?

Which of the following should be included in a hardware retention policy?

Options:

A.

The use of encryption technology to encrypt sensitive data prior to retention

B.

Retention of data for only one week and outsourcing the retention to a third-party vendor

C.

Retention of all sensitive data on media and hardware

D.

A plan to retain data required only for business purposes and a retention schedule

Question 138

Which of the following BEST provides for non-repudiation od user account actions?

Options:

A.

Centralized authentication system

B.

File auditing system

C.

Managed Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

D.

Centralized logging system

Question 139

What is a security concern when considering implementing software-defined networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.

It increases the attack footprint.

B.

It uses open source protocols.

C.

It has a decentralized architecture.

D.

It is cloud based.

Question 140

Physical assets defined in an organization’s Business Impact Analysis (BIA) could include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Personal belongings of organizational staff members

B.

Supplies kept off-site at a remote facility

C.

Cloud-based applications

D.

Disaster Recovery (DR) line-item revenues

Question 141

Which of the following does Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) support?

Options:

A.

Multicast and broadcast messages

B.

Coordination of IEEE 802.11 protocols

C.

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) systems

D.

Synchronization of multiple devices

Question 142

When implementing controls in a heterogeneous end-point network for an organization, it is critical that

Options:

A.

hosts are able to establish network communications.

B.

users can make modifications to their security software configurations.

C.

common software security components be implemented across all hosts.

D.

firewalls running on each host are fully customizable by the user.

Question 143

What security management control is MOST often broken by collusion?

Options:

A.

Job rotation

B.

Separation of duties

C.

Least privilege model

D.

Increased monitoring

Question 144

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when storing and processing Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?

Options:

A.

Encrypt and hash all PII to avoid disclosure and tampering.

B.

Store PII for no more than one year.

C.

Avoid storing PII in a Cloud Service Provider.

D.

Adherence to collection limitation laws and regulations.

Question 145

In Business Continuity Planning (BCP), what is the importance of documenting business processes?

Options:

A.

Provides senior management with decision-making tools

B.

Establishes and adopts ongoing testing and maintenance strategies

C.

Defines who will perform which functions during a disaster or emergency

D.

Provides an understanding of the organization's interdependencies

Question 146

A security professional has just completed their organization's Business Impact Analysis (BIA). Following Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) best practices, what would be the professional's NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Identify and select recovery strategies.

B.

Present the findings to management for funding.

C.

Select members for the organization's recovery teams.

D.

Prepare a plan to test the organization's ability to recover its operations.

Question 147

Which of the following is an appropriate source for test data?

Options:

A.

Production data that is secured and maintained only in the production environment.

B.

Test data that has no similarities to production datA.

C.

Test data that is mirrored and kept up-to-date with production datA.

D.

Production data that has been sanitized before loading into a test environment.

Question 148

Which of the following is a limitation of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) as it relates to conducting code review?

Options:

A.

It has normalized severity ratings.

B.

It has many worksheets and practices to implement.

C.

It aims to calculate the risk of published vulnerabilities.

D.

It requires a robust risk management framework to be put in place.

Question 149

What is the MOST important purpose of testing the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Evaluating the efficiency of the plan

B.

Identifying the benchmark required for restoration

C.

Validating the effectiveness of the plan

D.

Determining the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

Question 150

An internal Service Level Agreement (SLA) covering security is signed by senior managers and is in place. When should compliance to the SLA be reviewed to ensure that a good security posture is being delivered?

Options:

A.

As part of the SLA renewal process

B.

Prior to a planned security audit

C.

Immediately after a security breach

D.

At regularly scheduled meetings

Question 151

Which of the following is the MAIN reason that system re-certification and re-accreditation are needed?

Options:

A.

To assist data owners in making future sensitivity and criticality determinations

B.

To assure the software development team that all security issues have been addressed

C.

To verify that security protection remains acceptable to the organizational security policy

D.

To help the security team accept or reject new systems for implementation and production

Question 152

The Structured Query Language (SQL) implements Discretionary Access Controls (DAC) using

Options:

A.

INSERT and DELETE.

B.

GRANT and REVOKE.

C.

PUBLIC and PRIVATE.

D.

ROLLBACK and TERMINATE.

Question 153

At a MINIMUM, a formal review of any Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) should be conducted

Options:

A.

monthly.

B.

quarterly.

C.

annually.

D.

bi-annually.

Question 154

When building a data center, site location and construction factors that increase the level of vulnerability to physical threats include

Options:

A.

hardened building construction with consideration of seismic factors.

B.

adequate distance from and lack of access to adjacent buildings.

C.

curved roads approaching the data center.

D.

proximity to high crime areas of the city.

Question 155

Which one of the following transmission media is MOST effective in preventing data interception?

Options:

A.

Microwave

B.

Twisted-pair

C.

Fiber optic

D.

Coaxial cable

Question 156

Which of the following is the FIRST step of a penetration test plan?

Options:

A.

Analyzing a network diagram of the target network

B.

Notifying the company's customers

C.

Obtaining the approval of the company's management

D.

Scheduling the penetration test during a period of least impact

Question 157

Following the completion of a network security assessment, which of the following can BEST be demonstrated?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of controls can be accurately measured

B.

A penetration test of the network will fail

C.

The network is compliant to industry standards

D.

All unpatched vulnerabilities have been identified

Question 158

Which of the following is an effective method for avoiding magnetic media data remanence?

Options:

A.

Degaussing

B.

Encryption

C.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

D.

Authentication

Question 159

Which one of these risk factors would be the LEAST important consideration in choosing a building site for a new computer facility?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability to crime

B.

Adjacent buildings and businesses

C.

Proximity to an airline flight path

D.

Vulnerability to natural disasters

Question 160

Why MUST a Kerberos server be well protected from unauthorized access?

Options:

A.

It contains the keys of all clients.

B.

It always operates at root privilege.

C.

It contains all the tickets for services.

D.

It contains the Internet Protocol (IP) address of all network entities.

Question 161

In a financial institution, who has the responsibility for assigning the classification to a piece of information?

Options:

A.

Chief Financial Officer (CFO)

B.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

C.

Originator or nominated owner of the information

D.

Department head responsible for ensuring the protection of the information

Question 162

Which of the following is TRUE about Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) testing?

Options:

A.

Operational networks are usually shut down during testing.

B.

Testing should continue even if components of the test fail.

C.

The company is fully prepared for a disaster if all tests pass.

D.

Testing should not be done until the entire disaster plan can be tested.

Question 163

When designing a networked Information System (IS) where there will be several different types of individual access, what is the FIRST step that should be taken to ensure all access control requirements are addressed?

Options:

A.

Create a user profile.

B.

Create a user access matrix.

C.

Develop an Access Control List (ACL).

D.

Develop a Role Based Access Control (RBAC) list.

Question 164

What is the term commonly used to refer to a technique of authenticating one machine to another by forging packets from a trusted source?

Options:

A.

Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack

B.

Smurfing

C.

Session redirect

D.

Spoofing

Question 165

Who must approve modifications to an organization's production infrastructure configuration?

Options:

A.

Technical management

B.

Change control board

C.

System operations

D.

System users

Question 166

What would be the PRIMARY concern when designing and coordinating a security assessment for an Automatic Teller Machine (ATM) system?

Options:

A.

Physical access to the electronic hardware

B.

Regularly scheduled maintenance process

C.

Availability of the network connection

D.

Processing delays

Question 167

Which of the following MUST be part of a contract to support electronic discovery of data stored in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Integration with organizational directory services for authentication

B.

Tokenization of data

C.

Accommodation of hybrid deployment models

D.

Identification of data location

Question 168

Which of the following statements is TRUE of black box testing?

Options:

A.

Only the functional specifications are known to the test planner.

B.

Only the source code and the design documents are known to the test planner.

C.

Only the source code and functional specifications are known to the test planner.

D.

Only the design documents and the functional specifications are known to the test planner.

Question 169

Which type of control recognizes that a transaction amount is excessive in accordance with corporate policy?

Options:

A.

Detection

B.

Prevention

C.

Investigation

D.

Correction

Question 170

What is the ultimate objective of information classification?

Options:

A.

To assign responsibility for mitigating the risk to vulnerable systems

B.

To ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection

C.

To recognize that the value of any item of information may change over time

D.

To recognize the optimal number of classification categories and the benefits to be gained from their use

Question 171

Which of the following is a method used to prevent Structured Query Language (SQL) injection attacks?

Options:

A.

Data compression

B.

Data classification

C.

Data warehousing

D.

Data validation

Question 172

During an audit of system management, auditors find that the system administrator has not been trained. What actions need to be taken at once to ensure the integrity of systems?

Options:

A.

A review of hiring policies and methods of verification of new employees

B.

A review of all departmental procedures

C.

A review of all training procedures to be undertaken

D.

A review of all systems by an experienced administrator

Question 173

Which of the following MUST be done when promoting a security awareness program to senior management?

Options:

A.

Show the need for security; identify the message and the audience

B.

Ensure that the security presentation is designed to be all-inclusive

C.

Notify them that their compliance is mandatory

D.

Explain how hackers have enhanced information security

Question 174

Which of the following is the BEST way to verify the integrity of a software patch?

Options:

A.

Cryptographic checksums

B.

Version numbering

C.

Automatic updates

D.

Vendor assurance

Question 175

The overall goal of a penetration test is to determine a system's

Options:

A.

ability to withstand an attack.

B.

capacity management.

C.

error recovery capabilities.

D.

reliability under stress.

Question 176

An input validation and exception handling vulnerability has been discovered on a critical web-based system. Which of the following is MOST suited to quickly implement a control?

Options:

A.

Add a new rule to the application layer firewall

B.

Block access to the service

C.

Install an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

D.

Patch the application source code

Question 177

Which of the following is the BEST network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)

B.

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)

C.

Stateful firewalls

D.

Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools

Question 178

What is the purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack?

Options:

A.

To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable

B.

To intercept network traffic without authorization

C.

To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices

D.

To convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity

Question 179

Which of the following factors contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol?

Options:

A.

WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV)

B.

WEP uses Message Digest 5 (MD5)

C.

WEP uses Diffie-Hellman

D.

WEP does not use any Initialization Vector (IV)

Question 180

An external attacker has compromised an organization’s network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information?

Options:

A.

Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls

B.

Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)

C.

Require strong authentication for administrators

D.

Implement logical network segmentation at the switches

Question 181

Which of the following operates at the Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

Options:

A.

Packet filtering

B.

Port services filtering

C.

Content filtering

D.

Application access control

Question 182

At what level of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) located?

Options:

A.

Link layer

B.

Physical layer

C.

Session layer

D.

Application layer

Question 183

Which of the following is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

B.

Link Control Protocol (LCP)

C.

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

D.

Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP)

Question 184

In a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack, which layer is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node?

Options:

A.

Transport layer

B.

Application layer

C.

Network layer

D.

Session layer

Question 185

What is the MOST important consideration from a data security perspective when an organization plans to relocate?

Options:

A.

Ensure the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel

B.

Review the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present

C.

Conduct a gap analysis of a new facilities against existing security requirements

D.

Revise the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan

Question 186

A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning (BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with?

Options:

A.

Application

B.

Storage

C.

Power

D.

Network

Question 187

An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on which PRIMARY elements?

Options:

A.

Development, testing, and deployment

B.

Prevention, detection, and remediation

C.

People, technology, and operations

D.

Certification, accreditation, and monitoring

Question 188

Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas?

Options:

A.

Install mantraps at the building entrances

B.

Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic

C.

Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public

D.

Hire a guard to protect the public area

Question 189

All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that

Options:

A.

determine the risk of a business interruption occurring

B.

determine the technological dependence of the business processes

C.

Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption

D.

Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption

Question 190

Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?

Options:

A.

Examine the device for physical tampering

B.

Implement more stringent baseline configurations

C.

Purge or re-image the hard disk drive

D.

Change access codes

Question 191

Intellectual property rights are PRIMARY concerned with which of the following?

Options:

A.

Owner’s ability to realize financial gain

B.

Owner’s ability to maintain copyright

C.

Right of the owner to enjoy their creation

D.

Right of the owner to control delivery method

Question 192

When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and 27002, when can management responsibilities be defined?

Options:

A.

Only when assets are clearly defined

B.

Only when standards are defined

C.

Only when controls are put in place

D.

Only procedures are defined

Question 193

Which of the following represents the GREATEST risk to data confidentiality?

Options:

A.

Network redundancies are not implemented

B.

Security awareness training is not completed

C.

Backup tapes are generated unencrypted

D.

Users have administrative privileges

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Total 1486 questions