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ISTQB CTFL-Foundation Dumps

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following statements are true?

(i) For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.

(ii) Each test level has the same test objectives.

(iii) The analysis and design of tests for a given test level should begin after the corresponding development activity.

(iv)Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available in the development life cycle.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(iii) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(i) and (iv)

Question 2

Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

Options:

A.

It does not require familiarity with the code.

B.

It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.

C.

It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.

D.

Testers are better at finding defects than developers.

Question 3

Consider the following pseudo code:

1 Begin

2 Read Time

3 If Time < 12 Then

4 Print(Time, "am")

5 Endif

6 If Time > 12 Then

7 Print(Time −12, "pm")

8 Endif

9 If Time = 12 Then

10 Print (Time, "noon")

11 Endif

12 End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 4

Maintenance testing is:

Options:

A.

updating tests when the software has changed

B.

testing a released system that has been changed

C.

testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need

D.

testing to maintain business advantage

Question 5

What is important to do when working with software development models?

Options:

A.

To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.

B.

To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model.

C.

To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models.

D.

To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa.

Question 6

Which statement is most true?

Options:

A.

Different testing is needed depending upon the application.

B.

All software is tested in the same way.

C.

A technique that finds defects will always find defects.

D.

A technique that has found no defects is not useful.

Question 7

Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

Options:

A.

Statement Coverage

B.

Pole Coverage

C.

Condition Coverage

D.

Path Coverage

Question 8

What can a risk-based approach to testing provide?

Options:

A.

The types of test techniques to be employed.

B.

The total tests needed to provide 100 per cent coverage.

C.

An estimation of the total cost of testing.

D.

Only that test execution is effective at reducing risk.

Question 9

Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing?

(i) Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing.

(ii) A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.

(iii) Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers.

(iv) Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is specified to work.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

Question 10

Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:

Options:

A.

Test Analysis and Design

B.

Test Implementation and execution

C.

Test Closure Activities

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Question 11

Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.

ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.

iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

iv. Determining the exit criteria.

Options:

A.

i, ii, iii are true and iv is false

B.

i, iv are true and ii is false

C.

i, ii are true and iii, iv are false

D.

ii, iii, iv are true and i is false

Question 12

A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

Options:

A.

an error

B.

a fault

C.

a failure

D.

a defect

Question 13

Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

Options:

A.

Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities.

B.

Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.

C.

Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.

D.

Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures.

Question 14

When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called..?

Options:

A.

An error

B.

A fault

C.

A failure

D.

A defect

E.

A mistake

Question 15

A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called..?

Options:

A.

A dynamic analysis tool

B.

A test execution tool

C.

A debugging tool

D.

A test management tool

E.

A configuration management tool

Question 16

Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

Options:

A.

Test Analysis and Design

B.

Test Implementation and execution

C.

Test Closure Activities

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Question 17

Boundary value testing:

Options:

A.

Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests

B.

Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes

C.

Tests combinations of input circumstances

D.

Is used in white box testing strategy

Question 18

Which of the following is a structure-based (white-box) technique?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Statement testing

D.

Boundary value analysis

Question 19

“How much testing is enough?”

Options:

A.

This question is impossible to answer

B.

This question is easy to answer

C.

The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements

D.

This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

Question 20

Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

To measure characteristics of a system which give an indication of how the system performs its functions

B.

To ensure that a system complies with the quality standards set by ISO 9126

C.

To ensure that the system deals appropriately with software malfunctions

D.

To measure the extent to which a system has been tested by functional testing

Question 21

Which of the following is most likely to cause failure in the implementation of a test tool?

Options:

A.

Underestimating the demand for a tool.

B.

The purchase price of the tool.

C.

No agreed requirements for the tool.

D.

The cost of resources to implement and maintain the tool.

Question 22

Which of the following are examples of iterative development models?

(i) V-model

(ii) Rapid Application Development model

(iii) Waterfall model

(iv) Agile development model

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(ii) and (iii)

C.

(ii) and (iv)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

Question 23

Which of the following statements contains a valuable objective for a test team?

Options:

A.

Prove that the remaining defects will not cause any additional failures.

B.

Run all of the tests that are defined for the test object as quickly as possible.

C.

Prove that all faults have been identified through thorough testing.

D.

Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected

Question 24

Which of the following pairs of test tools are likely to be most useful during the test analysis and design stage of the fundamental test process?

(i) Test execution tool

(ii) Test data preparation tool

(iii) Test management tool

(iv) Requirements management tool

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

Question 25

Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy?

Options:

A.

to ensure that all of the small components are tested

B.

to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks

C.

to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team

D.

to specify how the software should be divided into components

E.

to specify which components to combine when, and how many at once

Question 26

Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?

Options:

A.

Testers and reviewers are not curious enough to find defects.

B.

Testers and reviewers are not qualified enough to find failures and faults.

C.

Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product.

D.

Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product have already been found and fixed by the developers.

Question 27

Consider the following pseudo code:

1 Begin

2 Read Time

3 If Time < 12 Then

4 Print(Time, "am")

5 Endif

6 If Time > 12 Then

7 Print(Time −12, "pm")

8 Endif

9 If Time = 12 Then

10 Print (Time, "noon")

11 Endif

12 End

If the test cases Time = 11 and Time = 15 were input, what level of decision coverage would be achieved?

Options:

A.

100% or 6/6

B.

50% or 3/6

C.

67% or 4/6

D.

83% or 5/6

Question 28

Why is independent testing important? [K1]

Options:

A.

Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

B.

Because independent testers are isolated from the development team

C.

Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system

D.

Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

Question 29

A bank is developing a new service that will be delivered via the web. The user interactions are defined as a set of use cases and the service is designed to be available continuously 24/7. In view of the challenging characteristics of the service the test manager has decided that the code should be thoroughly tested at component level.

Which of the following test types will be required during the development? [K2]

Options:

A.

Functional testing to test security at the system level, load testing at the system level to ensure the system availability is acceptable, regression testing at all levels, structure based testing at the component level only

B.

Functional testing to test the use cases at component level, reliability testing to test availability at the integration level, regression testing at the system testing level only, structure based testing at all levels

C.

Functional testing of the use cases at system level, load testing at component level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the system and acceptance levels only, and structure based testing at the integration level only

D.

Functional testing to test security at the acceptance level, load testing at the acceptance test level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the acceptance level only to ensure late changes are made correctly, and structure based testing at the component level

Question 30

Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test

Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]

Options:

A.

Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.

B.

Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1..4 fails . Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

C.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description. When a future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not always happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.

D.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

Question 31

What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

Boundary value testing

C.

Statement testing and coverage

D.

State transition testing

Question 32

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

Options:

A.

Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system

B.

Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.

C.

Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system

D.

Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

Question 33

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Options:

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

Question 34

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?

(i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.

(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.

(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.

(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.

(v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.

(vi)Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

Options:

A.

ii, iii, iv, v

B.

i, iii, v, vi

C.

i, ii, iv, v

D.

iii, iv, v, vi

Question 35

Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]

Options:

A.

The 4 stage V model is always the best choice of software development model for any project

B.

The agile development model is usually most appropriate for short projects

C.

The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics

D.

The 2 stage V model is the most appropriate development model for simple products

Question 36

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

Options:

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

Question 37

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Options:

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

Question 38

What is decision table testing?

Options:

A.

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

B.

It’s a static test design technique.

C.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

D.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

Question 39

System testing is:

Options:

A.

Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.

B.

The responsibility of the users of a system.

C.

Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development project.

D.

Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.

Question 40

Component testing may include:

Options:

A.

Sociability testing.

B.

User acceptance testing.

C.

Beta testing.

D.

The use of stubs and drivers.

Question 41

Which of the following are valid test objectives?

(i)Finding defects.

(ii)Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.

(iii)Preventing defects.

(iv)Debugging the code.

Options:

A.

i, ii and iii

B.

i, ii and iv

C.

ii and iii

D.

i and iv

Question 42

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

Options:

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

Question 43

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Correcting defects

B.

Locating defects in the code

C.

Preventing defects

D.

Ensuring no defects are present

Question 44

Consider the following pseudo code:

1. Begin

2. Input X, Y

3. If X > Y

4. __Print (X, ‘is greater than’, Y)

5. Else

6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to’, X)

7. EndIf

8. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

C.

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

D.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

Question 45

Which of the following is a white box testing design characteristic?

Options:

A.

To be based on specifications

B.

To be based on an analysis of the test basis documentation

C.

To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system

D.

To include both functional and non-functional testing

Question 46

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Options:

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

Question 47

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Decision testing

D.

Equivalence partitioning

Question 48

Consider the following pseudo code

1. Begin

2. Read Gender

3. __Print “Dear”

4. If Gender = ‘female’

5. Print (“Ms”)

6. Else

7. __Print ( “Mr”)

8. Endif

9. End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 49

When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

Options:

A.

Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.

B.

Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.

C.

Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.

D.

Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

Question 50

What is a test condition?

Options:

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

Question 51

Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use of formal techniques requires expensive training

B.

Only experience can ensure all functionality is covered

C.

Tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques

D.

Formal techniques require the use of expensive tools

Question 52

What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

Options:

A.

To identify the requirements for using a tool

B.

To make a selection between alternative tools

C.

To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective

D.

To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change

Question 53

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

Options:

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

Question 54

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

Question 55

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug, mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

Question 56

When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

Options:

A.

System and Component test levels only

B.

All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing

C.

Component and Component integration test levels only

D.

All test levels

Question 57

Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

Options:

A.

They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete

B.

They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available

C.

They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level

D.

They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

Question 58

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

Options:

A.

Test Implementation and Execution

B.

Test Planning and Control

C.

Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting

D.

Test Analysis and Design

Question 59

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Omission of a major requirement

B.

Inadequate decision coverage

C.

Component memory leakage

D.

Variables that are not used improperly declared

Question 60

You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.

What is the correct definition of this document?

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Test condition

C.

Test procedure specification

D.

Test case specification

Question 61

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Options:

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

Question 62

Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

Options:

A.

Decision Coverage

B.

Error Guessing

C.

Statement Coverage

D.

Equivalence Partitioning

Question 63

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

Options:

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

Question 64

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

Question 65

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

Question 66

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

Options:

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

Question 67

A system is being enhanced to simplify screen navigation for users.

Which of the following does NOT reflect structural testing?

Options:

A.

To test all paths that users could take through the screen menu system

B.

To ensure that 100% decision testing is achieved for each system component

C.

To test all branches of component calls within the application call graph

D.

To ensure that users can navigate to all fields on the screen

Question 68

Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of following is MOST likely to impact the amount of effort required?

Options:

A.

The predicted number of defects and the amount of rework required

B.

The ratio of developers to testers in the project team

C.

The planned use of a project management tool to schedule tasks

D.

The responsibilities for testers and developers being clearly defined

Question 69

Your task is to compile a test execution schedule for the current release of software.

The system specification states the following logical dependencies:

• An admin user must create/amend/delete a standard user.

• A standard user is necessary to perform all other actions.

The test plan requires that re-tests must be performed first, followed by the highest priority tests. To save time, the test plan states that tests should be scheduled to create test data for the subsequent tests in the schedule.

The following test cases have been designed, with an indication of priority (1 being the highest priority) and whether the test has previously failed.

as

Which test execution schedule meets the test plan requirements and logical dependencies?

Options:

A.

a, d, c, b, e

B.

a, c, b, d, e

C.

e, a, b, c, d

D.

e, a, d, c, b

Question 70

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Options:

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

Question 71

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.

What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

Options:

A.

Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B.

Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

C.

Provide support for the test team using the tool

D.

Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

Question 72

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

Options:

A.

Number of Test cases passed and failed

B.

Percentage of planned test cases designed

C.

Number of test plan review comments

D.

Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

Question 73

as

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

Options:

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

Question 74

Which of the following optionsBESTexplain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

Options:

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

Question 75

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

Question 76

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

Options:

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

Question 77

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

Options:

A.

Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B.

Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors

C.

Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests

D.

Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

Question 78

as

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

Options:

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

Question 79

as

The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire.

What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?

* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart

* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

Options:

A.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

B.

TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

C.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

D.

TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

Question 80

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

Options:

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

Question 81

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:

1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times

2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60

Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?

Options:

A.

Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60

B.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second

C.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

D.

Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

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Total 272 questions