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Nokia 4A0-C04 Dumps

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Total 298 questions

Nokia NRS II Composite Exam: OSPF version Questions and Answers

Question 1

If a Router originates a type 1 router LSA with the E bit set what types of areas can it belong to? Select all that apply.

Options:

A.

Not So Stubby Area

B.

Stub Area

C.

Backbone Area

D.

Standard Area

Question 2

Click on the exhibit.

as

An LSP traverses the path R1-R2-R3. With one-to-one fast reroute enabled, which router becomes a DMP for the detour tunnels?

Options:

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Router R3

D.

Router R4

E.

Router R5

Question 3

Which of the following regarding label population is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Selected labels from the FIB are populated to the LFIB.

B.

Selected labels from the RIB are populated to the FIB.

C.

Selected labels from the LIB are populated to the FIB.

D.

Selected labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB.

Question 4

Click the exhibit.

as

The operator at PE1 wants to analyze the traffic between CE4 and PE2. On an Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following is required as part of the configuration?

Options:

A.

Both PE1 and PE2 need a mirror source.

B.

PE2 needs a mirror source with the remote source specified.

C.

PE1 needs a mirror source with the remote source specified.

D.

Both PE1 and PE2 need a mirror destination.

E.

PE2 needs a mirror destination that specifies a SAP.

Question 5

When redistributing OSPF into RIP V2 what must be taken into consideration for the redistribution to take place?

Options:

A.

The metric must be set accordingly for RIP

B.

The subnet mask must be removed from the OSPF route

C.

You must divide the cost of the OSPF route by three

D.

The router must be configured as an ASBR

Question 6

On Nokia 7750 SR OS, routing information between the CE and PE can be exchanged using the following methods.

Options:

A.

ISIS, RIP, OSPF, static routes

B.

BGP, ISIS, RIP, OSPF, static routes

C.

BGP, RIP, OSPF, static routes, OSPF3

D.

ISIS, RIP, OSPF, static routes, OSPF3

Question 7

Click the exhibit.

as

Router R6 is a route reflector with clients R1, R2 and R5. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R1, R2 and R5. How many routes for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 will router R6 receive?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

None

Question 8

Which of the following statements best describes the function of an OSPF Type 4 LSA?

Options:

A.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ABR to describe a route to an ASBR to routers outside the area.

B.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ASBR to describe a route to itself to routers outside the area.

C.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ABR that is connected to a stub area. The LSA is injected into the backbone area to provide routing information.

D.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ABR that is connected to a stub area. The LSA is injected into the stub area to provide routing information.

Question 9

Facility fast reroute with node protection is enabled for an LSP, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Each PLR signals a bypass tunnel that avoids the next-hop downstream router.

B.

When a failure occurs, the PLR pushs an additional label onto the label stack.

C.

No bypass tunnel is established if the PLR cannot provide node protection.

D.

The head-end router sets the local protection desired flag in the session attribute object.

Question 10

In an OSPF environment, what must a router receive after it sends out an update?

Options:

A.

The router must receive an acknowledgment

B.

The router must receive a Hello

C.

The router must receive a new sequence number

D.

The router must receive a Link State Packet

Question 11

Which of the following about an ERO in an RSVP PATH message is FALSE?

Options:

A.

ERO is used by downstream routers to determine the next-hop for the LSP.

B.

ERO contains label information used to signal an LSP path.

C.

ERO is not always present in the PATH message.

D.

Each downstream router updates information inside the ERO.

Question 12

Which of the following about VPRN VRF tables is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A PE uses the same VRF table for all the VPRN services on it.

B.

A PE uses a VRF to maintain forwarding information.

C.

Information for VRFs can be advertised between PEs by MP-BGP.

D.

A PE uses a VRF to route traffic to CEs.

Question 13

Click the exhibit button.

as

Routers R1 „ R2, and R3 are running a classful routing protocol between them. Assuming that router R1 advertises all directly connected networks, how will these networks be represented in router R3's routing table?

Options:

A.

Router R3's routing table can only contain one of the routes, which will result in route flapping.

B.

Router R3's routing table will have one entry for 10.1.1.0/24 and one entry for 10.1.2.0/24.

C.

The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/8 in router R3's routing table.

D.

The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/24 in router R3's route table.

Question 14

A network consists of four PE routers. A customer requires a VPLS and has sites connected to each PE. The VPLS is fully meshed using IP/MPLS. How many SDPs must be configured on each PE?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

8

Question 15

Which regular expression will match the AS Path of a route originating in remote AS 65100?

Options:

A.

".+ 65100"

B.

"65100.+"

C.

".* 65100.*"

D.

"65100"

Question 16

Click on the exhibit.

as

This LSP terminates on a system IP address. What is the system address of the destination node?

Options:

A.

10.32.1.2

B.

10.1.4.78

C.

10.48.1.1

D.

10.1.2.2

Question 17

Click on the exhibit.

as

If the primary path goes down, which secondary LSP path will the head-end router select first?

Options:

A.

Secondary_Path-1

B.

Secondary_Path-2

C.

Secondary_Path-3

D.

Secondary_Path-4

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT a goal of BGP routing policies?

Options:

A.

To protect external networks from instability.

B.

To communicate the architecture of an AS to external ASs.

C.

To protect the local AS and other external ASs from bad NLRI.

D.

To optimize ingress and egress traffic patterns to best serve the users of the AS.

Question 19

Which of the following comparisons between E-pipes and VPLSes is FALSE?

Options:

A.

They both function as a Layer 2 switch from the service provider's perspective.

B.

They both support SAP encapsulations of null, dot1Q and Q-in-Q.

C.

They both use SAPs as the demarcation point between the customer and the provider.

D.

MAC addresses are learned by VPLSes, but not by E-pipes.

Question 20

Which of the following statements regarding Internet Exchange Points is FALSE?

Options:

A.

They provide both peering and transit services.

B.

They provide services only to Tier 1 service providers.

C.

They can be either public or private.

D.

They provide services at the local, regional and continental levels.

Question 21

Which of the following about LDP sessions is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Frame mode requires multiple sessions between peers.

B.

The lower transport address initiates the session.

C.

Established LDP sessions run over a TCP connection.

D.

An LDP session is established immediately after Init messages are exchanged between peers.

Question 22

Which of the following about the components of a distributed service on the Nokia 7750 SR is TRUE?

as

Options:

A.

A SAP can only be used by one service on a router.

B.

A dedicated SDP needs to be created for each service.

C.

A service is created on each site before the customer is created.

D.

SAPs must be created before a service is created.

Question 23

What is the metric and maximum routable value for RIP?

Options:

A.

Hop count and 16

B.

Hop count and 15

C.

Link cost and 15

D.

Link cost and 16

Question 24

Which MPLS label mode saves label mappings received from all peer LSRs?

Options:

A.

Conservative label retention

B.

Liberal label retention

C.

Downstream on demand

D.

Downstream unsolicited

Question 25

What are some of the characteristics of Nokia's implementation of non-stop routing? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

No protocol extensions required

B.

Only supported by OSPF and IS-IS

C.

Transparent to routing neighbors

D.

Uses Graceful Restart to inter-operate with other vendors

Question 26

On which object is ADSPEC enabled?

Options:

A.

SDP

B.

Network port

C.

LSP

D.

Service

E.

RSVP

Question 27

Click on the exhibit.

as

The route table on router R2 shows the system address of router R5 but it does not show any of the interfaces from the non-OSPF area.

What may be causing this?

Options:

A.

'asbr' is missing from router R1's configuration.

B.

Router R1 needs to have an export policy added to it.

C.

Router R5 does not have an export policy for these prefixes.

D.

Router R1 needs to have an import policy added to it.

Question 28

Click the exhibit.

as

Over which BGP session will router B learn the 10.1.1.0/24 prefix?

Options:

A.

The session between router A and router B.

B.

The session between router C and router B.

C.

The session between router D and router B.

D.

Router B will learn the prefix over all of the sessions, then it will choose the best route.

Question 29

Which of the following is a characteristic of LDP Hello messages?

Options:

A.

They are multicast to the All Hosts address.

B.

They are broadcast to the subnet broadcast address.

C.

They are multicast to the All Routers address.

D.

They are broadcast or multicast, depending on the physical media.

Question 30

By default, how does a VPLS handle a tagged frame received at the ingress of a null SAP on an Nokia 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

The FCS is verified and kept in the customer frame. The VLAN tag is kept and transported over the network.

B.

The FCS is verified and kept in the customer frame. The VLAN tag is removed for transport over the network.

C.

The FCS is verified and removed from the frame. The VLAN tag is kept and transported over the network.

D.

The FCS is verified and removed from the frame. The VLAN tag is removed for transport over the network.

Question 31

Click the exhibit button.

as

192.168.3.1 is a loopback interface on router R2 and is distributed to OSPF area 0, but the ping fails from router R3. Which of the following is a possible solution to the problem?

Options:

A.

Add the "originate-default-route" option in the NSSA area configuration on router R3

B.

Add the "summaries" option to the NSSA area configuration on router R1

C.

Make a static route on router R1 to 192.168.3.1

D.

Make a default route on router R2

Question 32

Click the exhibit.

as

Router R2 receives a route to 192.168.1.0/27 from router R4, and sets the local preference to 110. Router R1 receives a route to 192.168.1.0/27 from router R3, and sets the local preference to 80. Both ASs have a full iBGP mesh. What path does traffic destined to 192.168.1.0/27 take from router R1?

Options:

A.

R1-R3-R8

B.

R1-R2-R4-R8

C.

R1-R3-R4-R8

D.

R1-R2-R4-R3-R8

Question 33

Click the exhibit.

as

The CEs use BGP and export policies to advertise their local prefixes with the VPRN on their PEs. If the VPRN is functioning properly, which of the following commands will succeed when performed on router R1?

Options:

A.

"ping 192.168.20.1"

B.

"oam vprn-ping 100 source 192.168.10.1 destination 192.168.20.1"

C.

"oam vprn-ping 100 source 192.168.20.1 destination 192.168.10.1"

D.

"ping 10.10.10.6" (router R6's system IP)

Question 34

A router receives an OSPF database description packet from a neighbor that references an LSA, which is already in the router's LSDB. The sequence number in the DBD packet is lower than the sequence number of the LSA in the LSDB.

What action does the router take?

Options:

A.

The router sends a link-state update to its neighbor.

B.

The router sends a link-state acknowledgement to its neighbor.

C.

The router updates the information in its LSDB with the information received from its neighbor.

D.

The router sends a link-state request to its neighbor.

E.

The router takes no action.

Question 35

Which of the following about the Nokia 7750 SR sdp-ping is TRUE?

Options:

A.

It tests the IGP reachability of the far-end IP address of an SDP.

B.

It tests that the MTU settings of a service are correct.

C.

It tests in-band, uni-directional or round-trip connectivity of SDPs.

D.

It tests the reachability of hosts connected to an SDP.

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of MPLS?

Options:

A.

It provides the ability to establish connection oriented paths over a connectionless IP network.

B.

It provides a mechanism to engineer network traffic patterns independently of IP routing tables.

C.

It will work over most physical layer protocols.

D.

It can use GRE tunnels to transport data from many different protocols over an IP network.

Question 37

What kind of attribute is the aggregator?

Options:

A.

Well-known mandatory

B.

Well-known discretionary

C.

Optional transitive

D.

Optional non-transitive

Question 38

Which of the following is TRUE when the explicit null is implemented?

Options:

A.

The penultimate router will forward packets to the eLER, based on the IP header.

B.

The eLER will receive packets with a top label value of 0.

C.

The eLER will receive packets with a top label value of 3.

D.

The penultimate router will pop the top label from the packets.

Question 39

Which of the following is NOT considered an option of export policies?

Options:

A.

Advertising customer networks into BGP.

B.

Sending aggregates that summarize the AS s address space.

C.

Sending MEDs to influence ingress traffic from peers.

D.

Preventing unwanted NLRI from entering the AS.

Question 40

Click the exhibit button.

as

If router R2 redistributes the IS-IS route to 192.168.3.0/24 into OSPF, router R3 preference of these two routes? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

The OSPF internal preference

B.

The IS-IS Level 1 internal preference

C.

The IS-IS Level 2 internal preference

D.

The OSPF external preference

E.

The IS-IS Level 2 external preference

F.

The IS-IS Level 1 external preference

Question 41

On an Nokia 7750 SR, what is the recommended approach for making sure that MTUs between a VPLS and its spoke IES termination match?

Options:

A.

Set the service MTU of the VPLS to match the IES MTU.

B.

Set the ip-mtu of the IES to match the service MTU of the VPLS.

C.

Set the SDP MTU of the IES to match the SDP MTU of the VPLS.

D.

Set the MTU of the IES's network port to match the service MTU of the VPLS.

Question 42

From what range are 16-bit private AS numbers selected?

Options:

A.

64496 – 64511

B.

1 – 56319

C.

64512-65534

D.

64513-65535

E.

There are no defined private AS numbers; there are only private IP addresses.

Question 43

An SDP using GRE encapsulation is configured for an E-pipe service. The network port used by the SDP has an MTU of 8000. What value does the SDP path MTU have by default on an Nokia 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

7958

B.

7978

C.

8022

D.

8042

Question 44

Click on the exhibit.

as

An LDP tunnel is established on R1-R2-R4-R6 because the link between routers R3 and R6 is down. With the LDP-IGP Sync feature enabled, what happens immediately after the link is restored?

Options:

A.

A new LDP session is established on R1-R3-R6 as soon as the FIB is updated.

B.

The LDP session remains unchanged until the existing path R1-R2-R4-R6 goes down.

C.

A new LDP session is established on R1-R3-R6 as soon as router R1 receives a new label for router R6.

D.

The LDP session remains unchanged until router R3 stops advertising the maximum metric for the link to router R6.

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Total 298 questions