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Oracle Database Administration II Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager to write backups to tape when there are only two tape drives? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SBT tape compression can be used even if no RMAN compression is configured.

B.

Any backup set written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup pieces.

C.

Any backup written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup sets.

D.

SBT tape compression and RMAN backup compression should be used in parallel.

E.

The SBT device should be configured to use PARALLELISM 2 to allow both tape drive to be used simultaneously.

Question 2

Which two are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Orcale 18c? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is an Oracle Database service

B.

It cannot be used to upgrade Oracle Database homes.

C.

It can be used to provision applications.

D.

It can be used to patch Grid Infrastructure homes containing Oracle Restart.

E.

It can be used to provision middleware.

Question 3

Which three are true about Database Point-in-Time Recovery? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

The database must have FLASHBACK DATABASE ON to perform Database Point-in-Time Recovery.

B.

The database must be in MOUNT state when performing Database Point-in-Time Recovery.

C.

Database Point-in-Time Recovery is performed by the Managed Recovery Process (MRP)

D.

The Database must be in ARCHIVE LOG mode.

E.

The target point for the recovery must be specified as a stime or System Change Number (SCN).

F.

The database must be open RESETLOGS after Database Point-in-Time Recovery.

Question 4

Which two are true about Oracle instance recovery? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Recovery begins from the beginning of the CURRENT redo log group.

B.

Recovery begins from the last checkpoint position that was calculated by the Database Writer before instance failure.

C.

Recovery begins from the start of any ACTIVE redo log group or the start of the CURRENT log group if no other group is ACTIVE.

D.

Recovery reads redo until the end of the redo thread. SMON rolls back any dead transactions, and then the datanase is opened.

E.

Recovery begins from the last checkpoint position that was recorded in the control file by the checkpoint process (CKPT).

F.

Recovery reads redo until the end of the redo thread, and then opens the database. SMON then rolls back any dead transactions.

Question 5

Choose three. Which three activities are possible for PDBs?

Options:

A.

converting an application seed to an application PDB

B.

converting a regular PDB to an application PDB

C.

converting an application PDB to an application root

D.

copying an application container into another application container in the same CDB

E.

copying an application container into another application container in a different CDB

F.

converting an application PDB to an application seed G) converting an application PDB to a regular PDB

Question 6

Choose two. Which two are true about Lockdown profiles in a container database (CDB) and its pluggable databases (PDBs)?

Options:

A.

A Lockdown profile created from a base Lockdown profile is always automatically modified if the profile on which it is based is modified.

B.

A PDB Lockdown profile can be created in an application root.

C.

A Lockdown profile created from a base Lockdown profile is never automatically modified if the profile on which it is based is modified.

D.

A PDB Lockdown profile can be created in a regular PDB.

E.

A PDB Lockdown profile can be created in CDB$ROOT .

Question 7

Choose two. You plan to perform cross-platform PDB transport using XTTS. Which two are true?

Options:

A.

Automatic conversion of endianess occurs.

B.

The source and target platforms must have the same endianess.

C.

The source PDB can be in MOUNT or OPEN state.

D.

The source PDB must not be an application root.

E.

The source PDB must be in MOUNT state.

F.

A backup of the PDB must exist, taken using the BACKUP command with the To PLATFORM clause.

Question 8

Choose three. Which three capabilities require the use of the RMAN recovery catalog?

Options:

A.

using RMAN stored scripts

B.

creating encrypted backups

C.

creating customized reports about a single database's backups

D.

using the REPORT SCHEMA command to list a database's data files and tablespaces at times in the past

E.

using the KEEP FOREVER clause with the BACKUP command

F.

using the REPORT SCHEMA command to list a database's current data files and tablespaces

Question 9

Which three are true about managing memory components in an Oracle database instance? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Large Pool size by reducing the Shared Pool size.

B.

With Automatic Memory Management, the database instance can increase the System Global Area size by reducing the Program Global Area size.

C.

Automatically tuned and resized System Global Area components will always revert to their initial sizes after an instance restart.

D.

Automatic Memory Management must be used together with locking the System Global Area into physical memory.

E.

With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Program Global Area size by reducing the System Global Area size.

F.

On Line Transaction Processing systems often use less Program Global Area than Decision Support Systems.

Question 10

Which three can be done using Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) starting from Oracle Database 19c? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

cloning a remote container database in interactive mode

B.

cloning a remote pluggable database in silent mode

C.

relocating a remote pluggable database in interactive mode

D.

relocating a remote container database in silent mode

E.

cloning a remote container database in silent mode

F.

relocating a remote pluggable database in silent mode

G.

relocating a remote container database in interactive mode.

Question 11

Choose two. Which two are true about the SQL Tuning Advisor?

Options:

A.

It can recommend semantic changes to SQL statements.

B.

It prevents performance regressions for SQL statements when changes are made.

C.

It checks each query being analyzed for missing or stale statistics.

D.

It considers all SQL statements being analyzed by the advisor task as a group.

E.

It only recommends syntactic changes to SQL statements.

Question 12

Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR), Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM), and the Manageability Monitor (MMON) background process? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

ADDM can recommend shrinking the buffer cache.

B.

ADDM can recommend extending the buffer cache.

C.

By default, MMON creates an AWR snapshot every 30 minutes.

D.

ADDM performs its analysis only when a DBA requests it.

E.

By default, AWR snapshots are automatically purged after eight days.

F.

AWR snapshots must be deleted when no longer required by ADDM.

Question 13

Examine the statements that use flashback technologies:

FLASHBACK TABLE customers TO TIMESTAMP TO_TIMESTAMP('2013-02-04 09:30:00', 'YYYYMM¬DD HH:MI:SS');

SELECT * FROM customers AS OF SCN 123456;

FLASHBACK TABLE customers TO BEFORE DROP;

FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP TO_TIMESTAMP('2013-02-04 09:30:00', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH:MI:SS');

SELECT * FROM customers VERSIONS BETWEEN SCN 123456 AND 123999;

ALTER TABLE customers FLASHBACK ARCHIVE; Which set ofstatements depends on the availability of relevant undo data in the undo tablespace?

Options:

A.

1,3,6

B.

1,2,5

C.

3,4,5

D.

2,3,5,6

Question 14

Which three are true about the SQL Tuning Advisor? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

It checks each query being analyzed for stale statistics.

B.

It checks each query being analyzed for missing statistics.

C.

It only recommends syntactic changes to SQL statements.

D.

It can recommend semantic changes to SQL statements.

E.

It considers all SQL statements being analyzed by the advisor task as a group.

F.

It builds SQL profiles for each poorly performing SQL statement to prevent regressions.

Question 15

Which two are true about creating pluggable databases (PDBs) using snapshots in Oracle 19c and later releases? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A PDB snapshot is always a full copy of the source PDB.

B.

A PDB snapshot is always a sparse copy of the source PDB.

C.

A snapshot copy PDB depends on a storage snapshot which can only be stored on specific file systems.

D.

A PDB snapshot depends on a storage snapshot which can be stored on any file system.

E.

A PDB snapshot depends on a storage snapshot which can only be stored on specific file systems.

F.

A snapshot copy PDB depends on a storage snapshot which can be stored on any file system.

G.

A snapshot copy PDB can be created from a stand-alone clone PDB.

Question 16

Choose three. Which three are true about SGA memory management in a multitenant database?

Options:

A.

SGA_MIN_SIZE cannot be set for a PDB.

B.

Setting SHARED_POOL_SIZE for a PDB guarantees a minimum amount of Shared Pool memory for that PDB.

C.

Setting SGA_TARGET for a PDB guarantees a minimum amount of SGA memory for that PDB.

D.

The SHARED_POOL_SIZE setting for a PDB can be up to 80% of the SHARED_POOL_SIZE setting of the root container.

E.

Setting DB_CACHE_SIZE for a PDB guarantees a minimum amount of Database Buffer Cache memory for that PDB.

F.

The SGA_TARGET setting for a PDB cannot exceed 50% of the SGA_TARGET value of the root container.

Question 17

Choose two. Which two are true in Oracle 19c and later releases?

Options:

A.

Schema Only accounts can be granted administrator privileges.

B.

If the password file location changes, then the instance must be restarted.

C.

Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued directly by an audited user.

D.

All the Oracle-supplied accounts are Schema Only accounts.

E.

Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued indirectly by all users

Question 18

Choose three. Which three are true about the tools for diagnosing Oracle Database failure situations?

Options:

A.

RMAN can always repair corrupt blocks.

B.

Flashback commands help with repairing physical errors.

C.

The ADR can store metadata in an Oracle Database repository.

D.

The Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) has a separate home directory for each instance of each Oracle product that is installed and uses it.

E.

The ADR command-line utility (ADRCI) can package incident information to send to Oracle Support.

F.

The Data Recovery Advisor uses the ADR.

Question 19

Which four are true about duplicating a database using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Duplication can be done by having the auxiliary database instance pull backup sets from the target database instance.

B.

A connection to an auxiliary instance is always required.

C.

A subset of the target database can be duplicated.

D.

A new DBID is always created for the duplicated database.

E.

A connection to the recovery catalog instance is always required.

F.

A backup of the target database is always required.

G.

Duplication can be done by having the target database instance push copies to the auxiliary database instance.

Question 20

Which two are true about data movement between a non-CDB and a PDB using Data Pump? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Tablespaces are automatically created as need while importing full exports in either a non-CDB or a PDB.

B.

Oracle attempts to convert conventional database users to local users when moving schemas from a non-CDB to a PDB.

C.

A new PDB is automatically created when importing a non-CDB into a CDB.

D.

Oracle attempts to convert common users to conventional users when moving schemas from a PDB to a non-CDB.

E.

Moving data from a PDB to a non-CDB is only possible by using transportable tablespace export and import.

F.

Moving data from a non-CDB to a PDB is only possible by using conventional export and import.

Question 21

Which two statements are true when row archival management is enabled?

Options:

A.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column visibility is controlled by the ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter.

B.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that could reference activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.

C.

The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows only.

D.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if referenced in the select list of a query.

E.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the Oracle Server based on activity tracking columns, to Indicate that a row is no longer considered active. Correct

Question 22

Which three RMAN persistent settings can be set for a database?

Options:

A.

backup retention policy

B.

default backup device type

C.

default section size for backups

D.

default destinations for backups

E.

multiple backup device types for a single backup

Question 23

Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is a container database. 2. COMMON_USER_PREFIX is C##. 3. PDB1 is a pluggable database contained in CDB1. 4. APP1_ROOTis an application container contained in CDB1. 5. APP1_PDB1 is an application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT. You execute these commands successfully: Which two are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

APP1_USER1can be created in PDB1.

B.

APP1_USER1can be created in CDB1.

C.

APP1_USER1 can have different privileges in each Application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT.

D.

C##_APP_USER1 can be created in CDB1.

E.

P1_USER1can be created in CDB1.

F.

C##_USER1will have the same privileges and roles granted in all PDBs in CDB1.

Question 24

Which two are true about flashback features in Oracle Database 19c and later releases? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Flashback logs are automatically purged when DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is set lower than the time they have already been retained.

B.

Flashback logs are monitored and proactively deleted when beyond the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET only after there is space pressure.

C.

Flashback logs are monitored and proactively deleted when beyond the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET before there is space pressure.

D.

Flashback logs are monitored for being older than the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET and can be deleted by an administrator written event trigger.

E.

Flashback logs are automatically purged whenever the value of DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is changed.

Question 25

Which three are true about performing an Oracle Database install on Linux? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

The runfixup.sh script can install missing RPMs.

B.

The Oracle Preinstallation RPM must be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group

C.

It allows you to select the languages supported by the Oracle database server.

D.

It can be done before installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server

E.

The Oracle Preinstallation RPM can be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group

F.

It can be done after installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server.

G.

The Oracle database administrator must be granted access to the root operating system account to run root privileged scripts.

Question 26

Choose three. Which three are true about recovering tables using RMAN?

Options:

A.

RMAN can recover tables owned by the SYSTEM user.

B.

RMAN can recover tables owned by the SYS user.

C.

RMAN can recover tables in the SYSTEM tablespace.

D.

RMAN always uses an auxiliary instance.

E.

RMAN can recover a table after a DDL operation has altered the table structure.

F.

RMAN can recover tables in the SYSAUX tablespace.

G.

RMAN can recover tables in a standby database.

Question 27

Choose three. Which three are true about Audit policies in container databases (CDBs)?

Options:

A.

All audit records are written to the audit trail in CDB$ROOT .

B.

Application-common unified audit policies defined in an application root must be manually synchronized by each application PDB contained in the application root.

C.

Fine-grained auditing policies defined in an application root must be manually synchronized by each application PDB contained in the application root.

D.

A common unified audit policy can be created at the CDB level.

E.

A common unified audit policy can be created at the application root level.

F.

An application PDB cannot have a local audit policy.

Question 28

Choose three. Which three are true about Data Pump in an Oracle multitenant environment?

Options:

A.

It can be used to transport data from a non-CDB to a PDB.

B.

It can be used to clone a CDB.

C.

It can be used to transport data between PDBs.

D.

It can be used to transport data from a PDB to a non-CDB.

E.

It can be used to create a new PDB.

Question 29

Choose three. Which three are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Oracle 18c?

Options:

A.

It can be used to deploy Grid Infrastructure homes, including Oracle Restart.

B.

It can be used to deploy Oracle Database homes.

C.

It is an Oracle Database service.

D.

It cannot be used to provision applications.

E.

It cannot be used to provision middleware.

F.

It is an Oracle Grid Infrastructure service.

Question 30

Examine this configuration:

1. CDB1 is a container database.

2. PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.

3. PDB1 and PDB2 are OPEN in READ WRITE mode.

You execute these commands successfully: Which two are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Uncommitted transactions in PDB1 have been rolled back.

B.

PDB1 is closed.

C.

Uncommitted transactions in CDB1 and PDB1 have been rolled back.

D.

CDB1 is shut down.

E.

CDB1 is in MOUNT state

Question 31

Choose two. Which two are true about diagnosing Oracle Database failure situations using Data Recovery Advisor?

Options:

A.

Data Recovery Advisor can proactively check for failures.

B.

Using the Data Recovery Advisor LIST FAILURE command always requires that the database for which failures are to be listed is in MOUNT state.

C.

ata Recovery Advisor can be used if a database is in the NOMOUNT state.

D.

A failure can be closed only if the database is in MOUNT state.

E.

Data Recovery Advisor can be used if a database is closed.

Question 32

.Examine the RMAN command: RMAN> CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR DATABASE ON; RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG; Which prerequisite must be met before accomplishing the backup?

Options:

A.

The password for the encryption must be set up.

B.

Oracle wallet for the encryption must be set up.

C.

All the tablespaces in the database must be encrypted

D.

Oracle Database Vault must be enabled.

Question 33

Application PDBs, SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2, must be created and they must access common tables of the SALES APP application. Examine these steps:

Install the SALES_APP application, induding the common tables, in the application root.

Install the SALES_APP application in the application root and the common tables in both the CDB root and the application root.

Create an application seed.

Install the SALES_APP application in the application seed.

Create the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs.

Sync the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs with the application root.

Sync the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs with the application seed.

Sync the application seed with the application root. Which are the minimum required steps in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

1,3,5,7

B.

2,5,6

C.

1,5,6

D.

3,4,1.6,8

E.

1,3,5,6,7

Question 34

Choose two. You want to install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server using Oracle Universal Installer (OUI). There is no existing Oracle installation on the server. Which two are prerequisites?

Options:

A.

an operating system user to own this installation

B.

the Oracle Inventory group oinstall

C.

an operating system account called grid

D.

a group called dba

E.

the installation of Oracle ASMLIB

Question 35

Choose three. In which three situations can you use threshold server-generated alerts to help diagnose and fix problems?

Options:

A.

when free space in a dictionary managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

B.

when free space in a locally managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

C.

when the total number of locked user account exceeds a specific value

D.

when the number of logons per second exceeds a specific value

E.

when a resumable statement is suspended

F.

when the total number of logons exceeds a specific value

Question 36

Which statement describes the significance of the CHANGE FAILURE command in RMAN? (Choose all that apply.)

Options:

A.

It is used to change failure priority only for HIGH or LOW priorities.

B.

It is used to execute the advised repair script.

C.

It is used to change failure priority only for the CRITICAL priority.

D.

It is used to explicitly close the open failures.

E.

It is used to inform the database about the repair after the repair script executes.

Question 37

Choose two. Which two are true about reclaiming space used by Flashback logs in Oracle Database 19c and later releases?

Options:

A.

Space might be reclaimed proactively before space pressure occurs.

B.

Space is always reclaimed proactively before space pressure occurs.

C.

Space might be reclaimed automatically when the retention period for Flashback logs is lowered.

D.

Space is always reclaimed automatically when the retention period for Flashback logs is lowered.

E.

Space is only reclaimed when there is space pressure in the Fast Recovery Area (FRA).

Question 38

Which two are true about the execution of operating system scripts starting from Oracle Database 19c? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

orainstRoot.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer by using sudo or root credentials.

B.

root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database Installer only if it is provided with root credentials.

C.

The sudo password can be specified in a response file.

D.

root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer only by using sudo credentials.

E.

The sudo password must be specified in a response file.

F.

The root password cannot be specified in a response file.

Question 39

Choose three. You issued this command: RMAN> BACKUP RECOVERY AREA FORCE; Which three are true?

Options:

A.

All files in any previous FRA that have not yet been backed up, are backed up.

B.

All files in the current fast recovery area (FRA) that have not yet been backed up, are backed up. C)All files in the current FRA that have been backed up already, are backed up.

C.

All Oracle recovery files normally written to the FRA and which have been backed up already to the current FRA, are backed up.

D.

All files in any previous FRA that have been backed up already, are backed up.

E.

All Oracle recovery files normally written to the FRA and which have not yet been backed, are backed up.

F.

All Oracle recovery files normally written to the FRA and which have been backed up already to in any previous FRA, are backed up.

Question 40

Which two are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled?

Options:

A.

Reduced logical I/O

B.

Reduced virtual memory utilization

C.

Improved Serial Execution performance

D.

Reduced physical I/O

E.

Reduced CPU utilization

Question 41

Choose three. Which three are true about corrupted data blocks and their recovery in an Oracle Database?

Options:

A.

If a row lock is held by a nonexistent transaction, the block containing the row is media corrupt.

B.

DB_BLOCK_CHECKING=TRUE causes a check sum to be added to each data block to help detect physical or media corruption.

C.

A media corrupt block is one where the block is not formatted correctly.

D.

The ANALYZE TABLE VALIDATE STRUCTURE CASCADE command verifies that each table row has an index entry pointing to it.

E.

If a row lock is held by a nonexistent transaction, the block containing the row is logically corrupt.

F.

DB_LOST_WRITE_PROTECT=TYPICAL causes extra logging overhead on the standby database.

Question 42

Which two are true about duplicating pluggable databases (PDBs) with RMAN? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Two or more PDBs can be duplicated with the same RMAN DUPLICATE command.

B.

All tablespaces belonging to a PDB must be duplicated when duplicating the PDB.

C.

The auxiliary instance is automatically created with ENABLE_PLUGGABLE_DATABASE = TRUE.

D.

A user with SYSDBA or SYSBACKUP must be logged in with RMAN to the PDB to duplicate it.

E.

CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are automatically duplicated.

Question 43

choose three Which three are true about RMAN duplexed backup sets or image copies?

Options:

A.

A backup set may be duplexed with both copies written to disk.

B.

An image copy on disk can be copied to disk.

C.

A backup set may be duplexed with both copies written to sbt.

D.

A backup set may be duplexed so that one copy is written to sbt and the other to disk.

E.

An image copy on disk can be copied to sbt.

F.

An image copy on sbt can be copied to disk.

Question 44

Which three are true in Oracle 19c and later releases? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

If the password file location changes, then the new location is used automatically by the Oracle Server.

B.

Schema Only accounts can be granted administrator privileges.

C.

All the Oracle-supplied accounts are Schema Only accounts.

D.

Privilege Analysisisincluded in Oracle Enterprise Edition and no longer requires Database Vault. E) Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued indirectly by an audited user.

E.

Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued directly by an audited user.

Question 45

Choose two. A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode. A full RMAN backup exists but no control file backup to trace has been taken. A media failure has occurred. In which two scenarios is incomplete recovery required?

Options:

A.

after losing all members of the CURRENT online redo log group

B.

after losing all copies of the control file

C.

after losing an UNDO tablespace that is in use

D.

after losing all members of an INACTIVE online redo log group

E.

after losing a SYSAUX tablespace data file

Question 46

What is the effect of specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE" clause in a "CREATE DATABASE" statement?

Options:

A.

It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.

B.

ItwillcreateaCDBwithrootopenedandseedreadonly.

C.

It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.

D.

It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.

E.

ItwillcreateaCDBwithrootopenedandseedmounted.

Question 47

In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high number of buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally managed tablespaces with free list managed segments. On further investigation, you f ind that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks. Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?

Options:

A.

Decreasing PCTUSED

B.

Decreasing PCTFREE

C.

Increasing the number of DBWN process

D.

Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)

E.

Increasing db_buffer_cache based on t he V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation

Question 48

choose two Examine these RMAN commands: RMAN> CONNECT TARGET "sbu@prod AS SYSBACKUP"; RMAN> CONNECT AUXILIARY "sbu@dup_db AS SYSBACKUP"; RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dup_db FROM ACTIVE DATABASE PASSWORD FILE SECTION SIZE 400M; Which two statements are true about the DUPLICATE command?

Options:

A.

It succeeds.

B.

It fails because no parallel channels are allocated for the auxiliary database.

C.

It fails because connection to the AUXILIARY instance must be as SYSDBA.

D.

Itsucceeds only if the target database is greater than 400M.

E.

No catalogued backup of the TARGET is used to duplicate the database.

Question 49

Which three are true about requirements for various FLASHBACK operations? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

FLASHBACK transaction query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.

B.

FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.

C.

FLASHBACK version query requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.

D.

FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE requires undo to store all versions of all rows of a table being tracked.

E.

FLASHBACK drop requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed two points in time.

F.

FLASHBACK version query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.

Question 50

Which four are true about a Recovery Manager (RMAN) duplication without a TARGET connection? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

The NOREDO clause must be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in NOARCHIVELOG mode.

B.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the TARGET instance.

C.

RMAN “pushes” the backups of the database to be duplicated over the network to the auxiliary instance.

D.

The NOREDO clause can be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in ARCHIVE LOG mode.

E.

RMAN SBT-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance.

F.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is closed.

G.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is opened.

Question 51

Choose two. Which two are prerequisites for using FLASHBACK TABLE?

Options:

A.

A table's constraints must be disabled before issuing the flashback.

B.

The FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege or the FLASHBACK object privilege must be granted to the user performing the flashback.

C.

Row Movement must be enabled on the table being flashed back.

D.

A table's indexes must be set to unusable before issuing the flashback.

E.

The FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege or the FLASHBACK object privilege must be granted to the table owner.

Question 52

Choose three. Which three are true about patchsets?

Options:

A.

They are installed via OPatch or OPatchAuto.

B.

A base release is not needed to install patchsets.

C.

They can be applied in a rolling fashion for Clusterware and the databases.

D.

Installing a patchset is considered an "upgrade."

E.

They can introduce new features.

F.

They are only released quarterly.

Question 53

Choose two. Which two are true about gathering optimizer statistics?

Options:

A.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics only in PDB$SEED.

B.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics only in CDB$ROOT.

C.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open pluggable databases (PDBs).

D.

System statistics can be gathered only while the CDB is in MOUNT state.

E.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to a PDB opened in read/ write mode gathers object statistics for that PDB.

Question 54

Choose three. In a single-instance, multitenant container database (CDB), which three are only ever defined in or part of CDB$ROOT?

Options:

A.

redo logs

B.

control files

C.

all data dictionary metadata

D.

user-defined PL/SQL packages

E.

temporary tablespaces

F.

mandatory Oracle-supplied PL/SQL packages

G.

undo tablespaces

Question 55

Choose the best answer. Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is a container database. 2. APP_ROOT is an application root in CDB1. 3. APP_PDB1 is an application PDB in APP_ROOT. 4. FLASHBACK DATABASE is ON. You execute these commands: $ sqlplus sys/orac1e_4U@localhost:1521/cdb1 SQL> SELECT current_scn FROM v$database; CURRENT_SCN -----------------------2074756 SQL> CREATE TABLE cdb1_tab(c1 NUMBER) ; Table created. SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=app_root; Session altered. SQL> CREATE TABLE app_root_tab (c1 NUMBER) ; Table created. SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=app_pdb1; Session altered. SQL> CREATE TABLE app_pdb1_tab (c1 NUMBER) ; Table created. SQL> conn / as sysdba Connected. SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE app_root CLOSE; Pluggable database altered. SQL> FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE app_root TO SCN 2074756; Flashback complete. Which table or set of tables will exist after the Flashback operation has completed?

Options:

A.

CDB1_TAB, APP_ROOT_TAB, and APP_PDB1_TAB

B.

CDB1_TAB and APP_PDB1_TAB

C.

CDB1_TAB and APP_ROOT_TAB

D.

CDB1_TAB only

E.

none of the tables, because all three tables will be dropped

Question 56

Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is a container database. 2. PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1. You execute these commands successfully: Which two are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PDB1 and PDB2 are in MOUNT state.

B.

Redo logs are opened.

C.

PDB1 and PDB2 are in READ ONLY state.

D.

CDB$ROOT is in MOUNT state.

E.

PDB$SEED is in READ ONLY state.

Question 57

Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

All metrics are instance related.

B.

Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.

C.

A space usage management alert is automatically cleared after the underlying problem is resolved

D.

They are generated by SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.

E.

Metrics are statistical counts for a specific unit.

F.

STATISTICS_LEVEL must be set to ALL to generate alerts.

Question 58

Choose three. Which three are true about Recovery Manager (RMAN) active database duplication?

Options:

A.

Pre-existing backups of the database to be duplicated are required for the "push" method of duplication.

B.

Pre-existing backups of the database to be duplicated are required for the "pull" method of duplication.

C.

Pre-existing backups of the database to be duplicated are always used if they exist.

D.

Image copies can be used to duplicate the active database.

E.

The active database must be duplicated while in OPEN state.

F.

No connection to the recovery catalog is required for active database duplication.

G.

Backup sets can be used to duplicate the active database.

Question 59

Which three are true about backup, restore, and recovery operations done without using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Backing up a database in NOARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the databased be in the MOUNT state.

B.

Backing up a database in ARCHIVE LOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the database be in MOUNT state.

C.

An Oracle database can be restored from backup files copied using O/S utilities.

D.

Oracle data file backups, copied using an O/S utility, can be added to the RMAN catalog as IMAGE COPIES.

E.

Backing up a database in NOARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be shut down.

F.

Oracle archive log backups, copied using an O/S utility, can be added to the RMAN catalog as a backup set.

G.

Backing up a database in ARCHIVE LOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the database be in OPEN state.

Question 60

choose three Which three are true about unified auditing in full mode?

Options:

A.

The unified audit trail is written to a read-only table.

B.

The unified audit trail is written to a read-only external file.

C.

Audit records are created for COMMIT, ROLLBACK, and SAVEPOINT statements.

D.

Audit records are created for SYS.

E.

Audit records are created for non-sys users.

Question 61

Choose the best answer. Which operating system group is NOT needed to perform an Oracle Database installation?

Options:

A.

OSASM

B.

OSRACDBA

C.

OSKMDBA

D.

OSDBA

E）OSOPER

Question 62

Choose two. Which two are true about a read-only Oracle home?

Options:

A.

It is enabled by performing a software-only Oracle Database installation and then running the roohctl ¬enable script.

B.

It requires the Rapid Home Provisioning service.

C.

Its configuration data and log files reside in subdirectories under the Oracle home.

D.

It is enabled by performing an Oracle Database installation with database creation and then running the roohctl -enable script.

E.

It contains an image that can be distributed across multiple servers.

Question 63

Choose three. Which three actions are mandatory post database upgrade?

Options:

A.

Updating client scripts with the new Oracle home.

B.

Resetting passwords to enforce case-sensitivity.

C.

Run OPatch commands from the new Oracle home.

D.

Setting threshold values for tablespace alerts.

E.

Migration to unified auditing.

F.

Upgrading user tables that depend on Oracle-maintained abstract data types.

Question 64

Choose three. Which three are true about RMAN archival backups with the RESTORE POINT clause?

Options:

A.

They are never considered obsolete by RMAN.

B.

They can optionally be written to a fast recovery area (FRA).

C.

All archive logs are retained after an archival backup is taken, until the next archival backup is taken of the same database.

D.

Archive logs are retained if they are necessary to allow the database to be recovered to a consistent state when an archival backup is restored.

E.

The SPFILE is included in the archival backup.

F.

Use of a recovery catalog is always required to support the creation and use of archival backups. G)The ARCHIVAL attribute for a backup overrides the RMAN retention policy.

Question 65

Choose three. Which three are true about block media recovery?

Options:

A.

To use it, Flashback Database must be enabled.

B.

A block being recovered is not accessible.

C.

It cannot repair logical corruption.

D.

It can be performed on noncorrupt blocks.

E.

The target database for which one or more blocks are to be recovered must be in the OPEN state.

F.

The data file containing the block being recovered remains online.

Question 66

Choose the best answer You want to create a duplicate database DUP_DB from your production database PROD on the same host. The PROD database uses Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storage. Regular backups are taken using RMAN connected to a recovery catalog. You create an auxiliary instance and want to execute the command: RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dup_db FROM ACTIVE DATABASE; What is a prerequisite for the successful execution of this command

Options:

A.

RMAN must be connected to the target database instance and the auxiliary instance.

B.

A most recent backup set of the PROD database must exist.

C.

Flashback must be enabled for the PROD database.

D.

The target database must be in MOUNT state.

Question 67

Choose the best answer. Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is an Oracle container database from an older release. 2. PDB1, PDB2, PDB3, and PDB4 are pluggable databases in CDB1. A priority list UpgrdList has these entries: 1, pdb2 2, pdb1, pdb3 You execute this command: $ /u01/app/oracle/product/18.1.0/ db_1/rdbms/admin/dbupgrade -L UpgrdList In which order will the upgrade occur?

Options:

A.

CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, PDB2, PDB1, PDB3, and PDB4

B.

CDB$ROOT, PDB2, PDB1, and PDB3

C.

CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, PDB2, PDB1, and PDB3

D.

CDB$ROOT, PDB1, PDB2, PDB3, and PDB4

E.

CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, PDB1, PDB3, PDB2, and PDB4

Question 68

Choose three. Which three are true about using an RMAN Recovery Catalog with a pluggable database (PDB) target connection in Oracle Database 19c and later releases?

Options:

A.

The base catalog owner must give the Virtual Private Catalog access to metadata for one or more PDBs.

B.

The target PDB must be registered in both the base catalog and the Virtual Private Catalog.

C.

The base catalog must be used by RMAN when performing point-in-time recovery for the PDB registered in the Virtual Private Catalog.

D.

The base catalog must be enabled for Virtual Private Catalog use.

E.

The target PDB must be registered in a Virtual Private Catalog.

F.

The target PDB must be registered in a base catalog.

Question 69

choose two Which two are benefits of unified auditing in full mode?

Options:

A.

All audit data is written to both the traditional locations and to the unified location.

B.

The audit trail is in a single format.

C.

Pre 12c audit data is written to the traditional locations and new 12c audit data is written to the unified location.

D.

The audit trail is read-only.

E.

The audit trail uses less space.

Question 70

Which are three of the steps taken by Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to clone a remote pluggable database (PDB) starting from Oracle 19c?

Options:

A.

creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the local database to CDB$ROOT in the remote system that is to be cloned

B.

creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the local database to the PDB in the remote system that is to be cloned

C.

backing up the cloned PDB

D.

opening the cloned PDB

E.

leaving the cloned PDB in mount state

Question 71

The CATDB12c database contains an Oracle Database version 12c catalog schema owned by the RC12C user. The RCAT11 database contains an Oracle Database version 11g catalog schema owned by the RC11 user in which several databases are registered. Both the databases are open. You execute the RMAN commands: RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG rcl2c/passl2c@catdbl2c RMAN> IMPORT CATALOG rcll/pwdcatll@ractll Which two tasks are performed as part of the import?

Options:

A.

Databases from the RC12C catalog are implicitly unregistered if the RC11 catalog has registered databases with same name.

B.

Recovery catalog is resynchronized with the control files of the registered databases.

C.

Imported databases are unregistered from the RC11 catalog.

D.

Local and global stored scripts that have the same name as existing scripts in the RC12C catalog are automatically renamed.

E.

All databases registered in the RC11 catalog are registered in the RC12C catalog.

Question 72

Choose two. Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled?

Options:

A.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column may only be queried by users with the DBA role set.

B.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is only displayed if it is referenced in the column select list of a query

C.

The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows.

D.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column may only be updated by users with the DBA role set.

E.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated in an overnight maintenance job based on activity tracking.

Question 73

Which three are true about an application container?

Options:

A.

It can contain a single application

B.

Two application containers can share an application seed PDB.

C.

It must have an application root PDB.

D.

An application PDB can belong to multiple application containers.

E.

It must have an application seed PDB.

F.

It can contain multiple applications.

Question 74

Choose two. Which two are true about various Oracle security and auditing capabilities?

Options:

A.

Application-common Transparent Security Data Protection (TSDP) policies can be created only if all the PDBs in the application container are closed.

B.

Application-common TSDP policies are always container specific.

C.

Application-common OLS policies can be created only if all the PDBs in the application container are closed.

D.

Unified auditing can be automatically synchronized to all application PDBs in an application container.

E.

Fine-grained auditing (FGA) policies in an application root are automatically synchronized to all application PDBs contained in the application container when they are updated.

Question 75

You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with t he following specifications: Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier. The number of concurrent user connections will be high. The database will have mixed workload, with t he execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night. Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

Options:

A.

a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation

B.

a Data Warehouse database template, with t he dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled

C.

a General Purpose database template, with t he shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled

D.

a default database configuration

Question 76

Choose three. Which three are true about post-upgrade activities when upgrading an Oracle database using Database Upgrade Assistant?

Options:

A.

Any Recovery Manager (RMAN) recovery catalog must be upgraded manually.

B.

After a manual upgrade, TNSNAMES.ORA entries must be updated to reflect the new ORACLE_HOME.

C.

Time zone files must be upgraded manually using the DBMS_DST PL/SQL package.

D.

The new extended data type capability must be enabled by running the utlrp.sql script

E.

The Oracle Application Express configuration should be updated after upgrading Oracle Database.

Question 77

Choose the best answer. Examine this configuration:

1. CDB1 is a container database running in ARCHIVELOG mode.

2. Multiple uncommitted transactions are running in CDB1.

3. Redo log groups 1 and 2 are INACTIVE.

4. Redo log group 3 is the CURRENT group.

All members of redo log group 3 are lost before it is archived. Examine these possible steps:

1. SHUTDOWN ABORT

2. STARTUP NOMOUNT

3. STARTUP MOUNT

4. ALTER DATABASE MOUNT

5. RESTORE DATABASE

6. RECOVER DATABASE NOREDO

7. RECOVER DATABASE UNTIL AVAILABLE

8. RESTORE ARCHIVELOG ALL

9. ALTER DATABASE OPEN

10. ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS

Choose the minimum required steps in the correct order to recover the database.

Options:

A.

1,3,5, 6, 9

B.

1,3, 5, 7, 10

C.

1,2, 5, 7,4, 10

D.

1,3, 5, 6, 10

E.

1,3,5, 6, 10

F.

1,3,5,8, 6, 10

Question 78

Choose two. In performance management, which two factors might reduce the ability of an application to scale to a larger number of users?

Options:

A.

poorly trained users who do not commit transactions

B.

the number of tablespaces containing tables updated by a transaction

C.

issuing multiple savepoints during a transaction

D.

the number of data files containing extents belonging to tables updated by a transaction

E.

poorly written SQL

Question 79

Which three statements are true about the keystore storage framework for transparent data encryption?

Options:

A.

It facilitates and helps to enforce keystore backup requirements.

B.

It handles encrypted data without modifying applications.

C.

It enables a keystore to be stored only in a file on a file system.

D.

It enables separation of duties between the database administrator and the security administrator.

E.

It transparently decrypts data for the database users and applications that access this data.

F.

It helps to track encryption keys and implement requirements such as keystore password rotation and master encryption key reset or re-key operations.

Question 80

Which four are true about duplicating a database using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Duplication can be done by having the auxiliary database instance pull backup sets from the target database instance.

B.

A connection to an auxiliary instance is always required.

C.

A subset of the target database can be duplicated.

D.

A new DBID is always created for the duplicated database.

E.

A connection to the recovery catalog instance is always required.

F.

A backup of the target database is always required.

G.

Duplication can be done by having the target database instance push copies to the auxiliary database instance.

Question 81

Which two are true about RMAN encryption? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RMAN encryption keys are stored in a database keystore.

B.

RMAN can encrypt the Oracle Database password file.

C.

Dual-mode encrypted backups can be restored only if both the password and the keystore used for encryption are available.

D.

The SET ENCRYPTION command overrides encryption settings specified by the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION command.

E.

Password encryption can be persistently configured using the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION command.

Question 82

Which three are true about an application seed pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

It is automatically synchronized with its application root PDB when an application is upgraded. B)It cannot be added to an application container after the application container has already been created.

B.

A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an old version of the application installed after cloning completes.

C.

It is automatically synchronized with its application root PDB when an application is installed.

D.

It cannot be dropped from its application container.

E.

A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an up-to-date version of the application installed after cloning completes.

F.

It is not required in an application container.

Question 83

Choose three. Which three are true about Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server?

Options:

A.

It requires Oracle ASMLib to manage Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disks.

B.

It creates one disk group during installation.

C.

It includes both Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) software.

D.

Automatic Storage Management (ASM) requires that O/S groups OSASM and OSDBA be assigned as secondary groups for its installation owner.

E.

It requires Oracle ASM Fitter Driver (ASMFD) to manage Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disks.

F.

It requires the operating system ORACLE_BASE environment variable to be predefined before installation.

Question 84

Choose two. Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 and CDB2 are two container databases. 2. PDB1 is a pluggable database in CDB1. 3. PDB1_C1_SRV is a service for PDB1. 4. CDB1_LINK is a database link in CDB2 referring to PDB1. 5. CDB2 is also an entry in tnsnames.ora pointing to the CDB2 database default service. You execute these commands successfully: $ sqlplus sys/oracle_4U@cdb2 as sysdba SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 FROM PDB1@CDB1_LINK SERVICE_NAME_CONVERT= ('PDB1_C1_SRV', 'PDB1_C2_SRV') ; Which two are true?

Options:

A.

PDB1_C2_SRV will be created but not started.

B.

PDB1 will be created in CDB2 and automatically opened.

C.

PDB1_C1_SRV in CDB1 will be renamed PDB1_C2_SRV.

D.

PDB1 will be created in CDB2 and left in MOUNT state.

E.

PDB1_C2_SRV will be created and started automatically.

Question 85

Examine the RMAN command: RMAN> RUN { ALLOCATE CHANNEL c1 DEVICE TYPE sbt; ALLOCATE CHANNEL c2 DEVICE TYPE sbt; ALLOCATE CHANNEL c3 DEVICE TYPE sbt; BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL = 0 (DATAFILE 1,4,5 CHANNEL c1) (DATAFILE 2,3,9 CHANNEL c2) (DATAFILE 6,7,8 CHANNEL c3); SQL 'ALTER SYSTEM ARCHIVE LOG CURRENT'; } Which statement is true about the command?

Options:

A.

It uses multisection backup.

B.

It uses parallelization for the backup set.

C.

It uses asynchronousI/O for the backup.

D.

It creates compressed backup sets.

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