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Scaled Agile SAFe-DevOps Dumps

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Total 98 questions

SAFe DevOps Practitioner Exam SDP (6.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the primary benefit of value stream mapping?

Options:

A.

It fosters collaboration among development and operations managers

B.

It creates the hypothesis of which Solution to build

C.

It identifies how to build Agile Release Trains

D.

It provides insight into organizational efficiency and value flow

Question 2

What is the correct order of activities in the Continuous Integration aspect?

Options:

A.

Stage, Develop, Build, Test end-to-end

B.

Build, Develop, Stage, Test end-to-end

C.

Develop, Test end-to-end, Build, Stage

D.

Develop, Build, Test end-to-end, Stage

Question 3

Where do features go after Continuous Exploration?

Options:

A.

Into Continuous Integration, where they are deployed with feature toggles

B.

Into Continuous Development, where they are implemented in small batches

C.

Into the Portfolio Backlog, where they are then prioritized

D.

Into Continuous Integration, where they are then split into Stories

Question 4

What is the first area that should be identified in Value Stream Mapping?

Options:

A.

The steps

B.

The people who supervise the work

C.

The bottlenecks

D.

Active Time, Flow Time. and Percent Complete and Accurate (%C&A)

Question 5

What are two aspects of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline, in addition to Continuous Integration? (Choose two.)

Choose the correct option from below list

Options:

A.

Continuous Release

B.

Continuous Deployment

C.

Continuous Improvement

D.

Continuous Exploration

E.

Continuous Testing

Question 6

What differentiates Deployment and Release in the continuous Delivery Pipeline?

Choose the correct option from below list

Options:

A.

Deployment occurs multiple times per day; release occurs on demand

B.

Deployment occurs multiple times per day; release occurs in PI boundaries

C.

Deployment involves moving changes to staging; release involves moving them to productionwrong

D.

Deployment involves moving changes to production; release involves making them available to end users

Question 7

Ensuring that security controls such as threat modeling, application security, and penetration testing are in place throughout the Continuous Delivery Pipeline is an example of which stabilizing skill?

Options:

A.

Security Operations

B.

Design for operations

C.

Continuous security monitoring

D.

Failover/disaster recovery

Question 8

When preparing a DevOps backlog, prioritizing features using WSJF includes which two factors? (Choose two.)

Choose the correct option from below list

Options:

A.

Cost of delay

B.

Business value

C.

Total count of items on the Program Backlog

D.

Team velocity

E.

Duration/job size

Question 9

Which two technical practices focus on Built-in Quality? (Choose two.)

Choose the correct option from below list

Options:

A.

Environment configuration

B.

Pair work

C.

Test-driven development

D.

Feature toggles

E.

Canary releases

Question 10

Why are canary releases used?

Options:

A.

To prevent outages

B.

To introduce minimum viable features

C.

To reduce deployment times

D.

To allow incremental release

Question 11

Identifying the Minimal Marketable Feature is part of what?

Choose the correct option from below list

Options:

A.

Lean Principles

B.

Lean Leadership

C.

Lean Startup

D.

Lean UX

Question 12

What is true about the Critical Flow Properties portion of the DevOps Transformation Canvas?

Options:

A.

It captures the people who need to improve the flow properties

B.

It captures the flow properties that are most in need of improvement

C.

It captures the lowest priority improvement items

D.

It captures the work-in-process (WIP) limits that should be applied to the Value Stream

Question 13

What is one reason for test data management?

Options:

A.

To automate provisioning data to an application in order to set it to a known state before testing begins

B.

To track the results of automated test cases for use by corporate audit

C.

To provide a viable option for disaster-recovery management

D.

To truncate data from the database to enable fast-forward recovery

Question 14

Which two statements describe the purpose of value stream mapping? (Choose two.)

Choose the correct option from below list

Options:

A.

To deliver incremental value in the form of working, tested software and systemscorrect

B.

To create an understanding of the budget

C.

To create an action plan for continuos improvement

D.

To understand the Product Owner's priorities

E.

To visualize how value flows

Question 15

When should teams use root cause analysis to address impediments to continuous delivery?

Options:

A.

During the Iteration Retrospective

B.

During the management review and problem-solving portion of PI Planning

C.

During Iteration Planning

D.

During Inspect & Adapt (I&A)

Question 16

What is the purpose of the blue/green deployment pattern?

Options:

A.

To decouple deployment from release - xx

B.

To ensure no changes happen in production without going through the Continuous Delivery Pipeline

C.

To deploy to only some data centers to reduce the deployment risk

D.

To deploy between an inactive and active environment

Question 17

Which practice appears under the Respond activity?

Options:

A.

Site Reliability

B.

Rollback

C.

Service virtualization

D.

Telemetry

Question 18

The Continuous Exploration aspect primarily supports which key stakeholder objective?

Options:

A.

Hypothesize

B.

Business value

C.

Alignment

D.

Research and development

Question 19

Continuous Deployment enables which key business objective?

Options:

A.

Time-to-market

B.

Manage technical debt

C.

Release continuously

D.

Business value

Question 20

Why is it important to take a structured approach to analyze problems in the delivery pipeline?

Options:

A.

It provides a structured roadmap for the SAFe implementation

B.

It helps ensure that actual causes of problems are addressed, rather than symptoms

C.

It ensures that solutions are more likely to be approved for implementation

D.

It allows the solution to be demoed to key stakeholders

Question 21

Scanning application code for security vulnerabilities is an important step in which aspect of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline?

Options:

A.

Continuous Exploration

B.

Continuous Deployment

C.

Release on Demand

D.

Continuous Integration

Question 22

Which technical practice incorporates build-time identification of security vulnerabilities in the code?

Options:

A.

Dynamic code analysis

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Application security

D.

Threat modeling

Question 23

Which steps in the value stream should be the main focus when prioritizing improvement items?

Options:

A.

Steps with a high Flow Efficiency

B.

Steps with short Active Time and high %C&A in the future-state map

C.

Steps with low Percent Complete and Accurate (%C&A) and short Active Time in the current-state map

D.

Steps with a long Active Time

Question 24

What is trunk-based development?

Options:

A.

Each developer maintains a separate branch

B.

Teams with similar dependencies create one single branch for the team's work

C.

All teams committing their code into one trunk

D.

Every team works in their own trunk

Question 25

Which metric reflects the quality of output at each step in the Value Stream?

Options:

A.

Code quality

B.

Active Time

C.

Percent Complete and Accurate (%C&A)

D.

Flow Efficiency

Question 26

Mapping the value stream helps accomplish which two actions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

To prioritize the Program Backlog

B.

To gain insight into organizational efficiency

C.

To serve as a blueprint for development

D.

To understand how the flow of value can be improved

E.

To add or remove user segments based on business decisions

Question 27

Which two skills appear under the Respond activity? (Choose two.)

Choose the correct options from below list

Options:

A.

Cross-team collaboration

B.

Version control

C.

Telemetry

D.

Automatic rollback

E.

Service virtualization

Question 28

What triggers the Release activity?

Options:

A.

Business decision to go live

B.

Successful deployment to production

C.

Change validated in staging environment

D.

Successful user acceptance tests

Question 29

Feature toggles are useful for which activity?

Options:

A.

To accelerate the deployment process

B.

To decouple deployment from release

C.

To enable continuous code integration

D.

To enable continuous testing

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Total 98 questions