Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist Questions and Answers
The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?
What Symantec Best Practice is recommended when setting up Active Directory integration with the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
Which type of communication is blocked, when isolating the endpoint by clicking on the isolate button in SEDR?
In the virus and Spyware Protection policy, an administrator sets the First action to Clean risk and sets If first action fails to Delete risk. Which two (2) factors should the administrator consider? (Select two.)
Which two (2) criteria are used by Symantec Insight to evaluate binary executables? (Select two.)
Which Discover and Deploy process requires the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicy value to be added to the Windows registry of endpoints, before the process begins?
What is the purpose of a Threat Defense for Active Directory Deceptive Account?
What information is required to calculate retention rate?
What protection technology should an administrator enable to prevent double executable file names of ransomware variants like Cryptolocker from running?
Which Endpoint Setting should an administrator utilize to locate unmanaged endpoints on a network subnet?
In the virus and Spyware Protection policy, an administrator sets the First action to Clean risk and sets If first action fails to Delete risk. Which two (2) factors should the administrator consider? (Select two.)
On which platform is LiveShell available?
Which SES advanced feature detects malware by consulting a training model composed of known good and known bad files?
When a SEPM is enrolled in ICDm, which policy can only be managed from the cloud?
Which two (2) criteria are used by Symantec Insight to evaluate binary executables? (Select two.)
Which IPS signature type is primarily used to identify specific unwanted network traffic?
What is the result of disjointed telemetry collection methods used within an organization?
What does a ranged query return or exclude?
What type of policy provides a second layer of defense, after the Symantec firewall?
Which designation should an administrator assign to the computer configured to find unmanaged devices?
An Incident Responder has determined that an endpoint is compromised by a malicious threat. What SEDR feature would be utilized first to contain the threat?
Which action must a Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator take before creating custom Intrusion Prevention signatures?
Which action is provided by Symantec EDR for the rapid remediation of impacted endpoints?
What EDR function minimizes the risk of an endpoint infecting other resources in the environment?
What prevention technique does Threat Defense for Active Directory use to expose attackers?
What should an administrator utilize to identify devices on a Mac?
What is the maximum number of SEPMs a single Management Platform is able to connect to?
How would an administrator specify which remote consoles and servers have access to the management server?
How should an administrator set up an alert to be notified when manual remediation is needed on an endpoint?
What priority would an incident that may have an impact on business be considered?
When are events generated within SEDR?
Which rule types should be at the bottom of the list when an administrator adds device control rules?
The LiveUpdate Download Schedule is set to the default on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM).
How many content revisions must the SEPM keep to ensure clients that check in to the SEPM every 10 days receive xdelta content packages instead of full content packages?
Which type of security threat is used by attackers to exploit vulnerable applications?
An Application Control policy includes an Allowed list and a Blocked list. A user wants to use an application that is neither on the Allowed list nor on the Blocked list. What can the user do to gain access to the application?
Which security control is complementary to IPS, providing a second layer of protection against network attacks?
What information is required to calculate storage requirements?
Which other items may be deleted when deleting a malicious file from an endpoint?
Which security threat stage seeks to gather valuable data and upload it to a compromised system?
An organization would like to use a content distribution method that centrally controls content types and versions. Almost all of their endpoints are running Windows.
What type of content distribution method should be used?
An Application Control policy includes an Allowed list and a Blocked list. A user wants to use an application that is neither on the Allowed list nor on the Blocked list. What can the user do to gain access to the application?
What type of condition must be included in a custom incident rule in order for it to be valid?
How does Memory Exploit Mitigation protect applications?
Which type of event does operation:1indicate in a SEDR database search?
Which designation should an administrator assign to the computer configured to find unmanaged devices?