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Symantec 250-580 Dumps

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Total 150 questions

Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist Questions and Answers

Question 1

The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?

Options:

A.

Enable port scan detection

B.

Automatically block an attacker's IP address

C.

Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops

D.

Enable denial of service detection

Question 2

What Symantec Best Practice is recommended when setting up Active Directory integration with the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?

Options:

A.

Ensure there is more than one Active Directory Server listed in the Server Properties.

B.

Link the built-in Admin account to an Active Directory account.

C.

Import the existing AD structure to organize clients in user mode.

D.

Secure the management console by denying access to certain computers.

Question 3

Which type of communication is blocked, when isolating the endpoint by clicking on the isolate button in SEDR?

Options:

A.

All non-SEP and non-SEDR network communications

B.

All network communications

C.

Only SEP and SEDR network communications

D.

Only Web and UNC network communications

Question 4

In the virus and Spyware Protection policy, an administrator sets the First action to Clean risk and sets If first action fails to Delete risk. Which two (2) factors should the administrator consider? (Select two.)

Options:

A.

The deleted file may still be in the Recycle Bin.

B.

IT Analytics may keep a copy of the file for investigation.

C.

False positives may delete legitimate files.

D.

Insight may back up the file before sending it to Symantec.

E.

A copy of the threat may still be in the quarantine.

Question 5

Which two (2) criteria are used by Symantec Insight to evaluate binary executables? (Select two.)

Options:

A.

Sensitivity

B.

Prevalence

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Content

E.

Age

Question 6

Which Discover and Deploy process requires the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicy value to be added to the Windows registry of endpoints, before the process begins?

Options:

A.

Push Enrollment

B.

Auto Discovery

C.

Push Discovery

D.

Device Enrollment

Question 7

What is the purpose of a Threat Defense for Active Directory Deceptive Account?

Options:

A.

It prevents attackers from reading the contents of the Domain Admins Group.

B.

It assigns a fake NTLM password hash value for users with an assigned AdminCount attribute.

C.

It exposes attackers as they seek to gather credential information from workstation memory.

D.

It acts as a honeypot to expose attackers as they attempt to build their AD treasure map

Question 8

What information is required to calculate retention rate?

Options:

A.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

B.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

C.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

D.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

Question 9

What protection technology should an administrator enable to prevent double executable file names of ransomware variants like Cryptolocker from running?

Options:

A.

Download Insight

B.

Intrusion Prevention System

C.

SONAR

D.

Memory Exploit Mitigation

Question 10

Which Endpoint Setting should an administrator utilize to locate unmanaged endpoints on a network subnet?

Options:

A.

Device Discovery

B.

Endpoint Enrollment

C.

Discover and Deploy

D.

Discover Endpoints

Question 11

In the virus and Spyware Protection policy, an administrator sets the First action to Clean risk and sets If first action fails to Delete risk. Which two (2) factors should the administrator consider? (Select two.)

Options:

A.

The deleted file may still be in the Recycle Bin.

B.

IT Analytics may keep a copy of the file for investigation.

C.

False positives may delete legitimate files.

D.

Insight may back up the file before sending it to Symantec.

E.

A copy of the threat may still be in the quarantine.

Question 12

On which platform is LiveShell available?

Options:

A.

Windows

B.

All

C.

Linux

D.

Mac

Question 13

Which SES advanced feature detects malware by consulting a training model composed of known good and known bad files?

Options:

A.

Signatures

B.

Reputation

C.

Artificial Intelligence

D.

Advanced Machine Learning

Question 14

When a SEPM is enrolled in ICDm, which policy can only be managed from the cloud?

Options:

A.

LiveUpdate

B.

Firewall

C.

Network Intrusion Prevention

D.

Intensive Protection

Question 15

Which two (2) criteria are used by Symantec Insight to evaluate binary executables? (Select two.)

Options:

A.

Sensitivity

B.

Prevalence

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Content

E.

Age

Question 16

Which IPS signature type is primarily used to identify specific unwanted network traffic?

Options:

A.

Attack

B.

Audit

C.

Malcode

D.

Probe

Question 17

What is the result of disjointed telemetry collection methods used within an organization?

Options:

A.

Investigators lack granular visibility

B.

Back of orchestration across controls

C.

False positives are seen

D.

Attacks continue to spread during investigation

Question 18

What does a ranged query return or exclude?

Options:

A.

Data matching the exact field names and their values

B.

Data matching a regular expression

C.

Data falling between two specified values of a given field

D.

Data based on specific values for a given field

Question 19

What type of policy provides a second layer of defense, after the Symantec firewall?

Options:

A.

Virus and Spyware

B.

Host Integrity

C.

Intrusion Prevention

D.

System Lockdown

Question 20

Which designation should an administrator assign to the computer configured to find unmanaged devices?

Options:

A.

Discovery Device

B.

Discovery Manager

C.

Discovery Agent

D.

Discovery Broker

Question 21

An Incident Responder has determined that an endpoint is compromised by a malicious threat. What SEDR feature would be utilized first to contain the threat?

Options:

A.

File Deletion

B.

Incident Manager

C.

Isolation

D.

Endpoint Activity Recorder

Question 22

Which action must a Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator take before creating custom Intrusion Prevention signatures?

Options:

A.

Change the custom signature order

B.

Create a Custom Intrusion Prevention Signature library

C.

Define signature variables

D.

Enable signature logging

Question 23

Which action is provided by Symantec EDR for the rapid remediation of impacted endpoints?

Options:

A.

Quickly filtering for specific attributes

B.

Detonate Memory Exploits in conjunction with SEP

C.

Automatically stopping suspicious behaviors & unknown threats

D.

Block Listing or Allow Listing of specific files

Question 24

What EDR function minimizes the risk of an endpoint infecting other resources in the environment?

Options:

A.

Quarantine

B.

Block

C.

Deny List

D.

Firewall

Question 25

What prevention technique does Threat Defense for Active Directory use to expose attackers?

Options:

A.

Process Monitoring

B.

Obfuscation

C.

Honeypot Traps

D.

Packet Tracing

Question 26

What should an administrator utilize to identify devices on a Mac?

Options:

A.

UseDevViewerwhen the Device is connected.

B.

Use Devicelnfo when the Device is connected.

C.

UseDevice Managerwhen the Device is connected.

D.

UseGatherSymantecInfowhen the Device is connected.

Question 27

What is the maximum number of SEPMs a single Management Platform is able to connect to?

Options:

A.

50

B.

10

C.

5,000

D.

500

Question 28

How would an administrator specify which remote consoles and servers have access to the management server?

Options:

A.

Edit theServer Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change theServer Communication Permission.

B.

Edit theCommunication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

C.

EdittheExternal Communication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

D.

Edit theSite Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change the server priority.

Question 29

How should an administrator set up an alert to be notified when manual remediation is needed on an endpoint?

Options:

A.

Add a Single Risk Event notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an e-mail to the system administrators.

B.

Add a Client security alert notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an e-mail to the system administrators.

C.

Add a System event notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an e-mail to the system administrators.

D.

Add a New risk detected notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an emailto the system administrators.

Question 30

What priority would an incident that may have an impact on business be considered?

Options:

A.

Low

B.

Critical

C.

High

D.

Medium

Question 31

When are events generated within SEDR?

Options:

A.

When an incident is selected

B.

When an activityoccurs

C.

When any event is opened

D.

When entities are viewed

Question 32

Which rule types should be at the bottom of the list when an administrator adds device control rules?

Options:

A.

Specific "device type" rules

B.

Specific "device model" rules

C.

General "catch all" rules

D.

General "brand defined" rules

Question 33

The LiveUpdate Download Schedule is set to the default on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM).

How many content revisions must the SEPM keep to ensure clients that check in to the SEPM every 10 days receive xdelta content packages instead of full content packages?

Options:

A.

10

B.

20

C.

30

D.

60

Question 34

Which type of security threat is used by attackers to exploit vulnerable applications?

Options:

A.

Lateral Movement

B.

Privilege Escalation

C.

Credential Access

D.

Command and Control

Question 35

An Application Control policy includes an Allowed list and a Blocked list. A user wants to use an application that is neither on the Allowed list nor on the Blocked list. What can the user do to gain access to the application?

Options:

A.

Email the App Control Admin

B.

Request an Override

C.

Install the application

D.

Wait for the Application Drift process to complete

Question 36

Which security control is complementary to IPS, providing a second layer of protection against network attacks?

Options:

A.

Host Integrity

B.

Network Protection

C.

Antimalware

D.

Firewall

Question 37

What information is required to calculate storage requirements?

Options:

A.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

B.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

C.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

D.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

Question 38

Which other items may be deleted when deleting a malicious file from an endpoint?

Options:

A.

Registry entries that point to that file

B.

The incident related to the file

C.

SEP Policies related to that file

D.

Files and libraries that point to that file

Question 39

Which security threat stage seeks to gather valuable data and upload it to a compromised system?

Options:

A.

Exfiltration

B.

Impact

C.

Lateral Movement

D.

Command and Control

Question 40

An organization would like to use a content distribution method that centrally controls content types and versions. Almost all of their endpoints are running Windows.

What type of content distribution method should be used?

Options:

A.

Management Server

B.

Group Update Provider

C.

Internal LiveUpdate Server

D.

External LiveUpdate Server

Question 41

An Application Control policy includes an Allowed list and a Blocked list. A user wants to use an application that is neither on the Allowed list nor on the Blocked list. What can the user do to gain access to the application?

Options:

A.

Email the App Control Admin

B.

Request an Override

C.

Install the application

D.

Wait for the Application Drift process to complete

Question 42

What type of condition must be included in a custom incident rule in order for it to be valid?

Options:

A.

Good

B.

Rich

C.

Valid

D.

Poor

Question 43

How does Memory Exploit Mitigation protect applications?

Options:

A.

Injects a DLL(IPSEng32.dllorIPSEng64.dll)into protected processes and when an exploit attempt is detected, terminates the protected process to prevent the malicious code from running.

B.

Injects a DLL(UMEngx86.dll)into applications that run in user mode and if the application behaves maliciously, then SEP detects it.

C.

Injects a DLL (sysfer.dll) into processes being launched on the machine and if the process isn't trusted, prevents the process from running.

D.

Injects a DLL(IPSEng32.dll)into browser processes and protects the machine from drive-by downloads.

Question 44

Which type of event does operation:1indicate in a SEDR database search?

Options:

A.

File Deleted.

B.

File Closed.

C.

File Open.

D.

File Created.

Question 45

Which designation should an administrator assign to the computer configured to find unmanaged devices?

Options:

A.

Discovery Device

B.

Discovery Manager

C.

Discovery Agent

D.

Discovery Broker

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Total 150 questions