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Checkpoint 156-315.81 Dumps

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Total 628 questions

Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 Questions and Answers

Question 1

SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

Options:

A.

Web Browsers and user devices

B.

DMZ server

C.

Cloud

D.

Email servers

Question 2

GAiA Software update packages can be imported and installed offline in situation where:

Options:

A.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SFTP access to Internet

B.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have access to Internet.

C.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SSH access to Internet.

D.

The desired CPUSE package is ONLY available in the Check Point CLOUD.

Question 3

One of major features in R81 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.

Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.

A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Question 4

What is UserCheck?

Options:

A.

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

Question 5

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?

Options:

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob-a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

Question 6

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Manage Setting

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway and Servers

D.

Logs and Monitor

Question 7

You can access the ThreatCloud Repository from:

Options:

A.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Application Wiki

B.

Threat Prevention and Threat Tools

C.

Threat Wiki and Check Point Website

D.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Threat Prevention

Question 8

Tom has connected to the R81 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.

What will happen to the changes already made?

Options:

A.

Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear to cache, and restore changes.

Question 9

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

Question 10

Please choose the path to monitor the compliance status of the Check Point R81.20 based management.

Options:

A.

Gateways & Servers --> Compliance View

B.

Compliance blade not available under R81.20

C.

Logs & Monitor --> New Tab --> Open compliance View

D.

Security & Policies --> New Tab --> Compliance View

Question 11

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

as

Options:

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway.

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem.

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction.

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

Question 12

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

Options:

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

Question 13

You notice that your firewall is under a DDoS attack and would like to enable the Penalty Box feature, which command you use?

Options:

A.

sim erdos –e 1

B.

sim erdos – m 1

C.

sim erdos –v 1

D.

sim erdos –x 1

Question 14

For best practices, what is the recommended time for automatic unlocking of locked admin accounts?

Options:

A.

20 minutes

B.

15 minutes

C.

Admin account cannot be unlocked automatically

D.

30 minutes at least

Question 15

With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Threat Cloud Intelligence

B.

Threat Prevention Software Blade Package

C.

Endpoint Total Protection

D.

Traffic on port 25

Question 16

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSEC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

Question 17

What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

Options:

A.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

B.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

C.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

D.

Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware

Question 18

SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

Options:

A.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and route

B.

ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route

C.

ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet

D.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup

Question 19

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Stateful Inspection

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

Question 20

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management-interface and default gateway are incorrect.

Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

Options:

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0set static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

Question 21

What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?

Options:

A.

The VMACs used in a Security Gateway cluster

B.

The involved firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound packet chain

C.

Overview over SecureXL templated connections

D.

Network interfaces and core distribution used for CoreXL

Question 22

Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.

Options:

A.

WMI

B.

Eventvwr

C.

XML

D.

Services.msc

Question 23

NO: 219

What cloud-based SandBlast Mobile application is used to register new devices and users?

Options:

A.

Check Point Protect Application

B.

Management Dashboard

C.

Behavior Risk Engine

D.

Check Point Gateway

Question 24

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

Options:

A.

SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless

B.

SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not

C.

IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this

D.

IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.

Question 25

Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

Log Consolidator

D.

Log Server

Question 26

When SecureXL is enabled, all packets should be accelerated, except packets that match the following conditions:

Options:

A.

All UDP packets

B.

All IPv6 Traffic

C.

All packets that match a rule whose source or destination is the Outside Corporate Network

D.

CIFS packets

Question 27

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Application Control

Question 28

What is the order of NAT priorities?

Options:

A.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

B.

IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT

C.

Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT

D.

Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

Question 29

What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

Question 30

You have a Gateway is running with 2 cores. You plan to add a second gateway to build a cluster and used a device with 4 cores.

How many cores can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device?

Options:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

Question 31

You want to verify if your management server is ready to upgrade to R81.20. What tool could you use in this process?

Options:

A.

migrate export

B.

upgrade_tools verify

C.

pre_upgrade_verifier

D.

migrate import

Question 32

Joey wants to upgrade from R75.40 to R81 version of Security management. He will use Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration method to achieve this.

What is one of the requirements for his success?

Options:

A.

Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine

B.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine

C.

Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine

D.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more

Question 33

With SecureXL enabled, accelerated packets will pass through the following:

Options:

A.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, OS IP Stack, and the Acceleration Device

B.

Network Interface Card, Check Point Firewall Kernal, and the Acceleration Device

C.

Network Interface Card and the Acceleration Device

D.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, and the Acceleration Device

Question 34

Which of the following Windows Security Events will not map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

Question 35

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R81 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.

Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)

Options:

A.

remove database lock

B.

The database feature has one command lock database override.

C.

override database lock

D.

The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

Question 36

You have a Geo-Protection policy blocking Australia and a number of other countries. Your network now requires a Check Point Firewall to be installed in Sydney, Australia.

What must you do to get SIC to work?

Options:

A.

Remove Geo-Protection, as the IP-to-country database is updated externally, and you have no control of this.

B.

Create a rule at the top in the Sydney firewall to allow control traffic from your network

C.

Nothing - Check Point control connections function regardless of Geo-Protection policy

D.

Create a rule at the top in your Check Point firewall to bypass the Geo-Protection

Question 37

When deploying SandBlast, how would a Threat Emulation appliance benefit from the integration of ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

ThreatCloud is a database-related application which is located on-premise to preserve privacy of company-related data

B.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the CheckPoint customers to form a virtual cloud consisting of a combination of all on-premise private cloud environments

C.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for Check Point customers to benefit from VMWare ESXi infrastructure which supports the Threat Emulation Appliances as virtual machines in the EMC Cloud

D.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the Check Point customers to share information about malicious and benign files that all of the customers can benefit from as it makes emulation of known files unnecessary

Question 38

Which file gives you a list of all security servers in use, including port number?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/conf.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/servers.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/serversd.conf

Question 39

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated.

What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

Options:

A.

There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated.

B.

The connection required a Security server.

C.

Acceleration is not enabled.

D.

The traffic is originating from the gateway itself.

Question 40

The essential means by which state synchronization works to provide failover in the event an active member goes down, ____________ is used specifically for clustered environments to allow gateways to report their own state and learn about the states of other members in the cluster.

Options:

A.

ccp

B.

cphaconf

C.

cphad

D.

cphastart

Question 41

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

2

B.

7

C.

6

D.

4

Question 42

Which blades and or features are not supported in R81?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Maps

B.

SmartEvent

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

SmartConsole Toolbars

Question 43

What must you do first if “fwm sic_reset” could not be completed?

Options:

A.

Cpstop then find keyword “certificate” in objects_5_0.C and delete the section

B.

Reinitialize SIC on the security gateway then run “fw unloadlocal”

C.

Reset SIC from Smart Dashboard

D.

Change internal CA via cpconfig

Question 44

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

Question 45

Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her company’s production Firewall cluster Dallas_GW. She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment.

Which details she need to fill in System Restore window before she can click OK button and test the backup?

Options:

A.

Server, SCP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

B.

Server, TFTP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

D.

Server, Protocol, username Password, Path, Comment, Member

Question 46

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

Question 47

Fill in the blank: The “fw monitor” tool can be best used to troubleshoot ____________________.

Options:

A.

AV issues

B.

VPN errors

C.

Network traffic issues

D.

Authentication issues

Question 48

You have existing dbedit scripts from R77. Can you use them with R81.20?

Options:

A.

dbedit is not supported in R81.20

B.

dbedit is fully supported in R81.20

C.

You can use dbedit to modify threat prevention or access policies, but not create or modify layers

D.

dbedit scripts are being replaced by mgmt_cli in R81.20

Question 49

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

Question 50

Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?

Options:

A.

cpwd

B.

fwd

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

Question 51

You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the cause?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –f register

B.

cphaprob –d –s report

C.

cpstat –f all

D.

cphaprob –a list

Question 52

The Correlation Unit performs all but the following actions:

Options:

A.

Marks logs that individually are not events, but may be part of a larger pattern to be identified later.

B.

Generates an event based on the Event policy.

C.

Assigns a severity level to the event.

D.

Takes a new log entry that is part of a group of items that together make up an event, and adds it to an ongoing event.

Question 53

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

Question 54

What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer

B.

SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig

C.

fwaccel commands can be used in clish

D.

Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture

Question 55

You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443

B.

TCP port 257

C.

TCP port 256

D.

UDP port 8116

Question 56

What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?

Options:

A.

Capsule Workspace

B.

Capsule Mail

C.

Capsule VPN

D.

Secure Workspace

Question 57

Which statement is true about ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast and Multicast)

B.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast Only)

C.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Multicast Only)

D.

Does not support Dynamic Routing

Question 58

SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

Options:

A.

Analyzes each log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy. When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.

C.

Collects syslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.

D.

Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

Question 59

How do you enable virtual mac (VMAC) on-the-fly on a cluster member?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

B.

clusterXL set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

C.

fw ctl set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

D.

cphaconf set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

Question 60

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

Question 61

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

Question 62

How do Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications.

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application.

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation.

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client.

Question 63

The following command is used to verify the CPUSE version:

Options:

A.

HostName:0>show installer status build

B.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status

C.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status build

D.

HostName:0>show installer build

Question 64

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Wire Mode configuration, chain modules marked with ____________ will not apply.

Options:

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

Question 65

What processes does CPM control?

Options:

A.

Object-Store, Database changes, CPM Process and web-services

B.

web-services, CPMI process, DLEserver, CPM process

C.

DLEServer, Object-Store, CP Process and database changes

D.

web_services, dle_server and object_Store

Question 66

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

Options:

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

Question 67

Which of these is an implicit MEP option?

Options:

A.

Primary-backup

B.

Source address based

C.

Round robin

D.

Load Sharing

Question 68

When setting up an externally managed log server, what is one item that will not be configured on the R81 Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

IP

B.

SIC

C.

NAT

D.

FQDN

Question 69

When Dynamic Dispatcher is enabled, connections are assigned dynamically with the exception of:

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

HTTPS

C.

QOS

D.

VoIP

Question 70

How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode.

B.

Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA.

C.

You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario.

D.

It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance.

Question 71

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

Question 72

What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

CCP and 18190

B.

CCP and 257

C.

CCP and 8116

D.

CPC and 8116

Question 73

Security Checkup Summary can be easily conducted within:

Options:

A.

Summary

B.

Views

C.

Reports

D.

Checkups

Question 74

What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

fw ctl get int cpsead_stat

B.

cpstat cpsead

C.

fw ctl stat cpsemd

D.

cp_conf get_stat cpsemd

Question 75

What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?

Options:

A.

The number of cores must be the same on every participating cluster node

B.

The Magic MAC number must be unique per cluster node

C.

The Sync interface must not have an IP address configured

D.

If you have “Non-monitored Private” interfaces, the number of those interfaces must be the same on all cluster members

Question 76

Which Check Point daemon monitors the other daemons?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpd

C.

cpwd

D.

fwssd

Question 77

To enable Dynamic Dispatch on Security Gateway without the Firewall Priority Queues, run the following command in Expert mode and reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch on

B.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch enable

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 4

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

Question 78

Which Check Point software blades could be enforced under Threat Prevention profile using Check Point R81.20 SmartConsole application?

Options:

A.

IPS, Anti-Bot, URL Filtering, Application Control, Threat Emulation.

B.

Firewall, IPS, Threat Emulation, Application Control.

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation, Threat Extraction.

D.

Firewall, IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation.

Question 79

An administrator would like to troubleshoot why templating is not working for some traffic. How can he determine at which rule templating is disabled?

Options:

A.

He can use the fw accel stat command on the gateway.

B.

He can use the fw accel statistics command on the gateway.

C.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the Security Management Server.

D.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the gateway

Question 80

When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

Options:

A.

Includes the registry

B.

Gets information about the specified Virtual System

C.

Does not resolve network addresses

D.

Output excludes connection table

Question 81

Which of the following will NOT affect acceleration?

Options:

A.

Connections destined to or originated from the Security gateway

B.

A 5-tuple match

C.

Multicast packets

D.

Connections that have a Handler (ICMP, FTP, H.323, etc.)

Question 82

SmartConsole R81 requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent R81 management:

Options:

A.

19090,22

B.

19190,22

C.

18190,80

D.

19009,443

Question 83

: 131

Which command is used to display status information for various components?

Options:

A.

show all systems

B.

show system messages

C.

sysmess all

D.

show sysenv all

Question 84

What is a best practice before starting to troubleshoot using the “fw monitor” tool?

Options:

A.

Run the command: fw monitor debug on

B.

Clear the connections table

C.

Disable CoreXL

D.

Disable SecureXL

Question 85

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

Options:

A.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap

B.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap

C.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap

D.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

Question 86

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

Question 87

Which of the following links will take you to the SmartView web application?

Options:

A.

https:// /smartviewweb/

B.

https:// /smartview/

C.

https:// smartviewweb

D.

https:// /smartview

Question 88

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resilient VPN client.

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client.

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same.

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser.

Question 89

What is the port used for SmartConsole to connect to the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

CPMI port 18191/TCP

B.

CPM port/TCP port 19009

C.

SIC port 18191/TCP

D.

https port 4434/TCP

Question 90

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R81.x?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness Web Services

B.

OPSEC SDK

C.

Mobile Access

D.

Management

Question 91

What component of R81 Management is used for indexing?

Options:

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

Question 92

Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

Options:

A.

AES-128

B.

AES-256

C.

DES

D.

3DES

Question 93

When installing a dedicated R81 SmartEvent server. What is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20GB

D.

At least 20GB

Question 94

What API command below creates a new host with the name “New Host” and IP address of “192.168.0.10”?

Options:

A.

new host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

B.

set host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

C.

create host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

D.

add host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

Question 95

What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

With SDF enabled, the involved VPN Gateways only supports IKEv1

B.

Acceleration technologies, such as SecureXL and CoreXL are disabled when activating SDF

C.

With SDF enabled, only ClusterXL in legacy mode is supported

D.

With SDF enabled, you can only have three Sync interfaces at most

Question 96

You want to gather and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Client Info

B.

SecuRemote

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

Check Point Capsule Cloud

Question 97

The Security Gateway is installed on GAIA R81. The default port for the Web User Interface is ______ .

Options:

A.

TCP 18211

B.

TCP 257

C.

TCP 4433

D.

TCP 443

Question 98

On R81.20 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

Options:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

Question 99

Which of the following authentication methods ARE NOT used for Mobile Access?

Options:

A.

RADIUS server

B.

Username and password (internal, LDAP)

C.

SecurID

D.

TACACS+

Question 100

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell(clish)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

Question 101

Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

It is not supported with either the Performance pack of a hardware based accelerator card

B.

Does not support SPI’s when configured for Load Sharing

C.

It is automatically disabled if the Mobile Access Software Blade is enabled on the cluster

D.

It is not required L2TP traffic

Question 102

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

Options:

A.

In R81, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

In R81, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

In R81, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

In R81, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

Question 103

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Threat Simulator

C.

Threat Extraction

D.

Threat Cloud

Question 104

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, run the following command in Expert mode then reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

B.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue on

C.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue enable

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

Question 105

What command verifies that the API server is responding?

Options:

A.

api stat

B.

api status

C.

show api_status

D.

app_get_status

Question 106

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

Options:

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

Question 107

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

Question 108

Which TCP-port does CPM process listen to?

Options:

A.

18191

B.

18190

C.

8983

D.

19009

Question 109

You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?

Options:

A.

Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.

B.

Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.

C.

Create network objects that restricts all applicable rules to only certain networks.

D.

Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.

Question 110

To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the Initial Settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab. How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

5 Network; Host; Objects; Services; API

B.

3 Incoming; Outgoing; Network

C.

2 Internal; External

D.

4 Incoming; Outgoing; Internal; Other

Question 111

Advanced Security Checkups can be easily conducted within:

Options:

A.

Reports

B.

Advanced

C.

Checkups

D.

Views

E.

Summary

Question 112

Connections to the Check Point R81 Web API use what protocol?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

RPC

C.

VPN

D.

SIC

Question 113

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

Question 114

You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or _____ action for the file types.

Options:

A.

Inspect/Bypass

B.

Inspect/Prevent

C.

Prevent/Bypass

D.

Detect/Bypass

Question 115

What is the difference between an event and a log?

Options:

A.

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.

Log and Events are synonyms

Question 116

Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

Options:

A.

cpmq set

B.

Cpmqueue set

C.

Cpmq config

D.

St cpmq enable

Question 117

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.

Options:

A.

TCP port 19009

B.

TCP Port 18190

C.

TCP Port 18191

D.

TCP Port 18209

Question 118

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

Question 119

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.

Options:

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpconfig

C.

fwm dbimport -p

D.

cpinfo –recover

Question 120

How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

Options:

A.

2(OS) images

B.

images are chosen by administrator during installation

C.

as many as licensed for

D.

the newest image

Question 121

In R81 spoofing is defined as a method of:

Options:

A.

Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.

B.

Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.

C.

Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins

D.

Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

Question 122

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

Question 123

There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R81 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

Using Web Services

B.

Using Mgmt_cli tool

C.

Using CLISH

D.

Using SmartConsole GUI console

E.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow from Trouble Ticket systems

Question 124

Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every

Options:

A.

15 sec

B.

60 sec

C.

5 sec

D.

30 sec

Question 125

CoreXL is supported when one of the following features is enabled:

Options:

A.

Route-based VPN

B.

IPS

C.

IPv6

D.

Overlapping NAT

Question 126

Which of the following is a new R81 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies ae sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

Question 127

Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

Options:

A.

Check Point Remote User

B.

Check Point Capsule Workspace

C.

Check Point Mobile Web Portal

D.

Check Point Capsule Remote

Question 128

Check Pont Central Deployment Tool (CDT) communicates with the Security Gateway / Cluster Members over Check Point SIC _______ .

Options:

A.

TCP Port 18190

B.

TCP Port 18209

C.

TCP Port 19009

D.

TCP Port 18191

Question 129

Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

Options:

A.

IDA

B.

RAD

C.

PDP

D.

VPN

Question 130

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidated management console. It empowers the migration from legacy Client-side logic to Server-side logic. The cpm process:

Options:

A.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 19001

B.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 18191

C.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling policy.

D.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling as well as policy code generation.

Question 131

What is the correct command to observe the Sync traffic in a VRRP environment?

Options:

A.

fw monitor –e “accept[12:4,b]=224.0.0.18;”

B.

fw monitor –e “accept port(6118;”

C.

fw monitor –e “accept proto=mcVRRP;”

D.

fw monitor –e “accept dst=224.0.0.18;”

Question 132

Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

Options:

A.

R81 Management API-

B.

Identity Awareness Web Services API

C.

Open REST API

D.

OPSEC SDK

Question 133

Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

Options:

A.

cphaprob interface

B.

cphaprob –I interface

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

cphaprob stat

Question 134

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Options:

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

Question 135

R81.20 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Options:

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Versions R75 and higher

Question 136

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R81 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

Options:

A.

One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.

B.

One machine

C.

Two machines

D.

Three machines

Question 137

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

Question 138

Which command shows actual allowed connections in state table?

Options:

A.

fw tab –t StateTable

B.

fw tab –t connections

C.

fw tab –t connection

D.

fw tab connections

Question 139

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –a if

B.

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf debug data

D.

cphaprob igmp

Question 140

What SmartEvent component creates events?

Options:

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

Question 141

What is a feature that enables VPN connections to successfully maintain a private and secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful Mode

B.

VPN Routing Mode

C.

Wire Mode

D.

Stateless Mode

Question 142

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However, they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Terminal Servers Agent

C.

Identity Agents

D.

Browser-Based Authentication

Question 143

Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Application Control

D.

Threat Extraction

Question 144

Return oriented programming (ROP) exploits are detected by which security blade?

Options:

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

Check Point Anti-Virus / Threat Emulation

C.

Application control

D.

Intrusion Prevention Software

Question 145

What feature allows Remote-access VPN users to access resources across a site-to-site VPN tunnel?

Options:

A.

Specific VPN Communities

B.

Remote Access VPN Switch

C.

Mobile Access VPN Domain

D.

Network Access VPN Domain

Question 146

How does the Anti-Virus feature of the Threat Prevention policy block traffic from infected websites?

Options:

A.

By dropping traffic from websites identified through ThreatCloud Verification and URL Caching

B.

By dropping traffic that is not proven to be from clean websites in the URL Filtering blade

C.

By allowing traffic from websites that are known to run Antivirus Software on servers regularly

D.

By matching logs against ThreatCloud information about the reputation of the website

Question 147

How many interfaces can you configure to use the Multi-Queue feature?

Options:

A.

10 interfaces

B.

3 interfaces

C.

4 interfaces

D.

5 interfaces

Question 148

Bob has finished io setup provisioning a secondary security management server. Now he wants to check if the provisioning has been correct. Which of the following Check Point command can be used to check if the security management server has been installed as a primary or a secondary security management server?

Options:

A.

cpprod_util MgmtlsPrimary

B.

cpprod_util FwlsSecondary

C.

cpprod_util MgmtlsSecondary

D.

cpprod_util FwlsPrimary

Question 149

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Options:

A.

After upgrading the hardware, increase the number of kernel instances using cpconfig

B.

Hyperthreading must be enabled in the bios to use CoreXL

C.

Run cprestart from dish

D.

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores.

Question 150

The WebUI offers several methods for downloading hotfixes via CPUSE except:

Options:

A.

Automatic

B.

Force override

C.

Manually

D.

Scheduled

Question 151

identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access, and auditing based on what three items?

Options:

A.

Client machine IP address

B.

Network location the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

C.

Log server IP address

D.

Gateway proxy IP address

Question 152

What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?

Options:

A.

If you create a new Security Policy, the Manual NAT rules will be transferred to this new policy.

B.

There is no benefit since Automatic NAT has in any case higher priority over Manual NAT

C.

You have the full control about the priority of the NAT rules

D.

On IPSO and GAIA Gateways, it is handled in a stateful manner

Question 153

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage user accounts and:

Options:

A.

assign privileges to users.

B.

edit the home directory of the user.

C.

add users to your Gaia system.

D.

assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

Question 154

Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Active Directory Domain Controllers using what protocol?

Options:

A.

Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)

B.

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

C.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

D.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

Question 155

On R81.20 the IPS Blade is managed by:

Options:

A.

Threat Protection policy

B.

Anti-Bot Blade

C.

Threat Prevention policy

D.

Layers on Firewall policy

Question 156

What is the minimum number of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?

Options:

A.

1

B.

6

C.

2

D.

4

Question 157

Secure Configuration Verification (SCV), makes sure that remote access client computers are configured in accordance with the enterprise Security Policy. Bob was asked by Alice to implement a specific SCV configuration but therefore Bob needs to edit and configure a specific Check Point file. Which location file and directory is true?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/client.scv

B.

$CPDIR/conf/local.scv

C.

$CPDIR/conf/client.svc

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.scv

Question 158

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

Options:

A.

Add rba user roles

B.

Add rba user

C.

Add user roles

D.

Add user

Question 159

Which command lists firewall chain?

Options:

A.

fwctl chain

B.

fw list chain

C.

fw chain module

D.

fw tab -t chainmod

Question 160

Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

Options:

A.

Client machine IP address.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

C.

Log server IP address.

D.

Gateway proxy IP address.

Question 161

SmartEvent Security Checkups can be run from the following Logs and Monitor activity:

Options:

A.

Reports

B.

Advanced

C.

Checkups

D.

Views

Question 162

Which upgrade method you should use upgrading from R80.40 to R81.20 to avoid any downtime?

Options:

A.

Zero Downtime Upgrade (ZDU)

B.

Connectivity Upgrade (CU)

C.

Minimal Effort Upgrade (ME)

D.

Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade (MVC)

Question 163

Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

Options:

A.

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

B.

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

C.

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

D.

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

Question 164

Choose the correct syntax to add a new host named “emailserver1” with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA Management CLI?

Options:

A.

mgmt_cli add host name “myHost12 ip” address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt_cli add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

mgmt_cli add host “emailserver1” address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt_cli add host name “emailserver1” ip-address 10.50.23.90

Question 165

What is "Accelerated Policy Installation"?

Options:

A.

Starting R81, the Desktop Security Policy installation process is accelerated thereby reducing the duration of the process significantly

B.

Starting R81, the QoS Policy installation process is accelerated thereby reducing the duration of the process significantly

C.

Starting R81, the Access Control Policy installation process is accelerated thereby reducing the duration of the process significantly

D.

Starting R81, the Threat Prevention Policy installation process is accelerated thereby reducing the duration of the process significantly

Question 166

Which Check Point process provides logging services, such as forwarding logs from Gateway to Log Server, providing Log Export API (LEA) & Event Logging API (EL-A) services.

Options:

A.

DASSERVICE

B.

FWD

C.

CPVIEWD

D.

CPD

Question 167

Which of the following statements about Site-to-Site VPN Domain-based is NOT true?

Options:

A.

Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways.

When the Security Gateway encounters traffic originating from one VPN Domain with the destination to a VPN Domain of another VPN Gateway, that traffic is identified as VPN traffic and is sent through the VPN Tunnel between the two Gateways.

B.

Route-based- The Security Gateways will have a Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) for each VPN Tunnel with a peer VPN Gateway. The Routing Table can have routes to

forward traffic to these VTIs. Any traffic routed through a VTI is automatically identified as VPN Traffic and is passed through the VPN Tunnel associated with the VTI.

C.

Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways.

A VPN domain is a service or user that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

D.

Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a host or network that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

Question 168

Check Point Support in many cases asks you for a configuration summary of your Check Point system. This is also called:

Options:

A.

cpexport

B.

sysinfo

C.

cpsizeme

D.

cpinfo

Question 169

From SecureXL perspective, what are the three paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

Question 170

When using the Mail Transfer Agent, where are the debug logs stored?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/bin/emaild.mta. elg

B.

$FWDIR/log/mtad elg

C.

/var/log/mail.mta elg

D.

$CPDIR/log/emaild elg

Question 171

Which of the following is NOT a valid type of SecureXL template?

Options:

A.

Accept Template

B.

Deny template

C.

Drop Template

D.

NAT Template

Question 172

To optimize Rule Base efficiency, the most hit rules should be where?

Options:

A.

Removed from the Rule Base.

B.

Towards the middle of the Rule Base.

C.

Towards the top of the Rule Base.

D.

Towards the bottom of the Rule Base.

Question 173

You pushed a policy to your gateway and you cannot access the gateway remotely any more. What command should you use to remove the policy from the gateway by logging in through console access?

Options:

A.

"fw cpstop"

B.

"fw unloadlocal"

C.

"fwundo"

D.

"fw unloadpolicy''

Question 174

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole

B.

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C.

Security Management Server

D.

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

Question 175

Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?

Options:

A.

Auditor

B.

Read Only All

C.

Super User

D.

Full Access

Question 176

Bob works for a big security outsourcing provider company and as he receives a lot of change requests per day he wants to use for scripting daily tasks the API services (torn Check Point for the GAIA API. Firstly he needs to be aware if the API services are running for the GAIA operating system. Which of the following Check Point Command is true:

Options:

A.

gala_dlish status

B.

status gaiaapi

C.

api_gala status

D.

gala_api status

Question 177

After having saved the Clish Configuration with the "save configuration config.txt" command, where can you find the config.txt file?

Options:

A.

You will find it in the home directory of your user account (e.g. /home/admin/)

B.

You can locate the file via SmartConsole > Command Line.

C.

You have to launch the WebUI and go to "Config" -> "Export Config File" and specifiy the destination directory of your local file system.

D.

You cannot locate the file in the file system since Clish does not have any access to the bash file system

Question 178

Which Check Point software blade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Firewall

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

URL Filtering

Question 179

SecureXL is able to accelerate the Connection Rate using templates. Which attributes are used in the template to identify the connection?

Options:

A.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port

B.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port

C.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port. Pro^col

D.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port. Protocol

Question 180

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or ______ .

Options:

A.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.

On specific tunnels in the community

D.

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

Question 181

What is the base level encryption key used by Capsule Docs?

Options:

A.

RSA 2048

B.

RSA 1024

C.

SHA-256

D.

AES

Question 182

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

Options:

A.

Admin and Default

B.

Expert and Clish

C.

Control and Monitor

D.

Admin and Monitor

Question 183

Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via e-mail. An e-mail with Security_report.pdf file was delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file, she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing some graphs, tables and links.

Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?

Options:

A.

SandBlast Threat Emulation

B.

SandBlast Agent

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

SandBlast Threat Extraction

Question 184

After upgrading the primary security management server from R80.40 to R81.10 Bob wants to use the central deployment in SmartConsole R81.10 for the first time. How many installations (e.g. Jumbo Hotfix, Hotfixes or Upgrade Packages) can run of such at the same time:

Options:

A.

Up to 5 gateways

B.

only 1 gateway

C.

Up to 10 gateways

D.

Up to 3 gateways

Question 185

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Full

B.

Custom

C.

Light

D.

Complete

Question 186

Which Queue in the Priority Queue has the maximum priority?

Options:

A.

High Priority

B.

Control

C.

Routing

D.

Heavy Data Queue

Question 187

Which two Cluster Solutions are available under R81.20?

Options:

A.

ClusterXL and NSRP

B.

VRRPandHSRP

C.

VRRP and IP Clustering

D.

ClusterXL and VRitP

Question 188

Which one of the following is NOT a configurable Compliance Regulation?

Options:

A.

GLBA

B.

CJIS

C.

SOCI

D.

NCIPA

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Total 628 questions